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CAA NZ Instrument Rating Air Law study materials
CAA NZ Instrument Rating Air Law study resources

CAA NZ Instrument Rating Air Law practice questions

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Question 1Civil Aviation Rules

Under the Civil Aviation Rules, what is the minimum visibility for a VFR flight in Class C controlled airspace at or below 3,000 ft AMSL?

  1. 1,600 m
  2. 5 km Correct answer.
  3. 8 km
  4. 3 km

Explanation

In Class C controlled airspace at or below 3,000 ft AMSL, VFR meteorological minima require flight visibility of at least 5 km, with the aircraft clear of cloud and in sight of the surface. These minima differ from Class G, where lower visibility applies. The 5 km figure is the standard for controlled airspace at these levels.

Question 2Civil Aviation Rules

For a flight under IFR in controlled airspace, what is the standard cruising altitude separation requirement above 3,000 ft?

  1. Altitudes separated by 1,000 ft Correct answer.
  2. Altitudes separated by 300 ft
  3. Altitudes separated by 2,000 ft
  4. Altitudes separated by 500 ft

Explanation

Above the transition altitude, IFR cruising levels are separated by 1,000 ft to provide vertical separation between aircraft. This semi-circular rule ensures opposing traffic is separated vertically. The 1,000 ft interval is the standard for IFR cruising levels in controlled airspace.

Question 3Civil Aviation Rules

What does a pilot require before operating an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR?

  1. An ATC clearance Correct answer.
  2. A current class 1 medical only
  3. A night rating
  4. A flight instructor endorsement

Explanation

Entry into controlled airspace under IFR requires an air traffic control clearance. The clearance provides separation and traffic information. Without it, the flight cannot legally enter controlled airspace.

Question 4Civil Aviation Rules

Which document must be carried on board an aircraft operating under IFR in New Zealand?

  1. The aircraft maintenance schedule only
  2. The pilot's logbook
  3. The certificate of airworthiness Correct answer.
  4. The aircraft flight manual only

Explanation

The certificate of airworthiness must be carried on board, confirming the aircraft meets airworthiness requirements. Other documents such as the certificate of registration and crew licences are also required. The maintenance schedule and flight manual are not the specified carriage documents in this context.

Question 5Civil Aviation Rules

What is the validity period of a New Zealand instrument rating?

  1. 36 months
  2. 6 months
  3. 12 months Correct answer.
  4. 24 months

Explanation

A New Zealand instrument rating is valid for 12 months from the date of issue or renewal. Renewal requires demonstrating competency through a proficiency check. The 12-month cycle aligns with recurrent training and checking requirements.

Question 6Civil Aviation Rules

Under what condition may a pilot log instrument time?

  1. Only during a proficiency check
  2. Only at night
  3. When flying solely by reference to instruments, whether in IMC or under a hood Correct answer.
  4. Only when flying in actual instrument meteorological conditions

Explanation

Instrument time may be logged whenever the flight is conducted solely by reference to instruments, including simulated conditions under a view-limiting device. It is not restricted to actual IMC. This allows training and currency to be recorded accurately.

Question 7Civil Aviation Rules

What separation standard applies to aircraft in the vicinity of an uncontrolled aerodrome when joining the circuit?

  1. Separation is guaranteed by the tower
  2. ATC provides radar separation
  3. No separation requirements apply
  4. Pilots apply see-and-avoid and standard circuit procedures Correct answer.

Explanation

At an uncontrolled aerodrome, pilots are responsible for their own separation using see-and-avoid principles and standard circuit procedures. No ATC separation service is provided. This places the responsibility on the pilot in command.

Question 8Civil Aviation Rules

What does a clearance limit in an IFR clearance specify?

  1. The time of departure
  2. The maximum altitude the aircraft may climb to
  3. The point to which the aircraft is cleared Correct answer.
  4. The minimum fuel required

Explanation

The clearance limit identifies the point to which an aircraft is cleared, such as an aerodrome or navigation aid. The pilot may not proceed beyond it without further clearance. It is distinct from altitude or fuel requirements.

Question 9Civil Aviation Rules

An aircraft is cleared to descend to 5,000 ft but the pilot's minimum safe altitude for the sector is 6,000 ft. What should the pilot do?

  1. Descend to 5,000 ft and report the deviation later
  2. Maintain 6,000 ft and advise ATC Correct answer.
  3. Climb to 7,000 ft without advising ATC
  4. Descend to 5,000 ft as cleared

Explanation

The pilot must not descend below the minimum safe altitude even if cleared to do so. The correct action is to maintain the safe altitude and advise ATC of the inability to comply. ATC can then issue an amended clearance.

Question 10Civil Aviation Rules

What is the purpose of the transition altitude in New Zealand?

  1. To mark the boundary between QNH and standard pressure settings Correct answer.
  2. To mark the minimum IFR altitude
  3. To indicate the start of radar coverage
  4. To define the top of controlled airspace

Explanation

The transition altitude is the level at which pilots change from QNH to standard pressure (1013.2 hPa) when climbing, and vice versa when descending. This ensures all aircraft above the transition level use a common pressure reference. It is not related to radar coverage or minimum altitudes.

