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CTRS study materials
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CTRS practice questions

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Question 1Foundations and Professional Practice

Therapeutic recreation in the United States expanded most rapidly as a profession as a result of which development?

  1. Federal funding for national parks in the 1930s
  2. Rehabilitation of veterans after World War II Correct answer.
  3. The settlement house movement of the late 1800s
  4. The growth of collegiate athletic programs after 1970

Explanation

Therapeutic recreation became formalized largely through hospital recreation and rehabilitation programs developed for service members returning from World War II. These programs established recreation as a treatment service within health care and led to the field's early professional organizations and standards.

Question 2Foundations and Professional Practice

In therapeutic recreation, the abbreviation CTRS identifies a professional who is a:

  1. Certified Treatment and Recreation Specialist
  2. Clinical Therapeutic Recreation Specialist
  3. Certified Therapeutic Recreation Specialist Correct answer.
  4. Certified Therapeutic Recreation Supervisor

Explanation

CTRS stands for Certified Therapeutic Recreation Specialist, the title granted by the National Council for Therapeutic Recreation Certification after meeting education, internship, and examination requirements. The credential is individual and time-limited, requiring recertification to remain active.

Question 3Foundations and Professional Practice

Which organization develops and administers the national certification examination for therapeutic recreation specialists?

  1. American Therapeutic Recreation Association
  2. Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs
  3. National Council for Therapeutic Recreation Certification Correct answer.
  4. National Recreation and Park Association

Explanation

The National Council for Therapeutic Recreation Certification is the credentialing body that sets eligibility standards, writes and administers the certification exam, and manages recertification. Professional membership associations and accreditors serve different functions.

Question 4Foundations and Professional Practice

In the APIED process, which step comes immediately after assessment?

  1. Documentation
  2. Implementation
  3. Evaluation
  4. Planning Correct answer.

Explanation

APIED stands for Assessment, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation, and Documentation. Assessment data are used to write individualized goals, objectives, and intervention selections, which constitutes planning.

Question 5Foundations and Professional Practice

Neulinger's paradigm describes leisure primarily as a state of mind defined by:

  1. Physical exertion and social contact
  2. Scheduled time away from employment
  3. Skill mastery and competition
  4. Perceived freedom and intrinsic motivation Correct answer.

Explanation

Neulinger proposed that an activity is leisure only when the person perceives freedom of choice and is motivated by the activity itself rather than by external reward. Time away from work is not sufficient, because the same activity can be work or leisure depending on perceived freedom and motivation.

Question 6Foundations and Professional Practice

Under the professional code of ethics for therapeutic recreation, the CTRS's primary obligation is to:

  1. The referring physician's preferences
  2. The professional association's membership
  3. The employing facility's financial goals
  4. The welfare and rights of the consumer Correct answer.

Explanation

Codes of ethics in health professions place the client's welfare, dignity, safety, and right to self-determination above other interests. Obligations to employers, colleagues, and the profession are secondary when they conflict with consumer welfare.

Question 7Foundations and Professional Practice

Which federal law prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability in public accommodations and requires reasonable modifications to policies and practices?

  1. The Fair Labor Standards Act
  2. The Rehabilitation Act of 1973, Section 504
  3. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 Correct answer.
  4. The Individuals with Disabilities Education Act

Explanation

Title III of the Americans with Disabilities Act bars disability discrimination in places of public accommodation and requires reasonable modifications to policies, practices, and procedures unless doing so would fundamentally alter the service. Section 504 applies to programs receiving federal funds, and IDEA governs special education.

Question 8Foundations and Professional Practice

According to Parten's stages of social play, a young child who plays alone with toys and shows no interest in the other children in the room is engaged in:

  1. Parallel play
  2. Cooperative play
  3. Associative play
  4. Solitary play Correct answer.

Explanation

Parten described a developmental sequence from unoccupied and solitary play through onlooker, parallel, associative, and cooperative play. Solitary play involves independent activity with no social reference to peers, which distinguishes it from parallel play, where children play side by side with similar materials.

Question 9Foundations and Professional Practice

In the Leisure Ability Model, the component that focuses on reducing or remediating a client's functional deficits, such as poor endurance or limited social skills, is called:

  1. Recreation participation
  2. Health promotion
  3. Functional intervention Correct answer.
  4. Leisure education

Explanation

The Leisure Ability Model organizes services into functional intervention, leisure education, and recreation participation. Functional intervention comes first and targets underlying physical, cognitive, emotional, or social limitations that restrict leisure involvement.

