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NCAA Air Traffic Controller Licence study materials
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NCAA Air Traffic Controller Licence practice questions

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Question 1Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Under standard ICAO-based separation rules, what is the minimum horizontal radar separation required between two identified aircraft operating in the same airspace at the same level when using secondary surveillance radar?

  1. 3 NM
  2. 10 NM
  3. 5 NM Correct answer.
  4. 15 NM

Explanation

Where approved radar separation is applied, the standard minimum used in most airspaces is 5 NM between identified aircraft at the same level. Reduced minima such as 3 NM apply only where specifically authorised in terminal areas with appropriate radar coverage and procedures. Larger values are used when radar separation is not authorised or when non-radar procedural separation is applied.

Question 2Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

An aircraft reports it is unable to maintain its assigned level and requires immediate descent. Which phraseology best communicates the controller's instruction to leave the level immediately?

  1. Descend immediately, level restriction cancelled
  2. Descend now, expedite descent Correct answer.
  3. Expect descent at your discretion
  4. Maintain level, advise intentions

Explanation

The phrase 'Descend now' combined with 'expedite descent' conveys urgency and removes ambiguity about immediate action. Standard radiotelephony requires clear, concise instructions using prescribed phraseology so the crew understands the priority. Vague or permissive phrasing risks delay in an emergency situation.

Question 3Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What does a steady red light signal directed at an aircraft in flight mean?

  1. Give way and continue circling
  2. Cleared to land
  3. Continue and acknowledge with a flash
  4. Airport unsafe, do not land Correct answer.

Explanation

A steady red light shown to an aircraft in flight means the aerodrome is unsafe and the aircraft must not land; it should continue circling or follow instructions. Light signals are used when radio communication fails and have fixed meanings defined in ICAO Annex 2. Controllers must apply them precisely because misinterpretation in a lost-communication scenario is hazardous.

Question 4Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

In a control zone, which condition must be met before a departing aircraft can be issued a take-off clearance when there is preceding traffic?

  1. The preceding aircraft has acknowledged the tower frequency
  2. The preceding aircraft has started its take-off roll
  3. The runway is confirmed clear and separation standards will be maintained Correct answer.
  4. The pilot has requested an immediate departure

Explanation

A take-off clearance may only be issued when the runway is clear of other traffic and the required separation from preceding aircraft will exist. The controller must ensure both runway occupancy and wake turbulence or runway separation criteria are satisfied. Issuing clearance prematurely creates a serious runway incursion risk.

Question 5Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the primary purpose of a flight progress strip in a manual or semi-automated tower environment?

  1. To provide a physical or electronic record of flight data and control actions Correct answer.
  2. To record the aircraft's maintenance status
  3. To indicate the aircraft's fuel endurance only
  4. To serve as the legal flight plan filed by the operator

Explanation

Flight progress strips display and record essential flight data and the control actions taken, supporting sequencing, coordination and memory. They are working tools, not the operator's filed flight plan nor a maintenance record. Accurate annotation helps maintain an audit trail and situational awareness.

Question 6Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Which of the following best describes the function of a clearance delivery position?

  1. It provides radar vectoring after departure
  2. It manages approach sequencing to the active runway
  3. It issues IFR clearances and departure instructions before the aircraft leaves the stand Correct answer.
  4. It controls aircraft on the manoeuvring area

Explanation

Clearance delivery issues route, level and departure clearances to departing IFR aircraft before they request taxi, reducing workload on ground and tower positions. It does not exercise control on the manoeuvring area or provide airborne services. Separating this function improves efficiency during peak departure periods.

Question 7Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

When may a controller issue a conditional clearance such as 'Line up behind the landing aircraft'?

  1. When the aircraft is already on the runway
  2. Only when the pilot requests it
  3. When the condition is unambiguous and the controller can monitor it Correct answer.
  4. Never, because conditional clearances are prohibited

Explanation

Conditional clearances are permitted only where the condition is clear and the controller can observe and verify it, and the pilot can identify the referenced traffic. The clearance must be structured so the aircraft does not proceed until the condition is satisfied. Ambiguous or unmonitorable conditions are not acceptable.

Question 8Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What does the term 'squawk ident' instruct a pilot to do?

