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CAA NZ AME Radio study materials
CAA NZ AME Radio study resources

CAA NZ AME Radio practice questions

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Question 1Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

Under the NZ Part 66 AME licensing framework, which category of aircraft maintenance engineer licence permits the holder to certify maintenance on avionic systems including radio communication and navigation equipment?

  1. Category B1
  2. Category A
  3. Category B1.2
  4. Category B2 Correct answer.

Explanation

The B2 category is the avionics licence and covers electrical, instrument, and radio/radar systems, allowing certification of work on communication and navigation equipment. B1 categories are mechanical (airframe and engine) licences with limited avionic privileges.

Question 2Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

In radio communication, what does the abbreviation VHF denote?

  1. Very High Frequency Correct answer.
  2. Variable High Frequency
  3. Voice Handling Frequency
  4. Vertical High Frequency

Explanation

VHF stands for Very High Frequency, the band from 30 to 300 MHz used for short-range air-to-ground and air-to-air voice communication. The term describes the frequency band, not a modulation or voice-processing method.

Question 3Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

Which frequency band is used by civil aviation for ILS localiser and VOR navigation signals?

  1. UHF band (960–1215 MHz)
  2. SHF band (5 GHz)
  3. HF band (3–30 MHz)
  4. VHF band (108–118 MHz) Correct answer.

Explanation

ILS localiser and VOR signals occupy the VHF navigation band from 108 to 118 MHz. This band is separate from the 118–137 MHz communication band and from the UHF bands used by DME and radar.

Question 4Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

A radio wave travelling in free space has a frequency of 120 MHz. What is its approximate wavelength?

  1. 12 metres
  2. 2.5 metres Correct answer.
  3. 25 metres
  4. 0.25 metres

Explanation

Wavelength equals the speed of light divided by frequency: 300 divided by 120 MHz gives 2.5 metres. This relationship is fundamental when assessing antenna length and matching for VHF aviation systems.

Question 5Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

What is the primary purpose of amplitude modulation (AM) in aviation VHF voice communication?

  1. To vary the carrier amplitude in sympathy with the audio signal Correct answer.
  2. To convert the carrier to a series of pulses
  3. To suppress the carrier entirely and transmit only sidebands
  4. To vary the carrier frequency in sympathy with the audio signal

Explanation

In AM the audio signal varies the amplitude of the RF carrier, producing sidebands that carry the voice information. Frequency variation describes FM, pulse trains describe pulse modulation, and carrier suppression describes single-sideband techniques.

Question 6Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

In an aircraft antenna system, what does the term 'standing wave ratio' indicate?

  1. The ratio of forward to reflected power in the transmission line Correct answer.
  2. The ratio of audio level to carrier level
  3. The ratio of antenna height to wavelength
  4. The ratio of transmitted to received frequency

Explanation

SWR expresses how well the antenna and transmission line are matched, derived from the forward and reflected power. A high SWR indicates reflected energy and poor matching, which reduces radiated power and can stress the transmitter.

Question 7Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

Which statement best describes the function of a transponder in an aircraft?

  1. It receives interrogations and replies with coded altitude and identity information Correct answer.
  2. It converts 28 V DC into 115 V AC for avionics
  3. It generates the localiser guidance signal for approach
  4. It provides the aircraft with VOR bearing information

Explanation

The transponder responds to ground or TCAS interrogations by transmitting a coded reply containing pressure altitude and identity data. It does not provide navigation guidance or power conversion.

Question 8Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

What is the main purpose of shielding on avionic wiring that carries sensitive radio signals?

  1. To reduce the pick-up and radiation of electromagnetic interference Correct answer.
  2. To lower the resistance of the conductor
  3. To provide mechanical support to the wire bundle
  4. To increase the current-carrying capacity of the conductor

Explanation

A conductive shield around a signal wire intercepts capacitively and inductively coupled interference and, when grounded correctly, prevents the wire from radiating. It does not change conductor current rating, mechanical strength, or resistance.

Question 9Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

An AM transmitter produces a carrier of 100 W with no modulation. If it is then modulated to 100 percent by a single tone, what is the total output power?