Question 11Civil Aviation Rules

A pilot on an IFR flight loses radio communication in controlled airspace. What is the appropriate action?

  1. Squawk 7600 and follow the last acknowledged clearance or the standard lost-communication procedure Correct answer.
  2. Descend to the lowest safe altitude and orbit
  3. Turn back to the departure aerodrome
  4. Continue to the destination and land immediately

Explanation

On losing radio communication, the pilot should squawk 7600 and follow the last clearance acknowledged or the published lost-communication procedure. This allows ATC to predict the aircraft's route. Continuing without following the procedure could compromise separation.

Question 12Civil Aviation Rules

What does a special VFR clearance allow?

  1. IFR flight without a clearance
  2. Operations at night without a rating
  3. Flight above 10,000 ft without oxygen
  4. VFR flight in controlled airspace when meteorological conditions are below VFR minima Correct answer.

Explanation

A special VFR clearance permits flight in controlled airspace when the weather is below standard VFR minima, subject to ATC approval and conditions. It does not permit IFR flight without clearance or operations above altitude limits. The clearance is designed to allow limited VFR operations in marginal conditions.

Question 13Civil Aviation Rules

What is the requirement for an aircraft to be operated under IFR regarding equipment?

  1. Only a radio
  2. Appropriate instruments and equipment for instrument flight, including a gyroscopic horizon and directional gyro Correct answer.
  3. Only a transponder
  4. Only a serviceable altimeter

Explanation

IFR operations require the aircraft to be equipped with the instruments and equipment necessary for instrument flight, including attitude and heading references. A single altimeter or radio alone is insufficient. The equipment must be serviceable and appropriate to the flight conditions.

Question 14Civil Aviation Rules

What does the semi-circular rule determine for IFR cruising levels?

  1. The cruising level based on magnetic track Correct answer.
  2. The direction of flight based on magnetic track
  3. The minimum altitude for the sector
  4. The fuel reserve required

Explanation

The semi-circular rule assigns cruising levels according to the magnetic track of the flight, separating opposing traffic vertically. Tracks from 000 to 179 degrees use odd thousands, while 180 to 359 use even thousands. This provides vertical separation between aircraft on opposing headings.

Question 15Civil Aviation Rules

An aircraft on an IFR flight is given a holding clearance. What does the pilot need to confirm?

  1. Only the holding altitude
  2. The holding fix, direction of turn, and leg length or time Correct answer.
  3. Only the fuel remaining
  4. Only the destination

Explanation

A holding clearance specifies the holding fix, the direction of turns, and the leg length or timing, along with the altitude. The pilot must confirm all these elements to enter and fly the hold correctly. Confirming only the altitude or destination is insufficient.

Question 16Civil Aviation Rules

What is the minimum fuel requirement for an IFR flight to a destination with no alternate?

  1. No minimum applies
  2. Fuel to reach the destination only
  3. Final reserve fuel plus contingency fuel Correct answer.
  4. Final reserve fuel only

Explanation

An IFR flight must carry final reserve fuel plus contingency fuel to cover unforeseen circumstances. When no alternate is available, additional fuel planning applies. Carrying only fuel to reach the destination leaves no margin for deviations.

Question 17Civil Aviation Rules

What does an ATC instruction to 'report reaching' a level require the pilot to do?

  1. Report the destination
  2. Report when the aircraft reaches the specified level Correct answer.
  3. Report when the aircraft leaves the level
  4. Report the fuel state

Explanation

A 'report reaching' instruction requires the pilot to notify ATC when the aircraft reaches the specified level. This confirms the aircraft has completed the climb or descent. It is not a request for fuel or destination information.

Question 18Civil Aviation Rules

Which condition requires a pilot to file an IFR flight plan?

  1. Any flight below 3,000 ft
  2. Any flight in controlled airspace under IFR Correct answer.
  3. Any flight over water
  4. Any flight at night

Explanation

An IFR flight plan must be filed for flights operating under IFR in controlled airspace. The plan provides ATC with the intended route and altitude. Flights below 3,000 ft or at night do not automatically require an IFR flight plan.

Question 19Civil Aviation Rules

What is the pilot's responsibility regarding the aircraft's altimeter setting when descending through the transition level?

  1. Change to QFE
  2. Maintain standard pressure throughout
  3. Set the altimeter to zero
  4. Change to QNH and report the change Correct answer.

Explanation

When descending through the transition level, the pilot changes the altimeter setting from standard pressure to QNH. This provides terrain clearance referenced to mean sea level. Maintaining standard pressure below the transition level would give incorrect altitude information.

Question 20Civil Aviation Rules

An IFR flight is cleared to an aerodrome with a published instrument approach. What must the pilot verify before commencing the approach?