  1. Switch off the transponder
  2. Change the transponder code to 7500
  3. Activate the identification feature of the transponder Correct answer.
  4. Select altitude reporting mode only

Explanation

'Squawk ident' directs the pilot to press the ident button, which causes the transponder to transmit the identification pulse so the controller can confirm the radar return. It does not change the assigned code. Controllers use it to correlate a specific target with a specific flight.

Question 9Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Two aircraft are on converging tracks at the same level and the controller intends to apply vertical separation. What is the standard minimum vertical separation between aircraft operating above flight level 290 in RVSM airspace?

  1. 1000 ft Correct answer.
  2. 2000 ft
  3. 4000 ft
  4. 500 ft

Explanation

Within designated RVSM airspace, the minimum vertical separation is 1000 ft between aircraft approved and equipped for RVSM. Outside RVSM airspace, 2000 ft applies above FL290. Controllers must confirm RVSM approval before applying the reduced minimum.

Question 10Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

An aircraft on final approach reports 'going around'. What is the controller's immediate priority?

  1. Record the event in the log and continue sequencing
  2. Ask the pilot to explain the reason before acting
  3. Provide separation from other traffic and issue instructions to the go-around aircraft Correct answer.
  4. Issue a landing clearance to the next aircraft

Explanation

When a go-around is reported, the controller must immediately ensure separation from other traffic and issue instructions such as climb and heading to the go-around aircraft. Sequencing and administrative tasks follow once safety is assured. Delaying action to ask for reasons jeopardises separation.

Question 11Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the purpose of a Minimum Safe Altitude Warning generated by an automated system?

  1. To notify the controller that a flight plan is missing
  2. To warn pilots of turbulence on the route
  3. To indicate that a transponder is malfunctioning
  4. To alert the controller when a tracked aircraft descends below a defined safe altitude Correct answer.

Explanation

MSAW alerts the controller when a radar-tracked aircraft's altitude and position indicate a risk of terrain or obstacle contact. The controller must then warn the pilot immediately. It is a safety net, not a routine navigation aid, and does not replace pilot responsibility for terrain clearance.

Question 12Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

An aircraft requests a change from its assigned cruising level to a level that is already occupied. How should the controller respond?

  1. Instruct both aircraft to maintain 1000 ft vertical separation
  2. Approve the change if the other aircraft is faster
  3. Approve the change and advise the other aircraft
  4. Advise that the level is unavailable and offer an alternative Correct answer.

Explanation

A level already occupied cannot be assigned to another aircraft without first establishing separation. The correct response is to advise that the level is not available and offer an alternative. Approving the change would create a confliction.

Question 13Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What does the abbreviation 'ATIS' refer to in air traffic services?

  1. Air Traffic Interface System
  2. Approach Tracking and Identification Service
  3. Automatic Terminal Information Service Correct answer.
  4. Aerodrome Traffic Instruction Sheet

Explanation

ATIS is the continuous broadcast of recorded non-control information such as weather, runway in use and pertinent aerodrome data. Pilots read back the ATIS designator to confirm receipt, reducing voice frequency congestion. It is not a control service and does not issue clearances.

Question 14Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

In the event of complete two-way radio failure in IMC, what is the generally accepted pilot action under ICAO procedures?

  1. Squawk 7600 and maintain the current level indefinitely
  2. Land immediately at the nearest aerodrome
  3. Continue according to the last acknowledged clearance and the filed flight plan, and commence descent at the expected approach time Correct answer.
  4. Circle overhead the destination until fuel is exhausted

Explanation

Under ICAO Annex 2, a pilot experiencing communication failure in IMC should continue in accordance with the last received and acknowledged clearance, then follow the flight plan and descend at the expected approach time. Squawking 7600 and maintaining the last level are part of the procedure, but indefinite level flight is not. The aim is predictable, standard behaviour so controllers can protect the flight.

Question 15Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the primary function of a ground movement radar or surface movement radar at an aerodrome?

