I85PREP
⌘ K
NFPT CPT study materials
NFPT CPT study resources

NFPT CPT practice questions

One question at a time. Build your NFPT CPT understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Anatomy and Physiology

In anatomical position, which directional term describes a structure that lies closer to the body's midline?

  1. Distal
  2. Superficial
  3. Lateral
  4. Medial Correct answer.

Explanation

Directional terms describe position relative to body landmarks in the standard anatomical position, in which the body stands upright with palms facing forward. Medial means toward the midline, as the sternum is medial to the shoulder.

Question 2Anatomy and Physiology

Which plane divides the body into left and right portions?

  1. Sagittal plane Correct answer.
  2. Transverse plane
  3. Oblique plane
  4. Frontal plane

Explanation

Body planes are reference surfaces used to describe anatomy and movement. A sagittal plane runs vertically from front to back and divides the body into left and right portions; the midsagittal plane splits it into equal halves.

Question 3Anatomy and Physiology

The functional contractile unit of a muscle fiber, extending from one Z line to the next, is called the:

  1. Myofibril
  2. Myosin filament
  3. Sarcomere Correct answer.
  4. Sarcolemma

Explanation

A muscle fiber contains myofibrils built from repeating contractile units. Each sarcomere spans the distance between two Z lines and holds the actin and myosin filaments whose interaction produces tension.

Question 4Anatomy and Physiology

Which energy system is the primary supplier of ATP during a 6-second maximal sprint?

  1. Oxidative system
  2. Fat oxidation
  3. Phosphagen system Correct answer.
  4. Anaerobic glycolysis

Explanation

The phosphagen (ATP-PC) system uses stored ATP and creatine phosphate to regenerate ATP almost instantly, but the supply lasts only about ten seconds. A maximal effort of roughly six seconds therefore depends mainly on this system.

Question 5Anatomy and Physiology

Which tissue type covers and lines body surfaces, forms glands, and acts as a selective barrier?

  1. Muscle tissue
  2. Nervous tissue
  3. Connective tissue
  4. Epithelial tissue Correct answer.

Explanation

The four primary tissue types are epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous. Epithelium covers and lines surfaces and forms glands, and because its cells are tightly packed with little intercellular space it serves as a selective barrier.

Question 6Anatomy and Physiology

Deoxygenated blood returning from the systemic circulation enters which chamber of the heart first?

  1. Right atrium Correct answer.
  2. Left ventricle
  3. Right ventricle
  4. Left atrium

Explanation

Systemic veins, including the superior and inferior vena cava and the coronary sinus, empty into the right atrium. Blood then passes to the right ventricle, travels to the lungs, and returns to the left side of the heart.

Question 7Anatomy and Physiology

Which muscle is the primary driver of inspiration during quiet breathing at rest?

  1. Diaphragm Correct answer.
  2. Rectus abdominis
  3. External intercostals
  4. Sternocleidomastoid

Explanation

The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities. When it contracts it flattens, enlarging the thoracic cavity and lowering intrapulmonary pressure so air flows in, accounting for most of resting tidal volume.

Question 8Anatomy and Physiology

A muscle generates its greatest active tension when:

  1. actin and myosin overlap is optimal Correct answer.
  2. calcium is absent from the sarcoplasm
  3. the muscle is stretched to 150% of its resting length
  4. the muscle is shortened to 50% of its resting length

Explanation

Active tension depends on how many cross-bridges can form between actin and myosin. At resting length the filaments overlap optimally, maximizing available cross-bridges, whereas overstretching reduces overlap and over-shortening disrupts filament alignment.

Question 9Anatomy and Physiology

During a concentric contraction, which change occurs within the sarcomere?

  1. The Z lines move farther apart as tension develops
  2. I band and H zone shorten; A band width is unchanged Correct answer.
  3. The sarcomere lengthens as actin is pulled away from myosin
  4. The A band shortens while the I band width is unchanged

Explanation

According to the sliding filament theory, thin actin filaments slide past thick myosin filaments toward the center of the sarcomere. The A band reflects thick filament length and stays constant, while the I band and H zone narrow as the Z lines are drawn closer together.

Question 10Anatomy and Physiology

Which neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction to stimulate a skeletal muscle fiber?