  1. 150 W Correct answer.
  2. 200 W
  3. 400 W
  4. 100 W

Explanation

At 100 percent modulation the total power equals carrier power multiplied by 1.5, because each sideband carries one quarter of the carrier power. Adding both sidebands to the 100 W carrier gives 150 W.

Question 10Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

An aircraft VHF communication antenna is designed as a quarter-wave monopole. For operation near 120 MHz, what approximate physical element length is required?

  1. 2.5 metres
  2. 0.625 metres Correct answer.
  3. 0.125 metres
  4. 1.25 metres

Explanation

A quarter wavelength at 120 MHz is 2.5 metres divided by four, giving about 0.625 metres. Practical antennas are slightly shorter due to end effects and matching, but the quarter-wave figure is the design starting point.

Question 11Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

Why is a dummy load used when testing an aircraft radio transmitter on the bench?

  1. To absorb transmitter power and prevent unwanted radiation while providing a matched load Correct answer.
  2. To convert the RF output into a navigation signal
  3. To measure the frequency stability of the receiver
  4. To increase the radiated range of the transmitter during testing

Explanation

A dummy load presents a matched impedance to the transmitter and dissipates the RF power as heat, allowing tests without radiating signals that could interfere with other users. It also protects the transmitter from damage caused by a mismatched open circuit.

Question 12Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

During an ILS approach, which signal provides lateral guidance to the runway centreline?

  1. Localiser Correct answer.
  2. DME
  3. Glide path
  4. Marker beacon

Explanation

The localiser transmits in the VHF navigation band and provides left/right guidance relative to the runway centreline. The glide path provides vertical guidance, marker beacons give position fixes along the approach, and DME supplies distance.

Question 13Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

What does the glide path component of an ILS provide to the pilot?

  1. Lateral guidance relative to the runway centreline
  2. Distance to the threshold in nautical miles
  3. Identification of the outer marker passage
  4. Vertical guidance along a defined descent angle to the runway Correct answer.

Explanation

The glide path transmitter, operating in the UHF band, defines a descent angle that gives vertical deviation information. Lateral guidance is provided by the localiser, distance by DME, and marker passage by the marker receiver.

Question 14Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

A VOR receiver indicates a bearing that is affected by a nearby large metal structure. Which term describes this type of error?

  1. Instrument lag caused by slow needle response
  2. Scale error caused by receiver calibration drift
  3. Parallax error caused by instrument viewing angle
  4. Site error caused by multipath reflections Correct answer.

Explanation

Reflections from structures create multipath signals that combine with the direct signal and shift the indicated bearing, known as site or multipath error. It is a propagation effect rather than a receiver calibration or display problem.

Question 15Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

What is the function of a circulator in an aircraft radar or transponder RF system?

  1. To convert AC power into DC for the transmitter
  2. To direct RF energy from the transmitter to the antenna while isolating the receiver Correct answer.
  3. To filter out audio-frequency noise from the supply
  4. To demodulate the received RF signal into audio

Explanation

A circulator is a non-reciprocal device that routes power in one direction, allowing a single antenna to serve both transmitter and receiver while protecting the receiver from transmit power. It does not perform power conversion or demodulation.

Question 16Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

When bonding avionic equipment racks to the aircraft structure, what is the primary electrical objective?

  1. To isolate the equipment from the structure
  2. To provide a high-resistance path that limits fault current
  3. To supply primary power to the equipment
  4. To provide a low-impedance path that equalises potential and minimises interference Correct answer.

Explanation

Bonding provides a low-impedance return path so equipment and structure sit at the same potential, reducing EMI and ensuring fault currents have a defined route. High resistance or isolation would defeat these purposes.

Question 17Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

What is the primary reason that aviation VHF communication uses amplitude modulation rather than frequency modulation?

  1. AM allows multiple stations to be heard on one channel through the capture effect being absent Correct answer.
  2. AM allows the use of UHF antennas
  3. AM provides better immunity to impulsive interference
  4. AM requires more bandwidth per channel

Explanation

With AM, a stronger station does not completely suppress a weaker one, so a pilot can often hear simultaneous transmissions and detect a blocked call. FM exhibits the capture effect, where the stronger signal dominates, which is undesirable in busy airband channels.

Question 18Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

A VHF communication radio fails to transmit although it receives normally. Which fault is most consistent with these symptoms?

