NextGen Bar flashcards
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32 cards. Read the term and the definition here. The deck at the top of this page is optional.
- Complete diversity
- Requirement under 28 U.S.C. § 1332 that no plaintiff share state citizenship with any defendant, measured at the time of filing, along with an amount in controversy above $75,000.
- Erie doctrine
- In diversity cases federal courts apply state substantive law and federal procedural rules; a valid Federal Rule governs if it directly conflicts with state practice.
- Claim preclusion elements
- A final judgment on the merits by a court of competent jurisdiction, the same claim or transaction, and the same parties or their privies, bars later litigation of that claim.
- Standing elements
- Injury in fact that is concrete and particularized, fair traceability to the defendant's conduct, and redressability through a favorable judicial decision.
- Dormant Commerce Clause
- States may not discriminate against interstate commerce absent an important local purpose with no nondiscriminatory alternative; nondiscriminatory burdens are balanced under Pike.
- Content-neutral time place manner
- Speech regulation in a public forum is valid if narrowly tailored to a significant interest, leaves open ample alternative channels, and is content-neutral.
- UCC 2-207
- A definite acceptance or written confirmation operates as acceptance even with additional terms; between merchants those terms enter unless material, objected to, or the offer limited acceptance.
- Promissory estoppel
- A promise reasonably expected to induce reliance, actual detrimental reliance, and injustice absent enforcement allow recovery, typically limited to the reliance interest.
- Perfect tender rule
- Under UCC 2-601 a buyer may reject goods that fail in any respect to conform to the contract, subject to cure rights, installment contracts, and the rules on acceptance.
- Felony murder
- A killing committed during an inherently dangerous felony; liability is limited by the merger doctrine, agency or proximate cause rules, and the defenses to the underlying felony.
- Miranda trigger
- Custody plus interrogation by law enforcement requires warnings; waiver must be knowing, voluntary, and intelligent, and invocation of rights must be unambiguous.
- M'Naghten test
- A defendant is not guilty if, because of mental disease or defect, he did not know the nature and quality of the act or did not know it was wrong.
- Excited utterance
- A statement relating to a startling event made while the declarant was under the stress of excitement it caused; admissible under FRE 803(2) regardless of availability.
- MIMIC exceptions
- Motive, intent, mistake or identity, absence of mistake, and common plan or scheme; permissible non-propensity uses of prior bad acts evidence under FRE 404(b).
- Daubert factors
- Factors for expert reliability include testability, known error rate, peer review and publication, existence of standards, and general acceptance in the field.
- Fee simple determinable
- An estate that ends automatically upon the occurrence of a stated event, leaving the grantor a possibility of reverter; created by words such as so long as, while, or until.
- Race-notice recording act
- A subsequent purchaser prevails over a prior unrecorded interest only if the purchaser records first and takes without notice, giving protected status to the bona fide purchaser.
- Adverse possession elements
- Possession that is actual, open and notorious, exclusive, continuous, and hostile for the statutory period; color of title or tax payment may be required in some states.
- Res ipsa loquitur
- The instrumentality was in the defendant's exclusive control and the event is one that ordinarily does not occur without negligence, permitting an inference of breach.
- Public figure defamation
- A public official or figure must prove falsity and actual malice, meaning knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard for the truth, by clear and convincing evidence.
- Assumption of risk
- A plaintiff who knowingly and voluntarily encounters a known risk cannot recover; in comparative negligence jurisdictions the risk is weighed rather than barring recovery.
- Business judgment rule
- A presumption that directors acted on an informed basis, in good faith, and in the honest belief the decision served the corporation's best interests.
- Partnership default profit sharing
- Under the UPA, partners share profits and losses equally regardless of capital contributions, absent an agreement providing otherwise.
- Piercing the corporate veil
- Shareholders lose limited liability when they abuse the corporate form through alter ego, commingling, or undercapitalization, and recognizing the entity would work injustice.
- Domicile
- Physical presence in a location combined with intent to remain there indefinitely; a person keeps an existing domicile until a new one is established.
- Full faith and credit judgments
- A sister-state judgment must be enforced when the rendering court had personal and subject matter jurisdiction and the judgment was final and on the merits.
- UCCJEA home state
- The state where the child lived with a parent or person acting as parent for at least six consecutive months before the proceeding; it has priority custody jurisdiction.
- Equitable distribution
- A divorce court divides marital property in a manner it deems fair under statutory factors such as marriage duration, contributions, and each spouse's economic circumstances.
- Per stirpes
- A method of distributing an estate by branch, so that each deceased child's share passes to that child's descendants rather than being divided equally among all heirs.
- Spendthrift trust
- A trust restraint on voluntary and involuntary alienation of the beneficiary's interest, preventing creditors from reaching trust assets before distribution to the beneficiary.
- Holographic will
- A will with material provisions entirely in the testator's handwriting and signed by the testator; no witnesses are required, but testamentary intent must be shown.
- Trustee duty of loyalty
- A trustee must administer the trust solely in the beneficiaries' interests, avoiding self-dealing, conflicts of interest, and unauthorized personal profit from trust property.