  1. Dopamine
  2. Gamma-aminobutyric acid
  3. Norepinephrine
  4. Acetylcholine Correct answer.

Explanation

The alpha motor neuron releases acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft when an action potential arrives. Acetylcholine binds receptors on the motor end plate, depolarizing the sarcolemma and initiating excitation-contraction coupling.

Question 11Anatomy and Physiology

What is the primary function of the muscle spindle?

  1. Regulates blood flow within the muscle belly
  2. Detects stretch and triggers a reflex contraction Correct answer.
  3. Monitors tendon tension and inhibits contraction
  4. Relays joint angle information to the cerebellum

Explanation

Muscle spindles are stretch receptors lying parallel to the extrafusal fibers. When a muscle is stretched, spindle afferents signal the spinal cord, which reflexively activates the same muscle to resist the stretch and protect against injury.

Question 12Anatomy and Physiology

Most skeletal muscles in the human body operate through which class of lever?

  1. First-class lever
  2. Third-class lever Correct answer.
  3. Fourth-class lever
  4. Second-class lever

Explanation

A lever consists of a fulcrum, an effort force, and a load. In third-class levers the effort is applied between the fulcrum and the load, as when the biceps brachii pulls on the forearm, an arrangement that favors speed and range of motion over force.

Question 13Anatomy and Physiology

A client has a resting heart rate of 70 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 70 mL per beat. What is the cardiac output?

  1. 4.9 L/min Correct answer.
  2. 1.4 L/min
  3. 0.49 L/min
  4. 9.8 L/min

Explanation

Cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume: 70 beats per minute multiplied by 70 mL per beat equals 4900 mL per minute, or about 4.9 L/min. It represents the volume of blood pumped by one ventricle each minute.

Question 14Anatomy and Physiology

Which valve prevents backflow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium?

  1. Tricuspid valve
  2. Pulmonary valve
  3. Mitral valve Correct answer.
  4. Aortic valve

Explanation

Atrioventricular valves separate the atria from the ventricles and close during ventricular systole. The left atrioventricular valve, called the mitral or bicuspid valve, stops blood from moving back into the left atrium when the ventricle contracts.

Question 15Anatomy and Physiology

What is the net ATP yield from the breakdown of one glucose molecule through glycolysis alone?

  1. 2 ATP Correct answer.
  2. 1 ATP
  3. 4 ATP
  4. 38 ATP

Explanation

Glycolysis produces 4 ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation but consumes 2 ATP to prime the reaction, giving a net gain of 2 ATP plus 2 NADH. Much larger totals come only after pyruvate is oxidized in the mitochondria.

Question 16Anatomy and Physiology

Which action is performed by osteoblasts?

  1. Resorbing bone matrix during remodeling
  2. Maintaining the cartilage of the epiphyseal plate
  3. Converting red marrow into yellow marrow
  4. Depositing new bone matrix and mineralizing it Correct answer.

Explanation

Bone remodeling depends on the paired actions of osteoblasts and osteoclasts. Osteoblasts synthesize and secrete new bone matrix and promote its mineralization, while osteoclasts break down matrix and release stored minerals.

Question 17Anatomy and Physiology

During a biceps curl, what role does the triceps brachii play?

  1. Stabilizer
  2. Antagonist Correct answer.
  3. Synergist
  4. Agonist

Explanation

The muscle that produces the intended movement is the agonist, while the muscle on the opposite side of the joint that must relax and lengthen is the antagonist. In elbow flexion the biceps brachii is the agonist, so the triceps brachii serves as the antagonist.

Question 18Anatomy and Physiology

A muscle whose fascicles attach at an angle to a central tendon, such as the rectus femoris, is classified as:

  1. Parallel
  2. Fusiform
  3. Pennate Correct answer.
  4. Circular

Explanation

Fascicle arrangement determines a muscle's force capacity and range of motion. Pennate muscles have short fibers attaching obliquely to a tendon, packing more fibers into a given area so they produce greater force at the expense of range.

Question 19Anatomy and Physiology

During intense exercise, what is the main cause of the drop in muscle and blood pH that limits performance?

  1. A rise in blood carbon dioxide from hyperventilation
  2. Hydrogen ions from ATP hydrolysis and glycolysis Correct answer.
  3. Loss of plasma bicarbonate through sweating
  4. Direct release of lactic acid into the bloodstream

Explanation

Glycolysis and ATP hydrolysis release protons faster than they can be buffered or cleared. Lactate is produced alongside these protons and is itself a fuel and gluconeogenic precursor, so the acidosis is attributed mainly to accumulated hydrogen ions.