  1. To guide aircraft along taxiways using vectors
  2. To measure runway friction
  3. To provide surveillance of aircraft and vehicles on the manoeuvring area Correct answer.
  4. To detect weather echoes on approach

Explanation

Surface movement radar provides surveillance of aircraft and vehicles on the manoeuvring area, particularly useful at night or in low visibility. It supports the controller's awareness of runway and taxiway occupancy. It does not provide weather detection or friction measurement.

Question 16Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

A controller wishes to reduce the speed of an aircraft on approach to establish spacing behind a slower preceding aircraft. Which instruction is most appropriate?

  1. Reduce to minimum safe speed and hold
  2. Slow down immediately
  3. Maintain present speed and expect further
  4. Reduce speed to 160 kt Correct answer.

Explanation

A specific speed instruction allows the pilot to plan and configure the aircraft, and enables the controller to predict spacing. Vague instructions such as 'slow down' are less effective and may cause abrupt manoeuvring. Speed control must respect the aircraft's minimum safe speed and any published constraints.

Question 17Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the purpose of a letter of agreement between two air traffic control units?

  1. To certify individual controllers for duty
  2. To record the aerodrome's rescue and firefighting category
  3. To publish instrument approach procedures
  4. To define coordination procedures, transfer of control points and separation responsibilities between the units Correct answer.

Explanation

Letters of agreement set out the working arrangements between adjacent or parent/child units, including transfer of control, coordination and separation responsibilities. They are operational documents that prevent misunderstandings at boundaries. They do not certify individuals or publish approach procedures.

Question 18Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

An aircraft enters the runway without clearance while another aircraft is on short final. What is the most appropriate immediate action by the tower controller?

  1. Issue a landing clearance to confirm the sequence
  2. Instruct the aircraft on final to continue and monitor the situation
  3. Wait to see whether the landing aircraft can stop in time
  4. Instruct the landing aircraft to go around and instruct the other aircraft to vacate the runway Correct answer.

Explanation

The controller must act immediately to remove the conflict, typically by instructing the landing aircraft to go around and directing the aircraft on the runway to vacate. Waiting to observe is unacceptable because the situation is safety-critical. Runway incursion response prioritises immediate separation of the conflicting traffic.

Question 19Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Which condition is essential before a controller applies 'same runway separation' between a departing and a landing aircraft?

  1. Both aircraft are of similar weight category
  2. The controller can visually or by surveillance confirm the required separation exists Correct answer.
  3. The landing aircraft has reported the runway in sight
  4. The departing aircraft has a higher performance than the landing aircraft

Explanation

Same runway separation requires the controller to confirm, visually or by approved surveillance, that the prescribed separation exists before clearing the second aircraft. Weight category similarity is not the criterion, although wake turbulence separation may apply separately. The rule is about positive confirmation of separation, not about relative performance.

Question 20Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the significance of the phrase 'cleared for the option' in a military or training circuit environment?

  1. The pilot is cleared to enter controlled airspace without a transponder
  2. The pilot may deviate from the circuit without further clearance
  3. The pilot may make a touch-and-go, stop-and-go, low approach or full-stop landing Correct answer.
  4. The pilot must land and vacate without delay

Explanation

'Cleared for the option' authorises the pilot to choose among touch-and-go, stop-and-go, low approach or full-stop landing on the same approach. It is used to reduce frequency congestion in training circuits. It does not authorise leaving the circuit or entering controlled airspace.

Question 21Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

A controlled flight is about to enter airspace where the controller cannot provide the required separation. What action should be taken before the aircraft reaches the boundary?

  1. Transfer control to the adjacent unit without coordination
  2. Withhold or amend the clearance so the aircraft does not enter until separation can be provided Correct answer.
  3. Instruct the pilot to maintain own separation visually
  4. Allow entry and resolve the conflict afterwards

Explanation

A controller must not permit an aircraft to enter airspace unless the required separation can be provided. The clearance should be withheld or amended before the boundary is reached. Visual self-separation in controlled airspace is only permitted in specific, approved circumstances and cannot be assumed.

Question 22Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

In a radar environment, what does 'identified' mean in relation to an aircraft?