  1. A failed audio output stage in the receiver
  2. A faulty push-to-talk line or transmitter keying circuit Correct answer.
  3. A defective antenna receive path
  4. A mis-tuned local oscillator in the receiver

Explanation

Normal reception confirms the antenna, receiver front end, and audio stages are largely serviceable, so the fault lies in the transmit keying or PTT circuit. A receiver fault would also degrade reception, which contradicts the symptoms.

Question 19Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

What does a SELCAL system provide to flight crew on long-range HF communication?

  1. A backup navigation signal for oceanic flight
  2. An automatic frequency change during HF communication
  3. A continuous automatic position report to ATC
  4. A selective calling alert that notifies the crew of an incoming ground call Correct answer.

Explanation

SELCAL uses coded tones transmitted by the ground station to trigger an alert in the aircraft, so the crew need not monitor the HF channel continuously. It does not provide position reporting, navigation, or automatic frequency selection.

Question 20Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

An aircraft's VHF antenna is connected to a coaxial cable with a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms, but the antenna feed point presents 75 ohms. What is the practical consequence?

  1. A shift of the operating frequency into the UHF band
  2. A mismatch causing reflected power and a raised standing wave ratio Correct answer.
  3. An increase in transmitter output power
  4. A complete loss of all transmitted power

Explanation

A 50 ohm line terminated by a 75 ohm load is mismatched, so some power is reflected and the SWR rises above the ideal 1:1. This reduces radiated power and can stress the transmitter, but it does not eliminate all power or change the operating frequency.

Question 21Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

In a pulse-coded transponder reply, what does the term 'Mode S' add compared with conventional Mode A/C operation?

  1. A continuous analogue altitude broadcast
  2. A simple squawk code with no address
  3. A voice channel for direct pilot-ATC conversation
  4. Selective interrogation with a unique 24-bit aircraft address Correct answer.

Explanation

Mode S assigns each aircraft a unique 24-bit address, enabling selective interrogation and data exchange, which reduces channel congestion. Mode A/C uses only identity and pressure-altitude pulses without a unique address.

Question 22Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

Which statement correctly explains why the ILS localiser uses a carrier in the 108–112 MHz range with a specific pairing to its glide path frequency?

  1. The pairing prevents the localiser from interfering with VOR stations
  2. The paired frequencies allow the receiver to tune both guidance signals from a single channel selection Correct answer.
  3. The pairing allows the transponder to reply on the same channel
  4. The pairing increases the glide path signal strength

Explanation

Localiser and glide path frequencies are paired so that selecting one ILS channel automatically tunes both receivers, simplifying crew workload. The pairing is a frequency management convention and does not boost signal strength or involve the transponder.

Question 23Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

An HF radio installation suffers from poor communication range. Which factor most directly affects HF propagation and could explain the reduced range?

  1. Ionospheric conditions and the selected frequency relative to the time of day Correct answer.
  2. The setting of the transponder squawk code
  3. The length of the VHF antenna
  4. The impedance of the audio headset

Explanation

HF communication relies on ionospheric refraction, which varies with time of day, season, and solar activity, so the usable frequency changes. Selecting an inappropriate frequency for current conditions is a common cause of poor HF range.

Question 24Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

During a functional check of a VOR receiver, the indicated bearing is compared with the published radial while the aircraft is on the ground at a known position. Which procedure best confirms receiver accuracy?

  1. Switch the receiver to the communication band
  2. Disconnect the antenna to eliminate interference
  3. Adjust the indicator until it reads the published radial
  4. Compare the indicated bearing with a calculated bearing from a surveyed position and check it falls within tolerance Correct answer.

Explanation

A valid accuracy check compares the receiver indication against an independently known bearing from a surveyed location and confirms the error is within the permitted tolerance. Adjusting the indicator to match the expected value would mask a fault rather than detect it.

Question 25Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

Which of the following best describes the role of the ADF receiver in aircraft navigation?

  1. It supplies vertical guidance on approach
  2. It provides distance to the VOR station
  3. It indicates the relative bearing to an NDB ground station Correct answer.
  4. It transmits the aircraft identity to ATC

Explanation

The automatic direction finder tunes to an NDB in the low/medium frequency band and displays the relative bearing to that station. Distance measurement, vertical guidance, and identity transmission belong to other systems.