Question 20Anatomy and Physiology

In the cross-bridge cycle, what is required for a myosin head to detach from actin?

  1. Calcium binding to troponin C
  2. Binding of a new ATP molecule to myosin Correct answer.
  3. Sodium influx into the sarcoplasm
  4. Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and inorganic phosphate

Explanation

After the power stroke the myosin head stays tightly bound to actin until a fresh ATP molecule binds to it. ATP binding, not its hydrolysis, lowers myosin's affinity for actin and allows detachment; hydrolysis then re-cocks the head for the next cycle.

Question 21Anatomy and Physiology

According to the size principle of motor unit recruitment, motor units are activated:

  1. Randomly, with no relation to motor unit size
  2. Only after lactate accumulates in the muscle
  3. From largest motor units to smallest
  4. From smallest motor units to largest Correct answer.

Explanation

The size principle states that as force demand rises, the nervous system recruits motor units in order of increasing size. Small, slow-twitch units with low-threshold neurons fire first, and larger fast-twitch units are added as more force is required.

Question 22Anatomy and Physiology

According to the Frank-Starling mechanism, an increase in end-diastolic volume raises stroke volume because:

  1. higher end-diastolic volume lowers heart rate
  2. ventricles have less time to fill before systole
  3. cardiac fibers are stretched, increasing force Correct answer.
  4. aortic pressure falls, reducing afterload

Explanation

Frank-Starling describes the intrinsic relationship between filling and output. Greater ventricular filling stretches cardiac muscle fibers toward a more optimal length, which increases the force of contraction and ejects more blood within physiological limits.

Question 23Anatomy and Physiology

During exercise, the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the right. What does this mean?

  1. Carbon dioxide unloading at the lungs is impaired
  2. Oxygen is released more readily to tissues Correct answer.
  3. Oxygen solubility in plasma decreases sharply
  4. Hemoglobin binds oxygen more tightly at the lungs

Explanation

A rightward shift means that at any given partial pressure of oxygen hemoglobin holds less oxygen, so its affinity is reduced and unloading at the tissues is enhanced. Exercise-induced rises in temperature, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen ions all drive this shift.

Question 24Kinesiology and Biomechanics

A client performs an overhead shoulder press. In which plane does the movement primarily occur?

  1. Frontal plane
  2. Sagittal plane Correct answer.
  3. Transverse plane
  4. Oblique plane

Explanation

The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right portions, and flexion and extension such as an overhead press take place within it, rotating about a frontal axis.

Question 25Kinesiology and Biomechanics

Which term describes a muscle action in which tension develops while the muscle shortens?

  1. Isokinetic
  2. Concentric Correct answer.
  3. Isometric
  4. Eccentric

Explanation

A concentric action occurs when the internal force of the muscle exceeds the external resistance and the muscle shortens while producing tension.

Question 26Kinesiology and Biomechanics

The muscle that opposes the action of the prime mover at a joint is called the:

  1. Agonist
  2. Antagonist Correct answer.
  3. Joint stabilizer
  4. Synergist

Explanation

The antagonist sits on the opposite side of the joint from the agonist and lengthens or relaxes to permit the prime mover's action.

Question 27Kinesiology and Biomechanics

The muscle spindle is a proprioceptor that primarily senses:

  1. Skin pressure over the muscle
  2. Tendon tension during contraction
  3. Muscle length and stretch speed Correct answer.
  4. Joint angle at the elbow

Explanation

Muscle spindles lie within the muscle belly and fire when the muscle is stretched or stretched quickly, triggering a reflexive contraction of the same muscle.

Question 28Kinesiology and Biomechanics

The muscle attachment that remains relatively stationary during a contraction is called the:

  1. Belly
  2. Origin Correct answer.
  3. Aponeurosis
  4. Insertion

Explanation

The origin is the typically more proximal and more fixed attachment, while the insertion is the attachment that moves toward it during contraction.

Question 29Kinesiology and Biomechanics

A biceps curl with a dumbbell held in the hand is an example of which lever class?

  1. First class
  2. Third class Correct answer.
  3. Fourth class
  4. Second class

Explanation

In a third-class lever the effort is applied between the fulcrum and the load, which is the arrangement at the elbow during a curl.

Question 30Kinesiology and Biomechanics

Which joint is classified as a hinge (uniaxial) joint?