  1. The aircraft has established two-way radio contact
  2. The aircraft's callsign has been correlated with a specific radar position symbol Correct answer.
  3. The aircraft has been cleared to enter controlled airspace
  4. The pilot has reported the aircraft type

Explanation

Identification means the controller has correlated the radar position symbol with the specific aircraft's callsign, either by observed position report, turn instruction or ident. Only after identification may radar separation be applied. Radio contact or clearance alone does not establish identification.

Question 23Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

When applying lateral separation using VOR radials, which condition must be satisfied for the separation to be considered effective?

  1. The aircraft are established on radials that diverge by at least the prescribed angle and are within the protected service volume Correct answer.
  2. Both aircraft have serviceable transponders
  3. Both aircraft are at the same flight level
  4. Both aircraft are on the same radial

Explanation

Lateral separation by VOR requires the aircraft to be established on radials that diverge sufficiently, with both within the published service volume and within the prescribed distance from the facility. Being on the same radial provides no lateral separation. Transponder serviceability and level are not the determining factors.

Question 24Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

A controller observes a radar target diverging from its assigned route towards restricted airspace. What is the most appropriate sequence of actions?

  1. Wait for the pilot to report the deviation
  2. Record the event and take no further action
  3. Immediately suspend all radar separation in the sector
  4. Warn the pilot, issue corrective instructions and inform the affected agency as required Correct answer.

Explanation

The controller should promptly warn the pilot, issue a heading or route correction, and notify the appropriate agency if the aircraft enters or threatens restricted airspace. Waiting or taking no action allows the aircraft to penetrate the restricted area. Suspending separation in the sector is an overreaction and itself unsafe.

Question 25Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Under what circumstances may a controller authorise an aircraft to descend below the minimum vectoring altitude?

  1. When the aircraft has a serviceable transponder
  2. When the controller considers the weather suitable
  3. When the pilot reports visual contact with the ground and accepts responsibility
  4. When the aircraft is established on a published instrument approach segment that provides terrain clearance Correct answer.

Explanation

A controller may clear an aircraft below the minimum vectoring altitude only when it is established on a published instrument approach or departure procedure that provides the required terrain clearance, or when specific approved procedures apply. Pilot visual contact alone does not authorise descent below the MVA. Transponder serviceability and weather are not the criteria.

Question 26Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

In air traffic control phraseology, what does the instruction 'stand by' convey to a pilot?

  1. Switch to the emergency frequency and await instructions from the controller
  2. Wait and the controller will call back; no action or acknowledgement is expected beyond monitoring the frequency Correct answer.
  3. Hold the aircraft's present position on the taxiway until further clearance is issued
  4. Remain at the current flight level and expect a revised route clearance shortly

Explanation

'Stand by' means the controller has acknowledged the request but cannot respond immediately; the pilot waits and the controller will initiate further communication. It is not an instruction to stop movement on a taxiway, which would be phrased as 'hold position'.

Question 27Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Which of the following correctly states the readback requirement for a clearance to land?

  1. No readback is required because landing clearance is an advisory message
  2. Only the aircraft callsign must be read back
  3. The full landing clearance, including any conditions, must be read back Correct answer.
  4. Readback is required only when the aircraft is a jet

Explanation

Safety-related clearances, including landing clearances and any associated conditions, must be read back in full so the controller can verify correct reception. Partial readback risks undetected misunderstanding of a critical instruction.

Question 28Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the meaning of the term 'abeam' when used by a controller to describe an aircraft's position relative to an aerodrome?

  1. At the point where the aircraft begins its final descent for landing
  2. At a distance of exactly 10 nautical miles from the runway threshold
  3. On a line passing through the aerodrome at approximately 90 degrees to the aircraft's track Correct answer.
  4. Directly over the aerodrome reference point at the aircraft's current level

Explanation

'Abeam' describes a position on a line through a reference point (such as the aerodrome) roughly perpendicular to the aircraft's track. It does not mean overhead, on final, or at a fixed distance from the threshold.

Question 29Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a clearance limit in an ATC clearance?

  1. The latest time at which the aircraft may depart from the aerodrome
  2. The point to which an aircraft is cleared and beyond which further clearance must be obtained Correct answer.
  3. The maximum altitude at which the aircraft may fly without pressurisation
  4. The maximum speed permitted in the terminal control area

Explanation

A clearance limit defines the point to which the aircraft is cleared; the flight must not proceed beyond it without a further clearance. It is a geographic or navigational point, not an altitude, time, or speed restriction.