Question 10Foundations and Professional Practice

Austin's Health Protection/Health Promotion Model describes the ultimate aim of therapeutic recreation as:

  1. Restoring clients to their pre-illness activity level
  2. Raising the facility's community reintegration rate
  3. Teaching clients to schedule their own recreation
  4. Helping clients reach optimal health through leisure Correct answer.

Explanation

This model moves from health protection, which uses prescriptive activities and recreation to stabilize and remediate, toward health promotion, which uses leisure to help people achieve their highest level of health and well-being. The endpoint is optimal health rather than merely return to baseline.

Question 11Foundations and Professional Practice

Which of the following is a standardized instrument used to assess leisure in therapeutic recreation practice?

  1. A facility's monthly activity calendar
  2. An informal interview with a family member
  3. The Leisure Satisfaction Scale Correct answer.
  4. A staff-written progress note

Explanation

A standardized instrument has fixed administration procedures, established scoring, and normative or psychometric data supporting its use. The Leisure Satisfaction Scale meets these criteria, whereas calendars, interviews, and progress notes are nonstandardized agency materials or clinical records.

Question 12Foundations and Professional Practice

In a SOAP note, the CTRS's clinical interpretation of a client's behavior and progress belongs in which section?

  1. Assessment Correct answer.
  2. Subjective
  3. Plan
  4. Objective

Explanation

SOAP stands for Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan. The Assessment section holds the clinician's interpretation, analysis, and judgment about progress toward goals, which distinguishes it from the client's report and from measurable observations.

Question 13Foundations and Professional Practice

A client says, "I hate group games because I always lose." The CTRS replies, "It sounds like losing makes group games frustrating for you." This response is an example of:

  1. Giving advice
  2. Summarizing
  3. Confrontation
  4. Paraphrasing Correct answer.

Explanation

Paraphrasing restates the content and feeling of a client's message in the helper's own words to demonstrate understanding and invite elaboration. It differs from summarizing, which condenses a larger block of discussion, and from confrontation, which points out discrepancies.

Question 14Foundations and Professional Practice

Evidence-based practice in therapeutic recreation is best defined as clinical decision making that integrates:

  1. Research evidence, clinician expertise, and client values Correct answer.
  2. Client preference alone, since clients know their needs
  3. Accreditation standards and reimbursement rules
  4. Facility policy, staff availability, and departmental budget limits

Explanation

Evidence-based practice requires the conscientious integration of the best available research, the practitioner's clinical expertise, and the client's values, preferences, and circumstances. Using only one of these sources produces decisions that are less defensible and less individualized.

Question 15Foundations and Professional Practice

A CTRS redesigns a community bingo program so that large-print cards, adjustable tables, and picture call cards are available to everyone. This practice best illustrates:

  1. Task analysis
  2. Reverse mainstreaming
  3. Universal design Correct answer.
  4. Activity grading

Explanation

Universal design means designing environments, materials, and activities to be usable by the widest range of people without separate or stigmatizing adaptations. When supports are built into the activity for all participants, individual accommodation becomes unnecessary.

Question 16Foundations and Professional Practice

A CTRS planning a holiday program for a culturally diverse group should first:

  1. Ask the administrator which holidays are approved
  2. Select activities from the dominant culture
  3. Learn about the clients' cultural backgrounds Correct answer.
  4. Avoid all holiday themes to prevent disagreement

Explanation

Culturally competent practice begins with learning about clients' cultural identities, values, and preferences so that programs are relevant and respectful. Gathering this information before selecting activities prevents both unwarranted exclusion of meaningful traditions and imposition of a single culture's practices.

Question 17Foundations and Professional Practice

According to Csikszentmihalyi, the flow state is most likely when:

  1. The activity is completely free of any challenge
  2. The person competes against others of higher skill
  3. External rewards are offered for each success
  4. Challenges are matched to the person's skills Correct answer.

Explanation

Flow is a state of deep engagement that occurs when perceived challenge and perceived skill are balanced at a high level. If challenge exceeds skill the person feels anxious; if skill exceeds challenge the person becomes bored.