  1. Glenohumeral joint
  2. Humeroulnar joint Correct answer.
  3. Hip joint
  4. Atlantoaxial joint

Explanation

A hinge joint permits motion in one plane only, and the humeroulnar joint allows flexion and extension of the elbow about a single axis.

Question 31Kinesiology and Biomechanics

As the speed of a concentric contraction increases, the force the muscle can generate typically:

  1. Increases then plateaus
  2. Decreases Correct answer.
  3. Increases steadily
  4. Remains unchanged

Explanation

The force-velocity relationship is inverse for concentric actions: the faster a muscle shortens, the fewer cross-bridges are attached at any moment, so force output falls.

Question 32Kinesiology and Biomechanics

Which statement best describes an eccentric muscle action?

  1. The muscle shortens against a fixed resistance
  2. The muscle relaxes completely under load
  3. The muscle develops tension without changing length
  4. The muscle develops tension while lengthening Correct answer.

Explanation

In an eccentric action the external resistance exceeds the tension the muscle can produce concentrically, so the muscle lengthens while still generating force.

Question 33Kinesiology and Biomechanics

The torque a muscle can produce about a joint is greatest when the muscle's line of pull is at what angle to the bone?

  1. 150 degrees
  2. 180 degrees
  3. 15 degrees
  4. 90 degrees Correct answer.

Explanation

Torque equals force multiplied by the perpendicular distance from the line of pull to the joint axis, and that moment arm is longest when the pull is at 90 degrees to the bone.

Question 34Kinesiology and Biomechanics

Which best describes the role of a stabilizer muscle during a movement?

  1. It senses changes in muscle length
  2. It produces the primary movement across the joint
  3. It fixes a segment so another muscle can act Correct answer.
  4. It opposes the prime mover's action

Explanation

A stabilizer contracts to hold a joint or body segment steady, providing a fixed base from which the prime mover can generate efficient motion.

Question 35Kinesiology and Biomechanics

Which exercise is a closed kinetic chain movement for the lower body?

  1. Bodyweight squat Correct answer.
  2. Prone leg curl
  3. Standing straight-leg hip flexion
  4. Seated leg extension

Explanation

In a closed kinetic chain the distal segment is fixed against a surface, as when the feet are planted during a squat and the body moves over them.

Question 36Kinesiology and Biomechanics

A client widens their stance to improve balance. This change primarily increases the:

  1. Muscular torque
  2. Base of support Correct answer.
  3. Angular momentum
  4. Height of the center of gravity

Explanation

Balance improves when the line of gravity stays within a larger base of support, and a wider stance expands that base in the frontal plane.

Question 37Kinesiology and Biomechanics

Which skeletal muscle fiber type is the most resistant to fatigue?

  1. Type IIa fibers
  2. Cardiac muscle fibers
  3. Type I fibers Correct answer.
  4. Type IIx fibers

Explanation

Type I fibers are slow-twitch, highly oxidative, and richly supplied with capillaries and mitochondria, giving them the greatest fatigue resistance.

Question 38Kinesiology and Biomechanics

Which muscle pair performs upward rotation of the scapula during overhead arm elevation?

  1. Rhomboids and levator scapulae
  2. Serratus anterior and trapezius Correct answer.
  3. Pectoralis minor and rhomboids
  4. Latissimus dorsi and teres major

Explanation

The serratus anterior works with the upper and lower trapezius as a force couple to rotate the scapula upward so the acromion clears the humeral head during elevation.

Question 39Kinesiology and Biomechanics

During a concentric contraction, which sarcomere structure keeps a constant width?

  1. A band Correct answer.
  2. Sarcomere
  3. H zone
  4. I band

Explanation

The A band represents the full length of the thick myosin filaments, which do not change length, so it stays constant while the I band, H zone, and overall sarcomere narrow.

Question 40Kinesiology and Biomechanics

When a prime mover contracts, the antagonist is quieted through which mechanism?

  1. Crossed extensor reflex
  2. Autogenic inhibition
  3. Reciprocal inhibition Correct answer.
  4. Stretch reflex

Explanation

Reciprocal inhibition uses inhibitory interneurons in the spinal cord to reduce motor drive to the antagonist while the agonist is active, allowing smooth movement.

Question 41Kinesiology and Biomechanics

Which muscle group is the primary hip extensor during a standing hip extension exercise?

