I85PREP
⌘ K
Nz Caa Ame Aviation Legislation study materials
Nz Caa Ame Aviation Legislation study resources

Nz Caa Ame Aviation Legislation practice questions

One question at a time. Build your Nz Caa Ame Aviation Legislation understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Under the Civil Aviation Act 1990, which instrument gives the Minister of Transport the power to make ordinary rules for civil aviation safety and security?

  1. Section 44 of the Civil Aviation Act 1990
  2. Section 12 of the Civil Aviation Act 1990
  3. Section 31 of the Civil Aviation Act 1990 Correct answer.
  4. Section 21 of the Civil Aviation Act 1990

Explanation

The Civil Aviation Act 1990 empowers the Minister of Transport to make ordinary civil aviation rules under section 31, and those rules are the source of the Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) issued as Parts. Section 31 also sets out the matters for which rules may be made, including safety, security and environmental standards.

Question 2Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Which Part of the Civil Aviation Rules contains definitions and abbreviations that apply across the whole rule set?

  1. Part 21
  2. Part 19
  3. Part 1 Correct answer.
  4. Part 12

Explanation

Part 1 contains the definitions, abbreviations and general interpretive provisions used throughout the Civil Aviation Rules. When a term is used in another Part, its meaning is normally taken from Part 1 unless that Part defines it differently.

Question 3Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

A Part 91 pilot intends to operate a flight under visual flight rules in controlled airspace. Which minimum flight visibility and cloud clearance standard applies in Class C airspace below 10,000 ft AMSL?

  1. 1,600 m flight visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
  2. 5 km flight visibility, 1,000 ft vertically and 1.5 km horizontally from cloud Correct answer.
  3. 8 km flight visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
  4. 3 km flight visibility, 500 ft vertically and 1 km horizontally from cloud

Explanation

Part 91 sets the VFR meteorological minima by airspace class. In controlled airspace such as Class C below 10,000 ft AMSL, the standard is 5 km flight visibility with 1,000 ft vertical and 1.5 km horizontal separation from cloud. Reduced minima apply in other classes and at lower levels.

Question 4Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Under Part 91, what is the maximum period between inspections for an aircraft operating under a maintenance programme approved by the Director?

  1. Every 100 hours of flight time or 6 months, whichever occurs first
  2. Every 50 hours of flight time regardless of the programme
  3. As specified in the approved maintenance programme for that aircraft Correct answer.
  4. Every 12 calendar months regardless of the programme

Explanation

Part 91 requires aircraft to be maintained under an approved maintenance programme, and the programme itself specifies the inspection intervals and tasks. The rule does not impose a single fixed interval across all aircraft; the approved programme governs.

Question 5Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Which Part of the Civil Aviation Rules governs the certification of air operators conducting regular air transport operations with aeroplanes?

  1. Part 135
  2. Part 121 Correct answer.
  3. Part 145
  4. Part 125

Explanation

Part 121 sets the certification and operating requirements for air operators conducting regular air transport operations using aeroplanes above the size threshold. Part 135 covers smaller air transport operations, while Part 125 addresses large aeroplanes in certain non-regular operations.

Question 6Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

An organisation holds a Part 145 maintenance organisation approval. Which document must it maintain to control the scope of work it is approved to perform?

  1. A dangerous goods acceptance checklist
  2. A capability list and exposition describing the approved scope and procedures Correct answer.
  3. An operations manual issued under Part 121
  4. A flight manual supplement for each aircraft type

Explanation

A Part 145 organisation must hold an exposition that describes its procedures and a capability list defining the scope of maintenance it is approved to carry out. These documents allow the Director to verify that the organisation works within its approval.

Question 7Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Under Part 66, which category of aircraft maintenance engineer licence authorises the holder to certify maintenance on avionic systems?

  1. Category B2 Correct answer.
  2. Category A
  3. Category C
  4. Category B1

Explanation

Part 66 licence categories are aligned with the scope of certification permitted. Category B2 covers avionic systems, while B1 covers mechanical and airframe/powerplant systems, A covers limited line maintenance tasks and C covers certifying staff for base maintenance.