Question 18Foundations and Professional Practice

Which organization is a national professional membership association whose mission centers on advocacy, education, and networking for therapeutic recreation practitioners?

  1. The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
  2. The National Council for Therapeutic Recreation Certification
  3. The American Therapeutic Recreation Association Correct answer.
  4. The Joint Commission

Explanation

The American Therapeutic Recreation Association is the national membership organization for therapeutic recreation professionals and focuses on advocacy, public awareness, education, and professional development. Certification, accreditation, and payment regulation are handled by separate bodies.

Question 19Foundations and Professional Practice

A client in a skilled nursing facility reports new pain during a group. The CTRS should:

  1. Adjust the client's pain medication per standing order
  2. Stop the activity and report the pain to the nurse Correct answer.
  3. Send the client to his or her room without notifying staff
  4. Continue the group and document the complaint later

Explanation

Medication management is outside the CTRS scope of practice, so the appropriate action is to stop the activity, ensure the client's safety and comfort, and report the change to nursing. Prompt referral supports continuity of care and timely medical evaluation.

Question 20Foundations and Professional Practice

At the end of a 12-week program, a CTRS analyzes outcome data to decide whether the program met its objectives. This is an example of:

  1. Summative evaluation Correct answer.
  2. Process evaluation
  3. Needs assessment
  4. Formative evaluation

Explanation

Summative evaluation judges the overall results of a completed program against its stated objectives. Formative evaluation occurs during the program to guide adjustments, process evaluation examines how services were delivered, and a needs assessment precedes program design.

Question 21Foundations and Professional Practice

In classical leisure theory, Aristotle held that leisure is:

  1. A reward earned through productive labor
  2. An end in itself and the highest human activity Correct answer.
  3. A period of rest needed to restore capacity for work
  4. Time remaining after all obligations are completed

Explanation

Aristotle treated leisure as an end in itself, pursued for its own sake and as the condition for contemplation and the highest human flourishing. He distinguished it from recreation and rest, which serve to restore the person for work.

Question 22Foundations and Professional Practice

The 1999 U.S. Supreme Court decision in Olmstead v. L.C. established that:

  1. Certification is required to practice therapeutic recreation
  2. Students with disabilities must be educated in separate settings
  3. Unnecessary institutionalization may violate the ADA Correct answer.
  4. Recreation services must be billed apart from nursing care

Explanation

Olmstead held that unjustified segregation of people with disabilities in institutions can constitute discrimination under Title II of the Americans with Disabilities Act. The decision supports serving people with disabilities in the most integrated setting appropriate to their needs.

Question 23Foundations and Professional Practice

A CTRS observes that clients in a new social skills group show improved interaction and concludes the group caused the gain. Which design feature would best support this causal claim?

  1. Frequent documentation of each session
  2. A larger number of sessions per client
  3. Client self-reports collected after each session
  4. A comparison group that did not get the group Correct answer.

Explanation

A causal claim requires ruling out alternative explanations such as maturation, outside events, or selection, which is best done with a comparison or control group. Documentation, more sessions, and post-session self-reports improve description but do not isolate the intervention's effect.

Question 24Foundations and Professional Practice

Under IDEA, the principle of least restrictive environment requires that students with disabilities be:

  1. Placed in whatever setting the parents prefer
  2. Placed in a separate special education classroom full time
  3. Educated at home until ready for general education classes
  4. Educated with nondisabled peers as much as appropriate Correct answer.

Explanation

The least restrictive environment principle requires education alongside nondisabled peers to the maximum extent appropriate, with supplementary aids and services as needed. Placement outside the general setting is justified only when education in that setting cannot be achieved satisfactorily.

Question 25Foundations and Professional Practice

The Leisure and Well-Being Model (Carruthers and Hood) is best characterized by which view of leisure in therapeutic recreation?

  1. Leisure is a reward given after treatment goals are met
  2. Leisure is used only to reduce psychiatric symptoms
  3. Leisure is defined by the absence of work obligations
  4. Leisure is a resource for building well-being Correct answer.

Explanation

This model treats leisure as a pathway to well-being and combines a strengths-building orientation with efforts to reduce the effects of illness and disability. Services aim to develop leisure resources and capacities that support a satisfying life, not simply to remove symptoms.

Question 26Foundations and Professional Practice

The early growth of therapeutic recreation in the United States was most strongly influenced by recreation services provided in which setting?