Question 30Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

When a controller issues an instruction, which element should normally be spoken first in radiotelephony?

  1. The frequency in use, followed by the callsign
  2. The aircraft callsign, followed by the instruction Correct answer.
  3. The instruction itself, followed by the callsign
  4. The controller's unit name, followed by the instruction

Explanation

Standard radiotelephony practice places the aircraft callsign first so that the intended recipient is alerted before the instruction is given. This reduces the risk of an aircraft acting on an instruction addressed to another flight.

Question 31Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the standard meaning of the phrase 'say again' in air traffic communications?

  1. Confirm that you have received my transmission
  2. Request a change of frequency
  3. Repeat your entire last transmission Correct answer.
  4. Advise me of your present heading

Explanation

'Say again' is the standard phrase requesting repetition of the previous transmission. It is distinct from 'confirm', which asks for verification of specific information.

Question 32Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Which of the following is the correct definition of 'estimated time of arrival' in an ATC flight plan context?

  1. The time at which the aircraft is expected to enter the control area boundary
  2. The time at which the aircraft is expected to complete its landing roll
  3. The time at which the aircraft is expected to arrive over the designated point, normally the destination aerodrome Correct answer.
  4. The time the aircraft is expected to become airborne from the departure aerodrome

Explanation

Estimated time of arrival refers to the expected time over the designated point, usually the destination aerodrome. It is used for flight planning, sequencing, and coordination between units.

Question 33Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

A controller instructs an aircraft to 'report final'. What information is the pilot expected to provide?

  1. The aircraft's distance from the runway threshold on the approach
  2. The aircraft's assigned landing runway and gate
  3. The aircraft's fuel remaining at the approach fix
  4. The aircraft's position when established on the final approach path Correct answer.

Explanation

'Report final' asks the pilot to call when the aircraft is established on final approach. This allows the controller to sequence the aircraft with preceding traffic and issue the landing clearance at the appropriate time.

Question 34Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Two aircraft are established on the same airway at the same level, separated by 8 nautical miles, and the controller wishes to apply longitudinal separation using the Mach number technique. Which condition must be satisfied for this technique to be applied?

  1. Both aircraft must be on the same Mach number and the leading aircraft must be faster
  2. The leading aircraft must be maintaining a higher Mach number than the following aircraft, with separation monitored by position reports or radar Correct answer.
  3. The following aircraft must be equipped with TCAS and the leading aircraft with ADS-B
  4. Both aircraft must be turboprop aircraft operating below 20,000 feet

Explanation

The Mach number technique requires the leading aircraft to maintain a higher Mach number than the following aircraft so that separation increases over time. The controller monitors the resulting spacing using position reports or radar.

Question 35Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

An aircraft is cleared to descend to 5,000 feet with a restriction to cross a waypoint at or above 7,000 feet. The aircraft is currently at 9,000 feet. How should the pilot interpret the clearance?

  1. Maintain 9,000 feet until the waypoint, then descend to 5,000 feet
  2. Descend to 7,000 feet and hold that level until further clearance
  3. Descend so as to cross the waypoint at or above 7,000 feet, then continue descent to 5,000 feet Correct answer.
  4. Descend to 5,000 feet immediately, disregarding the crossing restriction

Explanation

A crossing restriction modifies the descent profile: the aircraft must meet the altitude condition at the specified point while still complying with the overall cleared level. The descent continues to 5,000 feet after satisfying the restriction.

Question 36Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

A controller observes that a radar track's ground speed is significantly higher than the flight-planned true airspeed, with a strong tailwind component. What is the most appropriate operational consideration?

  1. Ignore the discrepancy because ground speed has no bearing on separation
  2. Recalculate the aircraft's altitude because high ground speed indicates a climb
  3. Recognise that ground speed is affected by wind and use it, not true airspeed, for sequencing and separation calculations Correct answer.
  4. Assume the aircraft is in error and instruct it to reduce speed immediately

Explanation

Radar displays show ground speed, which includes the effect of wind; controllers must use ground speed for spacing and sequencing decisions rather than flight-planned true airspeed. A large difference does not by itself indicate an error by the aircraft.