Question 8Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

A pilot holds a current Part 61 private pilot licence with a current Class 1 medical certificate. Which of the following operations is permitted without an additional type rating?

  1. Flying an aircraft of a type endorsed on the licence within the privileges of the licence Correct answer.
  2. Acting as pilot-in-command of a multi-crew aeroplane type not endorsed
  3. Flying any aircraft of the same category regardless of type endorsement
  4. Carrying passengers for hire or reward on a scheduled service

Explanation

Part 61 privileges are limited to the aircraft types and category ratings endorsed on the licence, and the pilot must hold the appropriate medical and recent experience. Operating types not endorsed or conducting air transport operations requires additional ratings or licences.

Question 9Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Under Part 43, who may perform and certify the replacement of a landing light bulb on a light aircraft?

  1. A person authorised under Part 43 to perform the task and certify it, such as a licensed engineer or a pilot authorised for specified preventive maintenance Correct answer.
  2. Only the aircraft manufacturer
  3. Any passenger who holds a private pilot licence
  4. Only a Part 145 approved organisation

Explanation

Part 43 sets out who may perform maintenance and who may certify it. Certain simple preventive maintenance tasks may be performed and certified by pilots where the rule permits, while other tasks require appropriately authorised maintenance personnel.

Question 10Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

What is the primary purpose of a Part 147 maintenance training organisation approval?

  1. To approve organisations that perform line maintenance
  2. To approve organisations that provide training for aircraft maintenance engineer licences and ratings Correct answer.
  3. To approve organisations that operate air transport services
  4. To approve organisations that design aircraft modifications

Explanation

Part 147 provides for the approval of maintenance training organisations that deliver the training required for Part 66 licences and ratings. The approval covers the training syllabus, facilities, instructors and assessment arrangements.

Question 11Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

An air operator wants to add a new aeroplane type to its Part 121 operations. Which action is required before the type may be used in service?

  1. Obtain approval only from the aircraft manufacturer
  2. Notify the Director within 30 days after the first flight
  3. Obtain approval from the Director for the change to the operations specifications and associated manuals Correct answer.
  4. Amend the maintenance programme without notifying the Director

Explanation

Part 121 operators must obtain approval for changes affecting their operations specifications, including the introduction of a new aircraft type. The operator must demonstrate that manuals, training, maintenance arrangements and crew qualifications support the new type.

Question 12Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Under Part 91, what is the minimum required rest period for a flight crew member before commencing duty on a flight?

  1. 8 hours in all cases
  2. 24 hours in all cases
  3. No rest period is required for flights under 3 hours
  4. The rest period specified in the operator's fatigue management scheme or as prescribed by rule Correct answer.

Explanation

Part 91 requires flight crew to be adequately rested and, where the operator has a fatigue management scheme, to comply with the rest requirements in that scheme. Fixed universal rest periods do not apply to every operation, and no flight is exempt simply because of its duration.

Question 13Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

What does a Part 21 type certificate signify?

  1. That the maintenance programme has been approved
  2. That an individual aircraft is airworthy on the date of issue
  3. That the operator may conduct air transport operations
  4. That the aircraft type design complies with the applicable airworthiness standards Correct answer.

Explanation

A type certificate issued under Part 21 confirms that the type design meets the applicable airworthiness requirements. It applies to the design of the type, not to the airworthiness of any individual aircraft, which is evidenced by a certificate of airworthiness.

Question 14Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

An operator is issued a special flight permit under Part 21 for an aircraft with a known defect. What limitation applies to that permit?

  1. The permit authorises any flight the pilot considers safe
  2. The aircraft may carry passengers for hire provided the defect is minor
  3. The permit is valid indefinitely until the defect is rectified
  4. The aircraft may be flown only for the purpose and under the conditions specified in the permit Correct answer.

Explanation

A special flight permit allows flight for a specific purpose, such as a ferry flight to a maintenance base, under conditions stated in the permit. It does not grant general operating authority and may restrict passengers, cargo and route.

Question 15Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Under Part 91, which document must be carried on board an aircraft during flight and produced on request to an authorised person?