Question 26Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

Under the Part 66 AME licence structure, which category covers avionic and electrical systems including radio communication and navigation equipment?

  1. Category B1.3
  2. Category B1.1
  3. Category A
  4. Category B2 Correct answer.

Explanation

The B2 category is the avionics licence and covers electrical, instrument, autopilot and radio/radar systems on the aircraft. B1 categories are mechanical and cover airframe, engine and avionic line-replaceable tasks only within defined limits.

Question 27Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

In AME licensing terms, what distinguishes a 'certifying' task from a 'maintenance' task performed on avionic equipment?

  1. Certifying releases the aircraft or component to service after maintenance Correct answer.
  2. Certifying tasks are limited to cleaning and inspection
  3. Maintenance tasks always require a design organisation approval
  4. Maintenance tasks may only be done by the type certificate holder

Explanation

Certification is the act of signing a release to service confirming that maintenance has been properly carried out. Maintenance itself is the physical work, and the two are separated so that the person signing holds the appropriate licence and type authorisation.

Question 28Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

An AME is asked to fit a new VHF antenna to a pressurised aircraft fuselage. Which document governs the approved location and the sealing method to be used?

  1. A generic textbook on antenna theory
  2. The pilot's operating handbook alone
  3. The component manufacturer's sales brochure
  4. The aircraft maintenance manual and structural repair manual Correct answer.

Explanation

Approved maintenance data such as the AMM and SRM define permitted antenna locations, reinforcement, bonding and sealing requirements. Any departure from that data requires separate approved documentation before the task is certified.

Question 29Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

When recording the replacement of a radio unit in the aircraft technical log, which detail is essential for traceability?

  1. The name of the courier who delivered the part
  2. The colour of the unit's front panel
  3. The part number and serial number of the fitted unit Correct answer.
  4. The outside air temperature at the time of fitting

Explanation

Traceability requires that the specific part fitted is identified by part number and serial number so its history and serviceability status can be traced. This links the aircraft record to the component's own records.

Question 30Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

A line replaceable unit removed from an aircraft is found to be serviceable on the bench. What is the correct status of that LRU before it may be refitted to another aircraft?

  1. It must be sent to the original manufacturer for re-certification
  2. It must be scrapped because it was removed
  3. It may be refitted immediately with no paperwork
  4. It must be released to service with an appropriate certificate of release Correct answer.

Explanation

A component removed and subsequently tested serviceable must be formally released back to service by an appropriately authorised person or organisation. Without a release document it cannot lawfully be installed as serviceable.

Question 31Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

In the context of human factors for avionic maintenance, what does the 'dirty dozen' refer to?

  1. Twelve types of coaxial connector used in aviation
  2. Twelve common error precursors such as fatigue, complacency and lack of knowledge Correct answer.
  3. Twelve frequencies reserved for emergency communication
  4. Twelve mandatory inspection intervals for radio equipment

Explanation

The dirty dozen is a widely used human factors list of twelve error-inducing conditions that contribute to maintenance mistakes. Recognising them helps an AME mitigate risk before and during a task.

Question 32Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

An AME is working alone at night on a transponder wiring loom and is interrupted several times. Which human factors countermeasure most directly reduces the risk of a wiring error?

  1. Skipping the final inspection to reduce downtime
  2. Working faster to finish before the shift ends
  3. Relying on memory of similar jobs done previously
  4. Using a written task card with sign-off steps and a final independent check Correct answer.

Explanation

Documented task cards with progressive sign-off and an independent check provide a barrier against interruption-driven error. They externalise the sequence so memory lapses do not translate into incorrect connections.

Question 33Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

What is the purpose of a Maintenance Error Decision Aid process after an avionic maintenance incident?

  1. To assign blame to the individual and apply discipline
  2. To satisfy the customer without changing procedures
  3. To calculate the cost of the damaged component
  4. To identify organisational and task factors behind the error and prevent recurrence Correct answer.

Explanation

MEDA is a non-punitive investigation method that looks at the conditions and decisions that allowed an error to occur. Its output is systemic change rather than individual punishment.