  1. Corporate employee wellness and productivity programs
  2. College intramural programs and campus recreation centers
  3. Hospitals and military convalescent programs for people recovering from illness or injury Correct answer.
  4. Professional sports leagues and commercial fitness clubs

Explanation

Therapeutic recreation grew largely from organized recreation in psychiatric hospitals, veterans' facilities, and rehabilitation settings, where activity was used to support recovery and adjustment. Commercial, collegiate, and corporate recreation developed along separate lines and were not the profession's main foundation.

Question 27Foundations and Professional Practice

In therapeutic recreation, the acronym CTRS identifies a professional who has:

  1. registered as a volunteer recreation leader with a community agency
  2. earned a doctoral degree in recreation and leisure studies
  3. met the certification standards of the National Council for Therapeutic Recreation Certification Correct answer.
  4. completed a state licensing examination for recreation administrators

Explanation

CTRS stands for Certified Therapeutic Recreation Specialist, a credential awarded by NCTRC after meeting education, internship, and examination requirements. It is a national certification rather than a state license or an academic degree.

Question 28Foundations and Professional Practice

Before starting a high-adventure activity with a group of adolescents in a residential program, the CTRS should first:

  1. screen participants for contraindications and confirm required certifications and equipment Correct answer.
  2. ask the group to sign a waiver releasing the program from all liability
  3. document the activity in the unit calendar
  4. announce the activity and divide participants into teams

Explanation

Risk management begins with pre-activity screening, verifying staff qualifications, and checking equipment and the environment. A waiver does not replace safety planning, and organizing teams should occur only after readiness is confirmed.

Question 29Foundations and Professional Practice

A person-centered approach to therapeutic recreation planning means that goals and activities are primarily shaped by:

  1. the client's stated interests, values, and priorities Correct answer.
  2. the CTRS's preferred program schedule
  3. the funding source's reporting requirements
  4. the facility's standard activity calendar

Explanation

Person-centered practice places the client's preferences, strengths, and goals at the center of planning while still meeting clinical and safety requirements. Facility routines and payer rules may constrain services but do not determine the goals.

Question 30Foundations and Professional Practice

The therapeutic recreation process is commonly described by the acronym APIED. The “I” in this sequence refers to:

  1. integration of the client into community groups
  2. implementation of the individualized intervention plan Correct answer.
  3. identification of the client's diagnosis by the treatment team
  4. inspection of program equipment before each session

Explanation

APIED stands for Assessment, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation, and Documentation; implementation is the phase in which the plan is delivered. Diagnosis is a medical function, equipment inspection is a safety task, and community integration is a possible outcome or goal.

Question 31Foundations and Professional Practice

A client agrees to participate in a community outing but does not understand the transportation and supervision arrangements. The CTRS's best response is to:

  1. proceed because the client already signed the consent form
  2. explain the arrangements in plain language, confirm understanding, and allow the client to ask questions before deciding Correct answer.
  3. cancel the outing for the entire group
  4. ask the client's roommate to explain the arrangements

Explanation

Valid informed consent requires that the client receive understandable information, comprehend it, and voluntarily agree. A signature alone does not establish understanding, and the CTRS is responsible for verifying comprehension.

Question 32Foundations and Professional Practice

A client's family member calls the recreation therapy office and asks for details about the client's treatment. The CTRS should:

  1. provide a full update because family members are automatically authorized
  2. tell the caller to look at the client's social media posts
  3. read the chart aloud to confirm the caller's identity
  4. decline to share protected information unless the client has authorized release, following facility policy Correct answer.

Explanation

Confidentiality rules, including HIPAA, require the CTRS to protect health information and share it only with proper authorization or as permitted by law and facility policy. A family relationship alone does not create a right to clinical details.

Question 33Foundations and Professional Practice

A CTRS administers the same leisure assessment to a client twice within a short period and obtains very different scores although the client's functioning has not changed. This most directly raises concern about the instrument's:

  1. test-retest reliability Correct answer.
  2. content validity
  3. social desirability
  4. ceiling effect

Explanation

Test-retest reliability concerns the consistency of scores across repeated administrations when the underlying condition is stable. Content validity concerns whether items represent the intended domain, not stability across time.