  1. The certificate of registration and certificate of airworthiness Correct answer.
  2. The aircraft maintenance programme only
  3. The operator's safety management manual only
  4. The pilot's training records only

Explanation

Part 91 requires specified documents to be carried on board, including the certificate of registration and certificate of airworthiness, and to be produced for inspection on request. Other documents may also be required depending on the operation.

Question 16Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

An incident occurs involving a Part 135 operator's aircraft that results in serious injury to a person. Which action is required under Part 12?

  1. Record the event in the maintenance log and take no further action
  2. Notify only the aircraft insurer
  3. Notify the Transport Accident Investigation Commission and the Director as soon as practicable Correct answer.
  4. Wait until the next scheduled audit to report the event

Explanation

Part 12 requires notification of accidents and incidents to the investigating authority and the Director within the prescribed timeframes. Serious injury events are notifiable, and failure to notify can itself be an offence.

Question 17Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Which Part of the Civil Aviation Rules sets out the requirements for the design and manufacture of aircraft components?

  1. Part 43
  2. Part 21 Correct answer.
  3. Part 91
  4. Part 66

Explanation

Part 21 covers certification procedures for products, parts and appliances, including design approval and manufacture under an approved production system. Parts 43, 66 and 91 deal with maintenance, licensing and operation respectively.

Question 18Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

A Part 135 operator's pilot is rostered for a duty period that exceeds the limit in the operator's fatigue management scheme. What is the correct response?

  1. The limit may be exceeded if the aircraft is not carrying passengers
  2. The pilot must not commence or continue the duty beyond the scheme's limits Correct answer.
  3. The pilot may exceed the limit if the flight is short
  4. The pilot may exceed the limit with verbal consent from the chief pilot

Explanation

Fatigue management scheme limits are binding, and a pilot must not be rostered or continue duty beyond them. Exceeding the limits undermines the safety purpose of the scheme and is not permitted by informal consent or by the nature of the flight.

Question 19Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Under Part 145, what must an approved maintenance organisation do when it identifies an unairworthy condition that could affect other operators?

  1. Report the condition only to the aircraft owner
  2. Report the condition to the Director and, where required, to the type certificate holder Correct answer.
  3. Repair the aircraft and take no further action
  4. Keep the finding confidential to protect commercial interests

Explanation

Part 145 organisations must report significant defects and unairworthy conditions to the Director and, where applicable, to the design or type certificate holder. This supports continuing airworthiness action across the fleet.

Question 20Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

What is the effect of a certificate of airworthiness being suspended?

  1. The aircraft may operate only on domestic flights
  2. The aircraft may continue to operate if the pilot considers it safe
  3. The aircraft may operate only with a special flight permit for any purpose
  4. The aircraft may not be operated until the suspension is lifted Correct answer.

Explanation

A suspended certificate of airworthiness removes the aircraft's authority to fly. Operations may resume only when the suspension is lifted after the underlying issue is resolved, subject to any specific permit that might separately be issued.

Question 21Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Under Part 91, an aircraft is operated in a way that requires a minimum equipment list. What is the status of the MEL?

  1. It may be created by the pilot on the day of flight
  2. It is optional and has no regulatory effect
  3. It must be approved and form part of the operator's documentation before the aircraft may be dispatched with the listed items inoperative Correct answer.
  4. It applies only to Part 121 operators

Explanation

Where an MEL is used, it must be approved and integrated into the operator's procedures so that dispatch with inoperative equipment remains within the approved configuration. An unapproved list has no regulatory standing.

Question 22Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Which statement best describes the relationship between the Civil Aviation Act 1990 and the Civil Aviation Rules?

  1. The Act is subordinate to the Rules
  2. The Act provides the empowering framework, and the Rules are subordinate legislation made under it Correct answer.
  3. The Rules override the Act where they conflict
  4. The Rules are made by the Director without statutory authority

Explanation

The Civil Aviation Act 1990 establishes the framework and empowers the making of civil aviation rules. The Rules are subordinate legislation and must be consistent with the Act, which prevails in the event of conflict.

