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NEHA CPFM practice questions

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Question 1Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Which temperature range is the temperature danger zone in which TCS food must not be held?

  1. 41°F to 135°F (5°C to 57°C) Correct answer.
  2. 135°F to 165°F (57°C to 74°C)
  3. 0°F to 41°F (-18°C to 5°C)
  4. 32°F to 212°F (0°C to 100°C)

Explanation

Bacteria that cause foodborne illness multiply most rapidly between 41°F and 135°F, so time/temperature control for safety (TCS) food must be kept at or below 41°F or at or above 135°F. Holding food inside this range gives pathogens time to reach infectious or toxin-producing levels.

Question 2Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

What is the minimum internal cooking temperature for poultry?

  1. 145°F (63°C)
  2. 165°F (74°C) Correct answer.
  3. 135°F (57°C)
  4. 155°F (68°C)

Explanation

Poultry must reach 165°F throughout because chicken and turkey are frequently contaminated with Salmonella and Campylobacter and are often cooked in large, dense pieces where heat penetration is uneven. Lower temperatures are assigned to other foods such as whole-muscle pork or fish.

Question 3Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

What is the minimum water temperature required at a handwashing sink used by food employees?

  1. 120°F (49°C)
  2. 110°F (43°C)
  3. 100°F (38°C) Correct answer.
  4. 90°F (32°C)

Explanation

The Food Code requires handwashing sinks to deliver water at a minimum of 100°F so employees can wash comfortably and frequently without scalding. Water that is too cool discourages thorough handwashing, and water above roughly 110°F risks burns.

Question 4Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Which of these is classified as a biological food safety hazard?

  1. Norovirus on a salad bar utensil Correct answer.
  2. A metal shaving from a can opener
  3. A glass fragment from a broken light
  4. Sanitizer residue on a cutting board

Explanation

Biological hazards are living organisms or their toxins, including viruses, bacteria, parasites, and molds. Norovirus on a utensil is a microbial contaminant, whereas residues, metal, and glass are chemical or physical hazards.

Question 5Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

TCS food held cold must be maintained at or below which temperature?

  1. 41°F (5°C) Correct answer.
  2. 55°F (13°C)
  3. 45°F (7°C)
  4. 50°F (10°C)

Explanation

Cold holding must keep TCS food at 41°F or lower to slow or stop pathogen multiplication. Temperatures above 41°F move food into the danger zone where bacteria such as Listeria can multiply.

Question 6Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

How many principles make up a HACCP plan?

  1. Nine
  2. Twelve
  3. Five
  4. Seven Correct answer.

Explanation

HACCP has seven principles, beginning with hazard analysis and ending with recordkeeping procedures. The principles form a logical sequence from identifying hazards to verifying that controls work.

Question 7Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

An employee chops raw chicken on a cutting board, wipes the board with a cloth, and then slices melon on the same board. This situation is best described as which of the following?

  1. A cross-connection
  2. Time-temperature abuse
  3. Cross-contamination Correct answer.
  4. A food defense breach

Explanation

Cross-contamination is the transfer of pathogens from a raw animal food or contaminated surface to a ready-to-eat food. Melon receives no kill step, so pathogens transferred from the chicken juice survive to the consumer.

Question 8Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Raw oysters are the classic vehicle for which of these pathogens?

  1. Vibrio vulnificus Correct answer.
  2. Staphylococcus aureus
  3. Listeria monocytogenes
  4. Bacillus cereus

Explanation

Vibrio vulnificus and other Vibrio species occur naturally in estuarine water and concentrate in filter-feeding shellfish such as oysters. Because oysters are often eaten raw, the organisms are not killed before consumption.

Question 9Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Cooked rice that is held at room temperature for several hours and later reheated is most often linked to which organism?

  1. Bacillus cereus Correct answer.
  2. Clostridium botulinum
  3. Campylobacter jejuni
  4. Hepatitis A virus

Explanation

Bacillus cereus spores survive cooking, germinate in rice left in the danger zone, and produce a heat-stable emetic toxin. Reheating does not reliably destroy that toxin, so illness follows even when the rice is served hot.

Question 10Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Which pathogen is a particular concern in ready-to-eat deli meats because it can multiply at refrigeration temperatures?