Question 37Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

An aircraft requests a cruise level that would require it to cross the flight path of another aircraft at the same level in the opposite direction. What is the most appropriate controller action?

  1. Approve the request and instruct the other aircraft to descend without coordination
  2. Approve the request and advise both aircraft to maintain a look-out
  3. Refuse the request or issue a crossing restriction that ensures separation is maintained at all times Correct answer.
  4. Approve the request and transfer both aircraft to the next control unit

Explanation

The controller must ensure that separation is maintained throughout the crossing; simply approving the level with a look-out advisory does not satisfy the separation standard. A crossing restriction or refusal protects the integrity of the clearance.

Question 38Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

When may a controller issue a clearance for an aircraft to taxi across an active runway?

  1. Only when the aerodrome has a surface movement radar in operation
  2. Whenever the aircraft requests it, provided the pilot confirms the runway is clear
  3. When the controller has visually confirmed that the runway is clear or has received a report that it is clear, and no conflicting traffic is approaching Correct answer.
  4. Only when visibility is greater than 5 kilometres

Explanation

A runway crossing clearance may be issued only when the controller is satisfied the runway is clear of conflicting traffic, either by visual observation or by a reliable report. The pilot's own confirmation alone does not transfer this responsibility to the pilot.

Question 39Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the purpose of a 'line up and wait' instruction?

  1. To authorise the aircraft to enter the runway and hold in position, ready for take-off, without commencing the take-off roll Correct answer.
  2. To authorise the aircraft to begin its take-off roll immediately
  3. To authorise the aircraft to backtrack along the runway to the threshold
  4. To instruct the aircraft to hold short of the runway at the holding point

Explanation

'Line up and wait' permits the aircraft to enter the runway and position itself for departure while awaiting take-off clearance. It does not authorise the take-off roll itself.

Question 40Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

An aircraft on approach reports that it is 'established on the ILS'. What does this indicate to the controller?

  1. The aircraft has completed its landing checklist and is ready for touchdown
  2. The aircraft is following the localiser and glide path within the published tolerances for the approach Correct answer.
  3. The aircraft is descending visually without reference to instruments
  4. The aircraft has been cleared to land

Explanation

Being established on the ILS means the aircraft is tracking both the localiser and the glide path within the specified tolerances. It does not by itself mean the aircraft has been cleared to land or has completed its checklist.

Question 41Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

A controller needs to apply lateral separation between two aircraft using radar. Which condition must be met for radar lateral separation to be valid?

  1. Both aircraft must be above 20,000 feet
  2. Both aircraft must be on the same frequency and in direct communication with each other
  3. Both aircraft must be flying the same airway
  4. Both aircraft must be identified and the required angular or distance criteria must be met and maintained Correct answer.

Explanation

Radar lateral separation requires both aircraft to be identified and the specified angular or distance criteria to be met and continuously maintained. Direct communication between the aircraft themselves is not required.

Question 42Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the significance of the phrase 'traffic in sight' reported by a pilot?

  1. The pilot has been radar-identified by the controller
  2. The pilot has received the traffic information but cannot see the other aircraft
  3. The pilot has visually acquired the other aircraft and can maintain separation from it Correct answer.
  4. The pilot requests the other aircraft to change frequency

Explanation

'Traffic in sight' confirms that the pilot has visually acquired the reported aircraft and can maintain separation from it. It is not a request or an identification of the pilot's own aircraft.

Question 43Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

A controller is sequencing arrivals and wishes to issue a speed control instruction to a jet on downwind. Which consideration is most relevant?

  1. Speed control should be issued only to propeller aircraft
  2. Speed control should be avoided entirely in radar environments
  3. Speed control should be applied so as to maintain the required spacing while remaining within the aircraft's operational limits and published speed constraints Correct answer.
  4. Speed control should be issued only after the aircraft is established on final approach

Explanation

Speed control is a normal sequencing tool but must respect aircraft limitations and published constraints, such as speed limits below certain levels. It can be used before final approach to establish spacing.

Question 44Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the purpose of a 'SID' (standard instrument departure) in air traffic control?