Question 23Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

A Part 121 operator wishes to conduct an flight with a cabin crew complement below the number specified in its operations specifications. What is required?

  1. Approval from the Director for the reduced complement before the flight Correct answer.
  2. Approval from the cabin crew union only
  3. No approval is needed if the flight is shorter than two hours
  4. A note in the technical log after landing

Explanation

Cabin crew complements are part of the operator's approved operations specifications and are tied to evacuation and safety requirements. Any reduction requires prior approval from the Director supported by an appropriate safety assessment.

Question 24Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Under Part 66, what is required for a licence holder to maintain the validity of a type rating on an aircraft type not flown for an extended period?

  1. Only a medical examination
  2. Compliance with the recent experience and recency requirements prescribed for that rating Correct answer.
  3. Nothing, because type ratings never expire
  4. Only a logbook entry by the operator

Explanation

Part 66 and associated recency provisions require licence holders to meet recent experience requirements to keep type ratings valid. Where recency lapses, additional training or assessment may be required before the rating can be exercised.

Question 25Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

An operator discovers that a mandatory airworthiness directive has not been complied with on one of its aircraft. What is the correct regulatory position?

  1. The aircraft may fly if the defect is not related to the flight controls
  2. The aircraft may fly if the pilot accepts the risk in writing
  3. The aircraft is not airworthy for flight until the directive is complied with and recorded Correct answer.
  4. The aircraft may fly for up to 10 hours pending compliance

Explanation

An airworthiness directive is mandatory, and non-compliance means the aircraft does not meet its airworthiness requirements. It must not be flown until the directive is complied with and the compliance is recorded, unless a specific approval permits otherwise.

Question 26Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Under the Civil Aviation Rules, which Part contains the core operating rules that apply to all aircraft operating in New Zealand airspace unless a specific operating Part applies instead?

  1. Part 66
  2. Part 91 Correct answer.
  3. Part 121
  4. Part 43

Explanation

Part 91 sets the general operating and flight rules that apply to aircraft in New Zealand, and the larger operating Parts such as 121, 125 and 135 build additional requirements on top of it. Where a specific operating Part imposes a stricter requirement, that requirement prevails, but Part 91 remains the baseline.

Question 27Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

A person applies for a New Zealand aviation document. Under the Civil Aviation Act 1990 and the Rules, what is the general position on who bears the burden of proving eligibility for that document?

  1. The burden shifts to the Director once the application form is filed
  2. The Director must prove the applicant is ineligible before refusing
  3. Eligibility is presumed and only challenged after an accident
  4. The applicant must satisfy the Director that the applicable requirements are met Correct answer.

Explanation

Aviation documents are issued only when the applicant demonstrates compliance with the prescribed requirements, so the applicant carries the onus of showing fitness and compliance. The Director's role is to assess the evidence and may decline or impose conditions where the standard is not met.

Question 28Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Under Part 21, what is the purpose of a supplemental type certificate?

  1. It authorises an AMO to perform maintenance outside its approved scope
  2. It renews an expired certificate of airworthiness for a further 12 months
  3. It approves a major change to a type design that is not covered by the existing type certificate Correct answer.
  4. It permits an aircraft to be operated with an expired airworthiness directive

Explanation

A supplemental type certificate is the approval mechanism for a major modification to a product when the change falls outside the scope of the original type certificate. It records that the altered design has been shown to comply with the applicable airworthiness standards.

Question 29Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

A Part 145 maintenance organisation wants to perform line maintenance at an airport that is not listed in its approved exposition. What must occur first?

  1. The organisation may begin work provided the customer operator agrees in writing
  2. The organisation must obtain approval to include the location in its exposition before performing that work Correct answer.
  3. The organisation may begin work immediately and notify the Authority within 30 days
  4. The organisation may begin work if a licensed engineer supervises each task

Explanation

A Part 145 approval is location-specific, and the exposition defines the facilities at which maintenance may be carried out. Extending work to a new line station requires the exposition to be amended and accepted before the activity begins.

Question 30Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Which statement correctly describes the status of an advisory circular issued by the New Zealand Civil Aviation Authority?