  1. Shigella dysenteriae
  2. Campylobacter coli
  3. Listeria monocytogenes Correct answer.
  4. Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi

Explanation

Listeria monocytogenes grows at temperatures as low as about 24°F to 30°F, so refrigeration slows but does not stop it. Ready-to-eat foods such as deli meats are eaten without a cooking step, making growth during storage a direct risk.

Question 11Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Home-canned low-acid vegetables are the classic vehicle for which illness?

  1. Botulism Correct answer.
  2. Bacillus cereus gastroenteritis
  3. Trichinellosis
  4. Scombroid poisoning

Explanation

Clostridium botulinum spores survive boiling and germinate in sealed, anaerobic, low-acid jars, where the growing cells release neurotoxin. Adequate pressure canning at 240°F or above is needed to destroy the spores in low-acid foods.

Question 12Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Which statement best describes staphylococcal food poisoning?

  1. Spores survive cooking and germinate in the intestine
  2. A heat-stable toxin forms in the food before eating Correct answer.
  3. Virus is spread by an infected food handler
  4. Toxin is produced in the intestine after ingestion

Explanation

Staphylococcus aureus carried on the hands, nose, or skin contaminates food and produces enterotoxin if the food stays in the danger zone. That toxin is not destroyed by ordinary reheating, so cooking the food again does not prevent illness.

Question 13Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Which pathogen is most closely associated with undercooked ground beef and hemolytic uremic syndrome?

  1. Clostridium perfringens
  2. Staphylococcus aureus
  3. Vibrio vulnificus
  4. E. coli O157:H7 Correct answer.

Explanation

E. coli O157:H7 produces Shiga toxins that can damage blood vessels and lead to hemolytic uremic syndrome, especially in children. Grinding distributes organisms from the surface throughout the meat, so the interior must reach 155°F.

Question 14Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

TCS food must be cooled from 135°F to 70°F within what time, and from 70°F to 41°F within what additional time?

  1. 2 hours; 4 hours Correct answer.
  2. 2 hours; 6 hours
  3. 6 hours; 2 hours
  4. 4 hours; 2 hours

Explanation

The two-stage cooling requirement is 135°F to 70°F within 2 hours and 70°F to 41°F within 4 more hours, for a total of 6 hours. The shorter first stage limits the time food spends in the range where bacteria multiply fastest.

Question 15Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

When reheating previously cooked TCS food for hot holding, what internal temperature must be reached and within what time?

  1. 165°F within 2 hours Correct answer.
  2. 135°F within 30 minutes
  3. 155°F within 4 hours
  4. 145°F within 1 hour

Explanation

Reheating for hot holding must bring the food to 165°F for 15 seconds within 2 hours. Rapid reheating limits the time the food spends in the danger zone and ensures any bacteria that grew during cooling are destroyed.

Question 16Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Where should cleaning chemicals be stored in a food establishment?

  1. In unlabeled spray bottles near the dish machine
  2. On a shelf directly above the prep table for quick access
  3. In dry storage next to open bulk flour
  4. Below and away from food and food-contact surfaces Correct answer.

Explanation

Chemicals must be stored so they cannot drip, spill, or migrate onto food, equipment, or single-service articles. Keeping them below and separated from food prevents accidental chemical contamination, which is a leading cause of reported foodborne illness incidents in foodservice.

Question 17Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

A food handler who is vomiting and has diarrhea prepares ready-to-eat food. Which agent is most likely to be transmitted?

  1. Anisakis simplex
  2. Bacillus cereus
  3. Clostridium botulinum
  4. Norovirus Correct answer.

Explanation

Norovirus is shed in extremely high numbers in vomit and feces, and a very small dose infects others. Because ready-to-eat food receives no kill step, contamination from unwashed hands passes directly to consumers.

Question 18Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Which virus is transmitted by an infected food handler and causes an illness marked by jaundice and a long incubation period?

  1. Hepatitis A virus Correct answer.
  2. Sapovirus
  3. Rotavirus
  4. Norovirus

Explanation

Hepatitis A has an incubation period of roughly 2 to 7 weeks and can cause jaundice, dark urine, and fatigue. It spreads by the fecal-oral route, often through an infected handler touching ready-to-eat food.

Question 19Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

When a facility uses time as a public health control without maintaining temperature, the food must be marked with a time that does not exceed how many hours from removal from temperature control?