  1. To provide a published route and procedure that aircraft follow from the runway to a defined point, facilitating orderly departure flow Correct answer.
  2. To provide the landing minima for the destination aerodrome
  3. To define the maximum take-off weight for a given runway
  4. To specify the aerodrome's noise abatement procedures only

Explanation

A SID is a published departure procedure that provides a defined route and associated restrictions, enabling orderly and predictable departure flow. It is not a weight, noise, or landing minima document.

Question 45Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

An aircraft is cleared to hold at a VOR at a specified level with a right-hand holding pattern. What is the significance of the specified holding fix?

  1. The aircraft must hold only until the controller issues a landing clearance
  2. The aircraft must hold at that fix and follow the published or instructed holding pattern, including the direction of turns Correct answer.
  3. The aircraft must hold at the fix but may choose the direction of turns
  4. The aircraft may hold anywhere within 10 NM of the fix

Explanation

A holding clearance specifies the fix, the level, and the pattern direction; the aircraft must hold as instructed at that fix. The direction of turns is part of the clearance and is not discretionary.

Question 46Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

A controller is coordinating with an adjacent unit for an aircraft that will cross the boundary in 10 minutes. Which information is essential to include in the coordination?

  1. Only the aircraft's estimated time of arrival at the destination
  2. Only the aircraft's callsign and destination
  3. Only the aircraft's type and registration
  4. The aircraft's callsign, level, route, and estimated time over the boundary point Correct answer.

Explanation

Boundary coordination requires the aircraft's identification, level, route, and estimated time over the transfer point so that the receiving unit can plan and accept the aircraft. Incomplete coordination risks a loss of separation at the boundary.

Question 47Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

An aircraft is on a radar heading to intercept the localiser. The controller observes the aircraft overshooting the localiser centreline. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

  1. Issue a corrective heading to re-intercept the localiser and monitor the aircraft's progress Correct answer.
  2. Instruct the aircraft to go around
  3. Advise the aircraft to continue and expect a later correction
  4. Transfer the aircraft to the tower frequency immediately

Explanation

When an aircraft overshoots the localiser during an intercept, the controller should issue a corrective heading promptly and continue to monitor the approach. Delaying correction or transferring the aircraft prematurely may compromise the approach.

Question 48Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Under what condition may a controller reduce the separation minimum between two aircraft below the standard radar separation?

  1. Only when specifically authorised by the appropriate authority and the prescribed conditions are met Correct answer.
  2. When both aircraft are equipped with TCAS and the controller has been notified
  3. When the aircraft are on the same frequency and can see each other
  4. Whenever the controller judges that the risk is acceptable

Explanation

Reduced separation minima may be applied only where specifically authorised by the appropriate authority and where all prescribed conditions are satisfied. A controller's individual judgement alone cannot justify reducing the minimum.

Question 49Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

A controller is applying vertical separation between two aircraft in RVSM airspace. Which statement correctly describes the standard minimum?

  1. 500 feet between aircraft above 29,000 feet
  2. 2,000 feet at all levels regardless of RVSM approval
  3. 1,000 feet only between aircraft below 29,000 feet
  4. 1,000 feet between aircraft at or above the RVSM flight level band, with both aircraft approved for RVSM operations Correct answer.

Explanation

Within designated RVSM airspace, the standard vertical separation minimum is 1,000 feet, provided the aircraft are approved for RVSM operations. Outside RVSM airspace or for non-approved aircraft, a larger minimum applies.

Question 50Air Traffic Control (knowledge test syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

An aircraft reports a TCAS resolution advisory while under radar control. What is the controller's most appropriate response?

  1. Immediately issue a new heading to the aircraft without reference to the RA
  2. Acknowledge the report, avoid issuing instructions that conflict with the RA, and provide traffic information as appropriate Correct answer.
  3. Transfer the aircraft to the emergency frequency
  4. Instruct the aircraft to disregard the RA and maintain its assigned level

Explanation

When a pilot reports a TCAS resolution advisory, the controller should acknowledge and avoid issuing instructions that conflict with the manoeuvre the RA requires. The pilot has priority in responding to the RA, and the controller provides supporting information.