  1. It applies only to Part 121 operators and has no relevance to other certificate holders
  2. It provides acceptable means of compliance with the Rules but does not itself create legal obligations Correct answer.
  3. It has the same legal force as the Civil Aviation Rules and is enforceable in court
  4. It replaces the relevant Part of the Rules once it is published

Explanation

Advisory circulars describe one acceptable way of meeting a rule requirement, but compliance can also be shown by other means acceptable to the Director. The binding obligations are found in the Act and the Rules, not in the advisory material.

Question 31Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Under Part 91, what is the general requirement before an aircraft may be operated following maintenance that could affect airworthiness?

  1. A test flight is mandatory after every maintenance action
  2. The pilot in command may always self-certify any maintenance performed on the aircraft
  3. The maintenance must be certified by an appropriately authorised person and the aircraft released to service Correct answer.
  4. The operator must notify the Authority before every post-maintenance flight

Explanation

Maintenance affecting airworthiness must be carried out and certified by a person authorised under Part 43 or Part 66 before the aircraft returns to service. The certification is the record that the work was completed to the required standard.

Question 32Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

A Part 135 operator's aircraft suffers a serious incident. Under the Rules, what is the operator's obligation regarding preservation of evidence?

  1. Return the aircraft to service as soon as possible to avoid commercial loss
  2. Release all maintenance records to the operator's insurer only
  3. Destroy damaged components once the insurance assessor has inspected them
  4. Preserve all records and material relevant to the occurrence until the Authority authorises otherwise Correct answer.

Explanation

Where an occurrence is notified, relevant records, components and data must be preserved so that the investigation can proceed. Disposal or alteration before authorisation can destroy evidence the Authority or the Transport Accident Investigation Commission needs.

Question 33Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Under Part 66, which requirement applies to a licence holder who has not exercised the privileges of a type rating for a prolonged period?

  1. The holder need only inform the operator's chief engineer verbally
  2. The type rating is automatically cancelled and a full new licence examination is required
  3. The holder must meet recent experience requirements before exercising those privileges again Correct answer.
  4. The holder may exercise the privileges indefinitely because the licence remains valid

Explanation

Part 66 requires recent maintenance experience on type before a licence holder may certify, so a rating that has not been exercised for the prescribed period cannot simply be used again. The holder must regain the required recency, which may involve supervised work or reassessment.

Question 34Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Under Part 43, which statement best describes the authority of a person holding a pilot licence to perform maintenance on an aircraft they operate?

  1. The pilot may perform structural repairs if the aircraft is not used for hire or reward
  2. The pilot may perform only the limited preventive maintenance tasks permitted by the Rules and must record the work Correct answer.
  3. The pilot may perform any task if no licensed engineer is available at the aerodrome
  4. The pilot may perform any maintenance task on the aircraft provided it is recorded in the logbook

Explanation

Part 43 permits pilots to carry out a defined and limited set of preventive maintenance tasks on aircraft they operate, subject to recording and certification requirements. Anything beyond that scope must be done by an appropriately approved organisation or licensed person.

Question 35Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

What is the primary function of an air operator certificate issued under Part 121, 125 or 135?

  1. It authorises the holder to conduct the specified air transport operations subject to the conditions in its exposition Correct answer.
  2. It certifies that each aircraft in the fleet is airworthy
  3. It licenses individual pilots and engineers employed by the operator
  4. It approves the design of the aircraft types the operator intends to use

Explanation

An air operator certificate grants the operator the authority to conduct the categories of air transport operations described in its certificate and exposition. Airworthiness of individual aircraft, personnel licensing and design approval are handled under separate Parts.

Question 36Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

A Part 121 operator's exposition contains a procedure that conflicts with a requirement in Part 121. Which document governs the operator's conduct?

  1. The Rule, because the exposition must be consistent with and cannot override the Rules Correct answer.
  2. Whichever document the pilot in command prefers on the day
  3. The exposition, because it is the operator's approved working document
  4. The operator's operations manual, because it is more detailed

Explanation

An exposition must reflect and comply with the Rules, so a conflicting internal procedure is invalid to the extent of the inconsistency. The operator is required to amend the exposition so that it aligns with the regulatory requirement.