  1. Adductor longus and gracilis
  2. Gluteus maximus and hamstrings Correct answer.
  3. Tensor fasciae latae and sartorius
  4. Iliopsoas and rectus femoris

Explanation

The gluteus maximus is the strongest hip extensor, assisted by the hamstrings, which cross both the hip and the knee.

Question 42Kinesiology and Biomechanics

Storing elastic energy in a tendon during a quick countermovement and releasing it in the following effort describes the:

  1. Stretch-shortening cycle Correct answer.
  2. Autogenic inhibition
  3. Reciprocal inhibition
  4. Length-tension relationship

Explanation

The stretch-shortening cycle combines a rapid eccentric phase, which loads the series elastic components, with an immediate concentric phase that reuses the stored energy.

Question 43Kinesiology and Biomechanics

Which muscle of the quadriceps group also flexes the hip because it crosses two joints?

  1. Vastus lateralis
  2. Vastus medialis
  3. Rectus femoris Correct answer.
  4. Vastus intermedius

Explanation

The rectus femoris originates on the ilium and crosses both the hip and the knee, so it contributes to hip flexion as well as knee extension.

Question 44Kinesiology and Biomechanics

A client holds a dumbbell statically at 90 degrees of shoulder abduction. The external torque at the shoulder is greatest at this position mainly because:

  1. The moment arm is longest Correct answer.
  2. The joint capsule is maximally taut
  3. The angular velocity is lowest
  4. The muscle fibers are fully shortened

Explanation

External torque equals the load times the horizontal distance from the joint axis to the load, and at 90 degrees of abduction that perpendicular distance is at its maximum.

Question 45Kinesiology and Biomechanics

Compared with a parallel-fibered muscle of equal volume, a pennate muscle:

  1. It produces less force at a higher velocity
  2. It shortens through a greater range of motion
  3. It produces more force over a shorter range Correct answer.
  4. It has more sarcomeres arranged in series

Explanation

Pennation packs more fibers into the same cross-sectional area, raising force output, but the shorter fibers shorten less, so range of motion and velocity are reduced.

Question 46Kinesiology and Biomechanics

Why can a muscle generate more active tension near its resting length than when it is fully shortened?

  1. Optimal actin-myosin cross-bridge overlap Correct answer.
  2. Higher recruitment of type II motor units
  3. Increased blood flow to the working muscle
  4. Greater elastic energy storage in the tendon

Explanation

At resting length the actin and myosin filaments overlap enough to allow the maximum number of cross-bridges to form, whereas full shortening causes filament overlap that reduces available binding sites.

Question 47Exercise Physiology

Which set of characteristics best describes Type I (slow-twitch) muscle fibers?

  1. High mitochondrial density with low fatigability Correct answer.
  2. High myosin ATPase activity with rapid fatigue
  3. Large cross-sectional area with low oxidative capacity
  4. Low capillary density with high glycolytic capacity

Explanation

Type I fibers depend mainly on oxidative metabolism, so they contain abundant mitochondria, myoglobin, and surrounding capillaries and resist fatigue. They also have a smaller cross-sectional area and lower myosin ATPase activity than Type II fibers.

Question 48Exercise Physiology

During a concentric muscle action, the width of which sarcomere region remains unchanged while the sarcomere shortens?

  1. A band Correct answer.
  2. Distance between the Z lines
  3. I band
  4. H zone

Explanation

The A band reflects the length of the thick filaments, which do not change length during contraction; instead the thin filaments slide past them. The I band, the H zone, and the spacing between Z lines all decrease as the sarcomere shortens.

Question 49Exercise Physiology

Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction that resynthesizes ATP from phosphocreatine during brief, maximal effort?

  1. Creatine kinase Correct answer.
  2. Lactate dehydrogenase
  3. Myosin ATPase
  4. Phosphofructokinase

Explanation

Creatine kinase transfers a phosphate group from phosphocreatine to ADP, yielding ATP and free creatine. This is the fastest route for ATP resynthesis and dominates energy supply during the first several seconds of all-out effort.

Question 50Exercise Physiology

Glycolysis takes place in which part of the muscle cell?

  1. Mitochondrial matrix
  2. Inner mitochondrial membrane
  3. Sarcoplasm Correct answer.
  4. Nucleus

Explanation

All ten enzymatic steps of glycolysis occur in the cytosol, or sarcoplasm, and none of them requires oxygen. The end product, pyruvate, can then enter a mitochondrion or be converted to lactate.