  1. 3 hours
  2. 8 hours
  3. 2 hours
  4. 4 hours Correct answer.

Explanation

Under time as a public health control, food that starts at 41°F or below may be held without temperature control for a maximum of 4 hours. It must be marked with the discard time and thrown out when that time is reached.

Question 20Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Which of these is one of the nine major food allergens recognized in the United States?

  1. Tomatoes
  2. Rice
  3. Corn
  4. Sesame Correct answer.

Explanation

Sesame was added as the ninth major allergen under the FASTER Act, joining milk, eggs, fish, crustacean shellfish, tree nuts, peanuts, wheat, and soybeans. These must be declared on labels and controlled in the kitchen.

Question 21Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

A caterer holds gravy and sliced roast beef in a chafing dish at 120°F for 6 hours; guests develop diarrhea about 10 hours later. Which organism is the most likely cause?

  1. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
  2. Clostridium perfringens Correct answer.
  3. Staphylococcus aureus
  4. Salmonella enterica serovar Enteritidis

Explanation

Clostridium perfringens forms heat-resistant spores that survive cooking; when the food is held in the danger zone, the spores germinate and the cells produce enterotoxin in the intestine. The roughly 8 to 12 hour incubation with diarrhea and little vomiting is characteristic.

Question 22Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

A person who eats improperly stored tuna develops flushing, headache, and a burning sensation in the mouth within minutes. Which cause fits best?

  1. Tetrodotoxin in pufferfish tissue
  2. Ciguatoxin accumulated in predatory reef fish
  3. Brevetoxin from dinoflagellates
  4. Histamine formed by bacterial decarboxylation Correct answer.

Explanation

Scombroid poisoning occurs when bacteria in temperature-abused scombroid fish convert histidine to histamine, which resists cooking and freezing. Symptoms resemble an allergic reaction and begin within minutes to a couple of hours.

Question 23Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Botulinum spores require about 121°C of moist heat to destroy, but the preformed neurotoxin already present in food is destroyed by which treatment?

  1. Heating to 80°C (176°F) for 10 minutes Correct answer.
  2. Adding 2% salt by weight
  3. Freezing at -18°C for at least 24 hours
  4. Holding at 41°F (5°C) for 12 hours

Explanation

The botulinum toxin is a protein and is far less heat resistant than the spore, being inactivated by boiling or by about 80°C for 10 minutes. This is why foods suspected of containing preformed toxin are never tasted to confirm safety.

Question 24Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Aflatoxin, a mycotoxin of concern in peanuts and tree nuts, is produced by which mold?

  1. Clostridium botulinum
  2. Penicillium expansum
  3. Fusarium graminearum
  4. Aspergillus flavus Correct answer.

Explanation

Aflatoxin is produced by Aspergillus flavus and related molds when nuts, grains, and peanuts are stored warm and damp. It is a liver toxin and carcinogen, so moldy or damp-stored nuts are rejected rather than salvaged.

Question 25Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Below what water activity value do most foodborne pathogens stop growing?

  1. 0.99
  2. 0.85 Correct answer.
  3. 0.95
  4. 0.75

Explanation

Water activity measures the water available for microbial growth, and about 0.85 is the practical cutoff for pathogens such as Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium botulinum. Foods dried or formulated below that value are shelf stable with respect to bacterial pathogens.

Question 26Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Which temperature range represents the temperature danger zone in which time/temperature control for safety (TCS) food should not be held?

  1. 41°F to 135°F (5°C to 57°C) Correct answer.
  2. 0°F to 32°F (-18°C to 0°C)
  3. 32°F to 41°F (0°C to 5°C)
  4. 135°F to 165°F (57°C to 74°C)

Explanation

The danger zone is the band of temperatures in which foodborne bacteria multiply most rapidly, and it is defined as 41°F to 135°F. TCS food must be held below 41°F or above 135°F to limit growth, and it must pass through the zone quickly during cooling and reheating.

Question 27Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

A thin metal shaving from a worn slicer blade is found in a sliced sandwich. How should this hazard be classified?

  1. Physical Correct answer.
  2. Chemical
  3. Allergenic
  4. Biological

Explanation

Hazards are grouped by their nature: biological (living organisms), chemical (cleaners, toxic metals, pesticides), and physical (hard or foreign objects that can injure a consumer). A metal fragment is a hard foreign object, so it is a physical hazard, typically controlled through equipment maintenance and inspection.