Question 34Foundations and Professional Practice

When selecting leisure activities for a group whose members differ in language, religion, and family roles, the CTRS should:

  1. use only activities the CTRS personally knows well
  2. learn about members' cultural norms and offer choices that reflect and respect those norms Correct answer.
  3. assume all members share the majority culture's holiday traditions
  4. avoid discussing culture to keep the group neutral

Explanation

Culturally competent practice involves learning about clients' cultural contexts and adapting programs so that participation is meaningful and respectful. Ignoring culture or relying only on the therapist's own background can exclude clients.

Question 35Foundations and Professional Practice

During a leisure education group, two members begin arguing loudly and other members become quiet. The CTRS's most appropriate immediate action is to:

  1. interrupt the exchange, restate group expectations, and help the members address the issue safely Correct answer.
  2. ignore the argument so the group learns to resolve conflict on its own
  3. end the group permanently
  4. take sides with the member who began the disagreement

Explanation

The CTRS is responsible for maintaining a safe therapeutic environment, which includes setting limits and facilitating constructive conflict resolution. Ignoring escalating conflict risks harm, and taking sides undermines fairness.

Question 36Foundations and Professional Practice

Which progress note entry is written in the most objective, behavioral style?

  1. Client seemed to have a bad day.
  2. Client probably will not progress until attitude improves.
  3. Client was angry and manipulative during the session.
  4. Client attended the full 45-minute session, completed three of four planned steps, and asked staff for help twice. Correct answer.

Explanation

Objective documentation describes observable, measurable behavior rather than judgments, inferences, or predictions. Words such as “manipulative,” “seemed,” and “probably” introduce subjective interpretation.

Question 37Foundations and Professional Practice

A CTRS wants to advocate for more inclusive community recreation opportunities. Which action is most consistent with professional advocacy?

  1. refuse to serve clients who need accommodations
  2. present outcome data and client-centered recommendations to local parks officials Correct answer.
  3. change a client's treatment plan without involving the client
  4. share a client's diagnosis and photo on social media without consent

Explanation

Professional advocacy uses accurate data, ethical communication, and client-centered recommendations to influence policy and expand services. It must protect confidentiality and involve clients in decisions.

Question 38Foundations and Professional Practice

A client offers the CTRS an expensive gift and asks for the therapist's personal phone number. The most appropriate response is to:

  1. accept both to preserve the therapeutic relationship
  2. decline the gift and phone request while explaining professional boundaries and exploring the client's underlying need Correct answer.
  3. give the phone number but ask the client to use it only in emergencies
  4. accept the gift but refuse the phone number

Explanation

Professional boundaries protect both client and therapist; gifts and personal contact can create dual relationships and exploitation risk. The CTRS should respond clearly and use the moment to explore the client's feelings or needs.

Question 39Foundations and Professional Practice

A CTRS is documenting services for a third-party payer. Which practice best supports reimbursement and professional integrity?

  1. use the same generic note for every client to save time
  2. submit charges before verifying that services were delivered
  3. document the skilled intervention, the client's response, and the functional need in a timely manner Correct answer.
  4. record interventions that were not actually provided to meet billing thresholds

Explanation

Reimbursement documentation must accurately reflect skilled services, medical necessity, client response, and functional goals, and it must be completed promptly. Falsifying or cloning notes constitutes fraud and undermines care.

Question 40Foundations and Professional Practice

A CTRS finds that clients in a new program improved, but clients who chose the program may have been more motivated from the start. This concern is best described as:

  1. interrater reliability
  2. a floor effect
  3. selection bias Correct answer.
  4. random measurement error

Explanation

Selection bias occurs when pre-existing group differences, such as motivation, explain part of the outcome rather than the program itself. Reliability concerns consistency of measurement, and floor effects occur when scores cluster at the low end.

Question 41Assessment

A recreation therapist administers the same leisure interest inventory to a client twice within two weeks and obtains nearly identical scores. This result provides evidence of which measurement property?

  1. Test-retest reliability Correct answer.
  2. Content validity
  3. Criterion validity
  4. Interrater agreement

Explanation

Test-retest reliability refers to the consistency of scores when the same instrument is administered to the same person on two occasions. Nearly identical scores across a short interval support that form of reliability. Content validity concerns item coverage, interrater agreement concerns consistency between raters, and criterion validity concerns association with an external standard.