Question 37Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Under Part 91, what is the standard relating to the carriage and use of an oxygen supply for crew and passengers?

  1. Oxygen is optional if the pilot holds an instrument rating
  2. Oxygen is required only when the aircraft is pressurised
  3. Oxygen is required for all flights above 5,000 feet regardless of duration
  4. Oxygen must be available and used in accordance with the altitude and time thresholds prescribed in the Rules Correct answer.

Explanation

Part 91 prescribes specific altitude and time thresholds that determine when supplemental oxygen must be carried and used by crew and passengers. These thresholds vary with the altitude band and whether the aircraft is pressurised.

Question 38Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

An aircraft is operated under an approved minimum equipment list. What is the correct relationship between the MEL and the aircraft's master minimum equipment list?

  1. The MEL applies only to Part 135 operations and not to Part 91
  2. The MEL may permit operation with any defect provided the pilot accepts it
  3. The MEL must be no less restrictive than the MMEL and is tailored to the individual aircraft and operator Correct answer.
  4. The MEL replaces the certificate of airworthiness for the affected aircraft

Explanation

The master minimum equipment list establishes the baseline relief approved for the aircraft type, and the operator's MEL is derived from it for the specific aircraft and operation. The MEL cannot grant relief broader than the MMEL allows.

Question 39Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

Under Part 147, what must an approved maintenance training organisation demonstrate to retain its approval?

  1. That it trains only engineers employed by a single Part 145 organisation
  2. That it delivers training exclusively at the location named in its original application
  3. That its courses, instructors, facilities and assessments continue to meet the approved exposition and rule requirements Correct answer.
  4. That all of its graduates pass the Part 66 examination on their first attempt

Explanation

A Part 147 organisation must maintain the standards on which its approval was based, including course content, instructor competence, facilities and assessment processes. Continued approval depends on ongoing compliance with the exposition and the Rules.

Question 40Aviation legislation, rules and regulatory framework (Civil Aviation Rules, Parts 1–19, 21, 43, 66, 91, 121/125/135, 145, 147)

An operator identifies that a required airworthiness directive has not been complied with on an aircraft. What is the correct course of action under the Rules?

  1. Ground the aircraft until the directive is complied with and certified, then record the action Correct answer.
  2. Record the non-compliance and defer rectification to the next annual inspection
  3. Apply to the Authority for an exemption from the directive for commercial reasons
  4. Continue operating under the MEL until the next scheduled maintenance check

Explanation

An airworthiness directive is mandatory, and an aircraft with an outstanding directive is not airworthy and must not be flown. Compliance must be accomplished and certified before further flight, with the action recorded in the maintenance records.

Question 41AME licensing, privileges and responsibilities under Part 66

Under NZCAA Part 66, which document authorises an aircraft maintenance engineer to certify maintenance on a specific aircraft type?

  1. An airworthiness certificate issued under Part 21
  2. A company ID card issued by the operator
  3. An aircraft type rating endorsement on the licence Correct answer.
  4. A Part 145 maintenance organisation approval certificate

Explanation

Part 66 licences carry category and type ratings; the type rating endorsement defines which aircraft the licence holder may certify maintenance on. The organisation approval and the airworthiness certificate belong to the operator and the aircraft respectively, not to the individual.

Question 42AME licensing, privileges and responsibilities under Part 66

Which Part 66 licence category permits the holder to issue certificates of release to service for avionic systems following maintenance?

  1. Category A
  2. Category C
  3. Category B2 Correct answer.
  4. Category B1

Explanation

Category B2 is the avionics licence and covers electrical and instrument systems certification. B1 covers mechanical, structural and engine work, while A and C categories have narrower or differently scoped privileges.

Question 43AME licensing, privileges and responsibilities under Part 66

An engineer's Part 66 licence has expired because the holder did not meet the recent experience requirement. What is the correct position regarding certification privileges?