Question 28Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Undercooked pork is the classic vehicle for which foodborne parasite?

  1. Giardia lamblia
  2. Anisakis simplex
  3. Cyclospora cayetanensis
  4. Trichinella spiralis Correct answer.

Explanation

Trichinella larvae encyst in muscle tissue, and pork is the best-known food source; thorough cooking of pork to a safe internal temperature destroys the larvae. The illness, trichinosis, is marked by fever, muscle pain, and periorbital swelling.

Question 29Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

What does sanitizing a food-contact surface accomplish that cleaning alone does not?

  1. It reduces the number of pathogens on the surface to levels considered safe Correct answer.
  2. It removes scale and mineral deposits
  3. It removes visible grease and food debris
  4. It sterilizes the surface so that no microorganisms remain

Explanation

Cleaning removes visible soil, while sanitizing is a separate step applied to a clean surface to reduce pathogens to levels judged safe for public health. Sanitizing is not sterilization; some organisms, including spores, can survive it.

Question 30Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Clostridium botulinum will not grow and produce toxin in a food at or below which pH value?

  1. 5.4
  2. 6.0
  3. 4.6 Correct answer.
  4. 7.0

Explanation

A pH of 4.6 is the dividing line between acid or acidified foods and low-acid foods. Below 4.6, C. botulinum is inhibited, which is why low-acid foods require pressure canning or other tightly controlled processes.

Question 31Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Which organism is most closely associated with raw or undercooked poultry and unpasteurized milk and is a leading bacterial cause of diarrheal illness?

  1. Shigella sonnei
  2. Bacillus cereus
  3. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
  4. Campylobacter jejuni Correct answer.

Explanation

Campylobacter jejuni colonizes the intestinal tract of poultry and is carried into the kitchen on raw product; it is also transmitted by unpasteurized milk and untreated water. It is one of the most commonly reported bacterial causes of gastroenteritis, and prevention depends on thorough cooking and cross-contamination control.

Question 32Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

A sushi operation serves raw salmon without a cooking step. To destroy parasites, the fish must be frozen. Which treatment meets the Food Code requirement?

  1. 0°F (-18°C) for 24 hours
  2. 41°F (5°C) for 15 hours
  3. 32°F (0°C) for 24 hours
  4. -4°F (-20°C) or below for 7 days (168 hours) Correct answer.

Explanation

Parasites in fish offered raw must be destroyed by freezing at a specified time and temperature combination; the Food Code recognizes -4°F (-20°C) or below for 7 days, or -31°F (-35°C) or below for 15 hours, in a properly calibrated freezer. Records of the freezing treatment must be kept.

Question 33Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Which statement about foodborne viruses is accurate?

  1. They cannot multiply in food and must be carried into it by an infected person, contaminated water, or a contaminated surface Correct answer.
  2. They multiply rapidly in TCS food held at room temperature
  3. They are easily destroyed by refrigeration and freezing
  4. They form spores that survive normal cooking

Explanation

Viruses need a living host cell to replicate, so they do not increase in number in food regardless of temperature. Because they arrive as contaminants, control depends on hand hygiene, exclusion of ill workers, and safe water rather than on temperature alone.

Question 34Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Several people who ate mussels harvested during a red tide develop tingling around the mouth, numbness, and difficulty breathing within about an hour. Which agent best explains this illness?

  1. Saxitoxin (paralytic shellfish poison) Correct answer.
  2. Ciguatoxin
  3. Aflatoxin
  4. Histamine

Explanation

Bivalves filter toxin-producing algae and concentrate saxitoxin, which blocks sodium channels and causes rapid-onset neurologic symptoms including oral tingling and respiratory paralysis. The toxin is heat-stable, so cooking the shellfish does not make it safe, and harvesting waters are closed during blooms.

Question 35Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Which organism has a very low infectious dose, as few as 10 to 100 cells, and spreads readily from an infected food handler to ready-to-eat food?