Question 42Assessment

A leisure assessment tool yields stable scores across repeated administrations, but its items measure anxiety rather than leisure interest. Which measurement property is compromised?

  1. Objectivity
  2. Validity Correct answer.
  3. Sensitivity
  4. Reliability

Explanation

Validity is the extent to which an instrument measures the construct it is intended to measure. A tool can produce consistent scores and still be invalid if it measures the wrong construct. Reliability concerns consistency, objectivity concerns freedom from scorer bias, and sensitivity concerns detection of change or subtle differences.

Question 43Assessment

A therapist compares a client's score on a leisure participation scale with scores from a large national sample of similar age. This is an example of which type of interpretation?

  1. Ecological
  2. Norm-referenced Correct answer.
  3. Ipsative
  4. Criterion-referenced

Explanation

Norm-referenced interpretation compares an individual's score with the performance of a defined normative group. The national age-matched sample serves as that reference group. Criterion-referenced interpretation compares performance with a fixed standard, ipsative interpretation compares a person with their own prior performance, and ecological assessment focuses on environmental fit.

Question 44Assessment

A client is rated against a predetermined standard of independently completing 80% of the steps in a cooking task. This is best described as which type of assessment interpretation?

  1. Projective
  2. Norm-referenced
  3. Criterion-referenced Correct answer.
  4. Ipsative

Explanation

Criterion-referenced interpretation evaluates performance against a fixed standard or expected level of mastery. The 80% independence criterion is such a standard. Norm-referenced interpretation uses group comparisons, projective techniques use ambiguous stimuli, and ipsative interpretation uses self-comparison.

Question 45Assessment

A therapist observes a client in group every 10 minutes and records whether the client is participating at that moment. Which observation method is being used?

  1. Anecdotal record
  2. Running record
  3. Time sampling Correct answer.
  4. Event sampling

Explanation

Time sampling records whether a behavior is occurring at specified intervals rather than continuously or at every occurrence. Checking participation every 10 minutes matches that method. Event sampling records each occurrence, a running record is a continuous narrative, and an anecdotal record is a brief narrative description of a specific incident.

Question 46Assessment

Which is the primary purpose of a leisure interest inventory?

  1. To identify preferred activities and interests Correct answer.
  2. To diagnose a psychiatric disorder
  3. To evaluate fine motor skills
  4. To measure intellectual ability

Explanation

A leisure interest inventory gathers information about a client's activity preferences, hobbies, and desired leisure pursuits. It is used to individualize program planning rather than to diagnose mental disorders, measure intelligence, or assess motor skills.

Question 47Assessment

A functional assessment in therapeutic recreation primarily documents which information?

  1. Everyday task performance Correct answer.
  2. Personality type
  3. Intelligence quotient
  4. Theory preference

Explanation

Functional assessment describes a client's actual ability to perform daily tasks and activities needed for participation. It focuses on observable performance and assistance needs rather than personality classification or intelligence scores.

Question 48Assessment

Which standardized instrument is used in U.S. nursing homes to document resident functional status as part of the Resident Assessment Instrument?

  1. Minimum Data Set Correct answer.
  2. Mini-Mental State Examination
  3. Global Assessment of Functioning
  4. SOAP note

Explanation

The Minimum Data Set is the standardized assessment component of the Resident Assessment Instrument used in U.S. nursing homes. It documents resident functional, health, and psychosocial status for care planning. The Mini-Mental State Examination assesses cognition, the Global Assessment of Functioning rates overall functioning, and a SOAP note is a documentation format.

Question 49Assessment

In a SOAP note, which section contains the therapist's clinical interpretation of the client's response to intervention?

  1. Subjective
  2. Assessment Correct answer.
  3. Plan
  4. Objective

Explanation

In SOAP documentation, the Assessment section presents the therapist's clinical interpretation and analysis of the client's status and response. Subjective contains client-reported information, Objective contains measurable observations, and Plan outlines future actions.

Question 50Assessment

Which advantage is most characteristic of an interview compared with a written questionnaire?

  1. It guarantees standardized scoring
  2. It provides national norms
  3. It allows the therapist to clarify responses Correct answer.
  4. It eliminates interviewer bias

Explanation

An interview allows the therapist to probe ambiguous answers, clarify questions, and follow up on relevant details. It does not guarantee standardized scoring, eliminate interviewer bias, or automatically provide national norms.