Question 34Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

Which document defines the maintenance programme that determines scheduled inspection intervals for avionic systems on a particular aircraft?

  1. The minimum equipment list
  2. The approved aircraft maintenance programme Correct answer.
  3. The weight and balance schedule
  4. The flight crew operations manual

Explanation

The approved maintenance programme sets the scheduled tasks and intervals that keep the aircraft airworthy. The MEL is a dispatch document and does not set maintenance intervals.

Question 35Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

An avionic system is listed in the operator's Minimum Equipment List with a repair interval category. What does the category indicate?

  1. The interval between software updates
  2. The minimum time the system must operate before it can fail again
  3. The maximum calendar time the item may remain inoperative before repair Correct answer.
  4. The time required to remove the unit

Explanation

MEL repair categories such as A, B, C and D specify how long the item may remain inoperative, expressed in calendar days or flight hours. Exceeding the interval makes the aircraft unairworthy for dispatch.

Question 36Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

A radio altimeter is found inoperative and the MEL permits dispatch under a specific condition. Who may authorise the deferral?

  1. The captain alone without any maintenance action
  2. The parts supplier
  3. Any passenger holding an engineering degree
  4. A person authorised by the approved maintenance organisation in accordance with the MEL Correct answer.

Explanation

Deferral requires a maintenance action and certification by authorised personnel in accordance with the approved MEL and operator procedures. The flight crew then operate within the resulting limitations.

Question 37Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

What is the primary function of the aircraft's static discharge wicks in relation to radio systems?

  1. To provide a backup path for the aircraft electrical return
  2. To dissipate accumulated static charge and reduce radio interference Correct answer.
  3. To increase the effective length of the communication antenna
  4. To measure the aircraft's altitude above ground

Explanation

Static dischargers bleed off precipitation static so it does not build up and discharge as broadband noise into the receivers. They protect communication and navigation reception rather than carrying power current.

Question 38Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

When performing a periodic check of an aircraft's emergency locator transmitter, which action is appropriate in most regulatory frameworks?

  1. Carry out the self-test in accordance with the approved data, avoiding a live distress transmission Correct answer.
  2. Disconnect the antenna to prevent any radiation
  3. Transmit a test signal on the distress frequency for several minutes
  4. Remove the battery and leave the unit unserviceable

Explanation

ELT checks are performed using the built-in self-test within the time limits and procedures given in the approved data. Live transmissions on the distress frequency are prohibited except in a genuine emergency.

Question 39Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

Which of the following is the correct handling precaution for a lithium battery used in an aircraft emergency locator transmitter?

  1. Open the cell to check the electrolyte level
  2. Discharge it fully before any storage
  3. Store it loose in a toolbox with metal tools
  4. Store and transport it according to the manufacturer's and dangerous goods requirements Correct answer.

Explanation

Lithium cells are dangerous goods and must be stored and transported under the manufacturer's instructions and applicable dangerous goods rules. Short-circuit, heat and mechanical damage are the main risks to control.

Question 40Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

An AME is about to work on an avionic system that uses high voltage for a display. What is the correct first action before opening the unit?

  1. Test the circuit with a finger to feel for voltage
  2. Increase the ambient lighting in the hangar
  3. Wear cotton gloves and proceed immediately
  4. Isolate the power and allow the specified discharge time to elapse Correct answer.

Explanation

High-voltage equipment retains charge after power removal, so isolation followed by the specified discharge wait is mandatory. Approved data states the safe waiting period for each unit.

Question 41Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

Which statement correctly describes the role of the aircraft bonding and grounding network in avionic installations?

  1. It acts as the antenna for HF communication
  2. It replaces the need for coaxial cable shields
  3. It provides a low-impedance return path and limits potential differences between equipment Correct answer.
  4. It supplies primary AC power to the avionics bus

Explanation

Bonding keeps all equipment at a common potential and provides a defined return path, which reduces noise coupling and fault hazards. It works together with shielding rather than replacing it.

Question 42Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

During an insulation resistance test on an avionic wiring loom, a low reading is obtained. What is the most appropriate interpretation?

  1. The test instrument is always at fault
  2. The loom is definitely serviceable and may be released
  3. The reading is irrelevant to airworthiness
  4. Possible insulation breakdown or contamination requiring further investigation Correct answer.