  1. Clostridium perfringens
  2. Bacillus cereus
  3. Shigella Correct answer.
  4. Staphylococcus aureus

Explanation

Shigella is highly infectious, so small numbers transferred from unwashed hands to ready-to-eat food can cause illness, and person-to-person spread is common. Because the dose is low, handwashing, exclusion of ill workers, and preventing bare-hand contact with ready-to-eat food are critical controls.

Question 36Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Tomato sauce is left overnight in a galvanized bucket. Which hazard does this create?

  1. A physical hazard from metal fragments
  2. A biological hazard from spore-forming bacteria
  3. A chemical hazard from zinc dissolving into the acidic food Correct answer.
  4. No hazard, because galvanized metal is a food-grade surface

Explanation

Galvanized metal carries a zinc coating that dissolves when it contacts acidic foods, producing a chemical contamination hazard that can cause acute gastrointestinal illness. Acidic foods should be held in stainless steel, glass, or food-grade plastic.

Question 37Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Which statement about bacterial spores is correct?

  1. Spores survive boiling and normal cooking temperatures and can later germinate into actively growing cells Correct answer.
  2. Spores are killed by ordinary cooking temperatures
  3. Spores are a reproductive form of viruses
  4. Spores are produced only in foods with a pH below 4.6

Explanation

A spore is a dormant, highly resistant form of certain bacteria that withstands heat, drying, and chemicals that kill growing cells. Spores can germinate and multiply when conditions become favorable, which is why low-acid canned foods require pressure processing at about 121°C.

Question 38Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

A biofilm has formed inside a floor drain and in the deep scores of a worn cutting board. Why is this significant for food safety?

  1. Microorganisms in a biofilm are more resistant to sanitizers and can act as a persistent source of contamination Correct answer.
  2. Biofilm is a form of chemical contamination that must be reported to the supplier
  3. Biofilm is removed by a brief rinse with plain water
  4. Biofilm forms only on dry surfaces, so it signals a moisture problem

Explanation

A biofilm is a community of microorganisms embedded in a self-produced matrix that shields them from sanitizers and makes them hard to remove. Once established in cracks, drains, or scored surfaces, it continuously seeds contamination, so such surfaces must be cleaned mechanically and, when scored, replaced.

Question 39Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

A restaurant prepares hollandaise sauce from raw shell eggs and holds it lukewarm on a buffet. Which pathogen is of greatest concern?

  1. Salmonella Enteritidis Correct answer.
  2. Clostridium botulinum
  3. Bacillus cereus
  4. Vibrio vulnificus

Explanation

Salmonella Enteritidis can contaminate the interior of intact shell eggs, so dishes made with raw or lightly cooked eggs are a recognized vehicle. Holding the sauce in the warm danger zone allows any surviving cells to multiply, and the risk is eliminated by using pasteurized egg products or by cooking to a safe temperature.

Question 40Foodborne Illness and Food Safety Hazards

Which psychrotrophic pathogen is linked to raw pork and chitterlings and can cause an illness that mimics appendicitis?

  1. Campylobacter jejuni
  2. Clostridium perfringens
  3. Yersinia enterocolitica Correct answer.
  4. Vibrio parahaemolyticus

Explanation

Yersinia enterocolitica grows at refrigeration temperatures and is classically acquired from raw pork products, including chitterlings. It can invade the intestinal tissue and produce abdominal pain that leads to unnecessary appendectomies, so pork must be cooked thoroughly and cross-contamination avoided.

Question 41Food Protection: Purchasing, Receiving, and Storage

At what temperature or below must cold time/temperature control for safety (TCS) food be received?

  1. 41°F (5°C) Correct answer.
  2. 45°F (7°C)
  3. 50°F (10°C)
  4. 55°F (13°C)

Explanation

Cold TCS food must be received at 41°F (5°C) or lower and then held at that temperature. Only specific items have separate receiving standards, such as shell eggs and milk at 45°F (7°C) and live shellstock at 45°F (7°C) shellstock temperature.

Question 42Food Protection: Purchasing, Receiving, and Storage

How far above the floor must food and food-contact supplies be stored?

  1. 18 inches (46 cm)
  2. 6 inches (15 cm) Correct answer.
  3. 2 inches (5 cm)
  4. 12 inches (30 cm)

Explanation

Food, utensils, and single-service articles must be kept at least 6 inches (15 cm) off the floor to protect them from splashing, cleaning water, and pests. Shelving and dollies are designed to maintain this clearance.