  1. Privileges continue because the licence document remains valid indefinitely
  2. Privileges are suspended until the experience requirement is met and the licence reinstated Correct answer.
  3. Privileges continue provided a supervisor countersigns each release
  4. Privileges transfer to the maintenance organisation's approval

Explanation

Certification privileges depend on the licence remaining valid, which requires meeting the recent maintenance experience requirement. Once that requirement lapses, the holder cannot certify until the experience is regained and the licence is reinstated by the authority.

Question 44AME licensing, privileges and responsibilities under Part 66

Which statement best describes the scope of a Category C certification privilege under Part 66?

  1. It permits release of the aircraft after any base maintenance check
  2. It permits only line maintenance release between flights
  3. It permits certification of avionic modifications only
  4. It permits release after base maintenance in accordance with the maintenance organisation's procedures Correct answer.

Explanation

Category C privileges are exercised within a maintenance organisation and are tied to its procedures and quality system. The category does not grant unrestricted release of any check independently of the organisation's approved scope.

Question 45AME licensing, privileges and responsibilities under Part 66

What is the primary purpose of the Part 66 aircraft type rating endorsement?

  1. To identify which aircraft types the licence holder may certify maintenance on Correct answer.
  2. To permit the holder to approve maintenance programmes
  3. To authorise the holder to train other engineers
  4. To record the engineer's total years of experience

Explanation

Type ratings link a licence to specific aircraft types, defining the certification scope. Experience, training and programme approval are separate matters governed by other requirements.

Question 46AME licensing, privileges and responsibilities under Part 66

An engineer holds a B1.1 licence but is asked to certify work on an aircraft type not endorsed on the licence. What should the engineer do?

  1. Certify the work because the B1.1 category covers all turbine aeroplanes
  2. Decline to certify until a type rating for that aircraft is added Correct answer.
  3. Certify and notify the authority within 30 days
  4. Certify only if the task is a minor repair

Explanation

Certification authority is limited to aircraft types endorsed on the licence. Without the type rating, the engineer has no privilege to certify regardless of category or task size.

Question 47AME licensing, privileges and responsibilities under Part 66

What does the Part 66 requirement for continuing professional development primarily aim to ensure?

  1. That licence holders pay annual fees on time
  2. That licence holders maintain current knowledge and competence throughout their career Correct answer.
  3. That licence holders record every task performed
  4. That licence holders work only for one organisation

Explanation

Continuing professional development keeps knowledge and skills current as technology and regulations change. It is a competence requirement rather than an administrative or employment condition.

Question 48AME licensing, privileges and responsibilities under Part 66

Which of the following is the licence holder's personal responsibility when certifying a certificate of release to service?

  1. Delegating the signature to a trainee to speed up turnaround
  2. Ensuring the organisation's profit margin is maintained
  3. Signing first and verifying records afterwards
  4. Confirming that all required maintenance has been completed and recorded before signing Correct answer.

Explanation

The certifying engineer personally attests that the required maintenance was completed in accordance with approved data and properly recorded. This personal accountability cannot be delegated or deferred.

Question 49AME licensing, privileges and responsibilities under Part 66

An engineer discovers that a previous certificate of release to service was signed for work that was not actually carried out. What is the appropriate first action?

  1. Ignore it because the aircraft has since flown without incident
  2. Report the discrepancy through the organisation's occurrence reporting system and ensure the aircraft's airworthiness is addressed Correct answer.
  3. Wait for the next scheduled check to rectify the matter
  4. Amend the original record quietly to reflect the actual work

Explanation

A false or unsupported release is a serious airworthiness and safety concern that must be reported and the aircraft's status resolved before further flight. Records must reflect reality rather than be altered to conceal the problem.

Question 50AME licensing, privileges and responsibilities under Part 66

How does a Part 66 licence differ from a Part 145 maintenance organisation approval?

  1. Both are issued to individuals and differ only in duration
  2. The licence is issued to an individual, while the approval is issued to an organisation Correct answer.
  3. Both are issued to organisations and differ only in scope
  4. The licence is issued to an organisation, while the approval is issued to an individual

Explanation

Part 66 licences are personal certifications held by individual engineers, whereas Part 145 approvals are granted to organisations that meet facility, personnel and quality system requirements. The two operate together but are held by different entities.