Explanation

A low insulation resistance suggests moisture, contamination, chafing or degraded insulation that could lead to short circuits or arcing. The loom must be investigated and rectified before release.

Question 43Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

What does the term 'electromagnetic compatibility' mean for an aircraft avionic installation?

  1. Only HF equipment needs to be considered
  2. Every unit must be bonded to a single point
  3. Equipment operates correctly in its electromagnetic environment without causing unacceptable interference Correct answer.
  4. All equipment must use the same operating frequency

Explanation

EMC means both immunity from interference and limitation of emissions, so systems can coexist on the aircraft. It is achieved through design, shielding, bonding and separation of wiring.

Question 44Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

An AME notices that a newly installed avionic unit causes noise in the HF receiver only when a nearby inverter runs. Which approach best addresses the problem?

  1. Remove the HF receiver from the aircraft
  2. Disable the inverter permanently without documentation
  3. Increase the HF receiver volume to mask the noise
  4. Investigate bonding, shielding and wire routing of the inverter circuit to reduce coupling Correct answer.

Explanation

Interference that correlates with an equipment's operation points to coupling via bonding, shielding or routing deficiencies. Corrective action targets the source-path-receptor relationship and is recorded as approved maintenance.

Question 45Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a compass swing on an aircraft?

  1. To determine and record residual deviation of the magnetic compass Correct answer.
  2. To calibrate the radio altimeter
  3. To test the transponder reply
  4. To align the inertial reference system

Explanation

A compass swing measures the deviation caused by the aircraft's own magnetic field and produces a deviation card for the compass. It is a standard avionic/electrical maintenance task.

Question 46Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

An AME is asked to verify the serviceability of an aircraft's pitot-static system after a static port replacement. Which check is most relevant?

  1. A leak test of the static system in accordance with the approved data Correct answer.
  2. A compass deviation check
  3. A VSWR check on the VHF antenna
  4. A transponder code verification only

Explanation

Replacing a static port disturbs the pneumatic plumbing, so a leak test confirms the system is sealed and accurate. This is required before the aircraft returns to service for IFR operations.

Question 47Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

What is the significance of a 'release to service' signature in the aircraft technical record?

  1. It certifies that the specified maintenance has been completed and the aircraft or component is airworthy Correct answer.
  2. It transfers ownership of the aircraft
  3. It replaces the need for a maintenance programme
  4. It authorises the next flight's passenger load

Explanation

The release to service is the formal certification that defined maintenance was carried out in accordance with approved data and the item is fit for release. It is the legal link between maintenance work and continued airworthiness.

Question 48Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

A component's serviceable label is missing but its maintenance history shows a valid release. What is the correct action before installation?

  1. Install it immediately and note the missing label later
  2. Install it and rely on the pilot to notice
  3. Discard the part without investigation
  4. Quarantine the part and resolve its status in accordance with the organisation's procedures Correct answer.

Explanation

Unidentified or unlabelled parts must be quarantined until their status is positively established, because traceability cannot be assumed. Organisation procedures define how the status is verified and the label restored.

Question 49Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

Which of the following is the primary reason for keeping avionic software configuration records up to date?

  1. To avoid the need for hardware inspection
  2. To allow pilots to update software in flight
  3. To reduce the cost of the next software purchase
  4. To ensure the correct software version is installed and supported for continued airworthiness Correct answer.

Explanation

Software configuration control ensures the installed version matches approved and supported data, which is essential for continued airworthiness and troubleshooting. Uncontrolled versions can cause incompatibility or unapproved operation.

Question 50Part 66 AME licence syllabuses (official content domains not enumerated in source)

An AME finds that the aircraft's VHF communication system passes a bench test but fails an on-aircraft functional check. Which conclusion is most reasonable?

  1. The installation, such as antenna, cabling or bonding, may be at fault rather than the unit Correct answer.
  2. The bench test must have been performed incorrectly
  3. The radio is definitely serviceable and the check can be ignored
  4. The aircraft must be grounded permanently

Explanation

A unit that performs correctly on the bench but not in the aircraft points to the installation environment, including antenna, feedline, bonding or interference. The investigation should focus on the installation before condemning the unit.