Question 43Food Protection: Purchasing, Receiving, and Storage

What does the first in, first out (FIFO) rotation method require?

  1. Older stock is used only when a manager approves it
  2. Stock is rotated at random to keep inventory levels balanced
  3. New deliveries are placed in front of older stock
  4. The product with the earliest date mark is used before newer product Correct answer.

Explanation

FIFO means the oldest product, identified by its date mark or receipt date, is sold or used before newer deliveries. Staff physically rotate stock so that older items sit at the front and are reached first.

Question 44Food Protection: Purchasing, Receiving, and Storage

A receiver should reject a canned item that has which condition?

  1. A label applied slightly off center
  2. A price sticker applied over the label
  3. A deep dent along the side seam Correct answer.
  4. Light dust on the top of the can

Explanation

Dents that affect the seam or the rim of a can may allow air or organisms into the product and can indicate botulism risk, so the item must be rejected. Cosmetic label problems are not food safety issues.

Question 45Food Protection: Purchasing, Receiving, and Storage

Where should raw poultry be placed in a refrigerator that also holds ready-to-eat foods?

  1. On the top shelf inside a covered container
  2. On the shelf directly above ready-to-eat salads
  3. Beside ready-to-eat produce in the same pan
  4. On the bottom shelf, below ready-to-eat food Correct answer.

Explanation

Raw animal foods are stored below ready-to-eat foods so juices cannot drip onto food that will not be cooked. Poultry is placed on the bottom because it requires the highest cooking temperature.

Question 46Food Protection: Purchasing, Receiving, and Storage

What is the recommended temperature range for a dry storage area?

  1. 90°F to 100°F (32°C to 38°C)
  2. 50°F to 70°F (10°C to 21°C) Correct answer.
  3. 35°F to 41°F (-1°C to 5°C)
  4. 75°F to 85°F (24°C to 29°C)

Explanation

Dry storage should be kept between 50°F and 70°F with relative humidity around 50 to 60 percent. This range slows quality loss in canned, packaged, and grain products without refrigeration.

Question 47Food Protection: Purchasing, Receiving, and Storage

A thermometer is calibrated using the ice-point method. What temperature should it read in a container of crushed ice and water?

  1. 212°F (100°C)
  2. 0°F (-18°C)
  3. 40°F (4°C)
  4. 32°F (0°C) Correct answer.

Explanation

The ice-point method uses a mixture of crushed ice and water, which stays at 32°F (0°C) while the ice is melting. The thermometer is adjusted to read 32°F at that point.

Question 48Food Protection: Purchasing, Receiving, and Storage

A receiver finds live cockroaches in a case of bananas during inspection. What is the appropriate action?

  1. Accept the case and store it away from other produce
  2. Accept the case and wash the fruit before storage
  3. Accept the case after removing the infested bananas
  4. Reject the delivery and document the infestation Correct answer.

Explanation

Evidence of pests means the product may be contaminated and the supplier's handling is out of control, so the delivery must be refused. The problem is recorded and reported so the supplier and the regulatory authority can follow up.

Question 49Food Protection: Purchasing, Receiving, and Storage

Live shellstock such as oysters in the shell must be received at or below which temperatures?

  1. Shellstock 50°F (10°C); internal 45°F (7°C)
  2. Shellstock 45°F (7°C); internal 50°F (10°C) Correct answer.
  3. Shellstock 41°F (5°C); internal 41°F (5°C)
  4. Shellstock 45°F (7°C); internal 45°F (7°C)

Explanation

Live shellstock has two separate limits at receiving: the shellstock (external) temperature must be 45°F (7°C) or lower and the internal temperature must be 50°F (10°C) or lower. After receipt the shellstock is cooled to 41°F (5°C) or lower.

Question 50Food Protection: Purchasing, Receiving, and Storage

Shell eggs received at a food establishment must arrive at an air temperature of what or lower?

  1. 55°F (13°C)
  2. 41°F (5°C)
  3. 45°F (7°C) Correct answer.
  4. 50°F (10°C)

Explanation

Shell eggs may be received at an ambient air temperature of 45°F (7°C) or lower and must then be cooled to 41°F (5°C) or lower for holding. Eggs are one of the few items with a receiving limit above 41°F.