  1. The aircraft has enough fuel only
  2. The pilot has a night rating
  3. The aerodrome has a tower
  4. The weather is above the approach minima and the aircraft is established on the approach Correct answer.

Explanation

Before commencing an instrument approach, the pilot must confirm the weather is at or above the approach minima and that the aircraft can be established on the approach path. Fuel and tower presence are separate considerations. Attempting an approach below minima is not permitted.

Question 21Civil Aviation Rules

What does the term 'minimum descent altitude' (MDA) refer to in a non-precision approach?

  1. The altitude of the final approach fix
  2. The lowest altitude to which descent may be made before the required visual reference is established Correct answer.
  3. The altitude for the missed approach
  4. The altitude at which the approach must be abandoned

Explanation

The MDA is the lowest altitude to which a pilot may descend on a non-precision approach before establishing the required visual reference. Descent below the MDA is not permitted unless the visual reference is established. It is distinct from the missed approach altitude and the final approach fix altitude.

Question 22Civil Aviation Rules

An aircraft is on an IFR flight and the pilot is given a revised clearance that conflicts with terrain clearance. What is the correct action?

  1. Comply with the clearance immediately
  2. Ignore the clearance and continue on the previous route
  3. Descend to the cleared altitude and report later
  4. Query the clearance and maintain terrain-safe altitude until resolved Correct answer.

Explanation

If a clearance appears to conflict with terrain clearance, the pilot should query it and maintain a safe altitude until the situation is resolved. Immediate compliance could compromise safety. The pilot in command remains responsible for terrain clearance.

Question 23Civil Aviation Rules

What is required for an instrument rating holder to remain current in New Zealand?

  1. A medical examination every 6 months
  2. A cross-country flight every 30 days
  3. A proficiency check within the preceding 12 months Correct answer.
  4. A night landing every 90 days

Explanation

Instrument rating currency requires a proficiency check within the preceding 12 months. This recurrent check confirms the pilot's instrument flying competency. Medical examinations and recent experience requirements are separate from instrument rating currency.

Question 24Civil Aviation Rules

An aircraft operating under IFR in Class C airspace experiences a transponder failure. What is the appropriate action?

  1. Continue the flight and advise ATC of the failure Correct answer.
  2. Turn back immediately without advising ATC
  3. Squawk 7700 and land at the nearest aerodrome
  4. Descend below controlled airspace without clearance

Explanation

On a transponder failure, the pilot should advise ATC, which can then apply alternative separation procedures. Continuing without advising ATC could compromise separation. Turning back or descending without clearance is not the prescribed action.

Question 25Civil Aviation Rules

What separation responsibility does a pilot have when operating IFR in Class G airspace?

  1. Separation is provided by radar only
  2. No separation responsibility applies
  3. ATC provides full separation
  4. The pilot is responsible for separation from other traffic Correct answer.

Explanation

In Class G airspace, ATC does not provide separation, so the pilot is responsible for avoiding other traffic. This requires vigilant see-and-avoid and adherence to any applicable procedures. Radar separation is not provided in Class G.

Question 26Civil Aviation Rules

Under the Civil Aviation Rules, what does the term 'controlled airspace' mean for an IFR pilot?

  1. Airspace surrounding a certificated aerodrome within which a radio watch must be maintained on the tower frequency
  2. Airspace of defined dimensions within which an ATC service is provided to IFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification Correct answer.
  3. Airspace designated for use by military aircraft only during published hours of activation
  4. Airspace above 10,000 ft AMSL within which position reporting is mandatory for all aircraft

Explanation

The rules define controlled airspace by dimension and by the provision of an air traffic control service appropriate to its classification. A pilot flying IFR inside it is subject to ATC clearance and instruction. The other descriptions do not match the definition.

Question 27Civil Aviation Rules

For IFR operations, which document must a pilot be able to produce to show that the aircraft meets the applicable airworthiness requirements?

  1. The pilot's personal logbook
  2. The maintenance controller's logbook
  3. The aircraft flight manual only
  4. A valid certificate of airworthiness for the aircraft Correct answer.

Explanation

An aircraft operated under IFR must hold a current certificate of airworthiness issued under the rules, showing it complies with the applicable airworthiness standard. The flight manual is carried but is not the airworthiness certificate. Maintenance records and pilot logbooks serve different purposes.

Question 28Civil Aviation Rules

What does an IFR clearance delivered as 'cleared to Christchurch via the TUNA transition, flight planned route' authorise the pilot to do?

  1. Deviate from the route at any time without advising ATC
  2. Descend below the minimum safe altitude when the pilot considers it safe
  3. Enter controlled airspace without further communication
  4. Fly the specified route subject to the rest of the clearance and any ATC instructions Correct answer.

Explanation

A clearance authorises flight along the route specified, but only within the terms of the clearance and any subsequent ATC instructions. It does not confer authority to deviate at will or to disregard terrain clearance. The pilot remains responsible for the safe conduct of the flight.

Question 29Civil Aviation Rules

What is the standard altimeter setting procedure when an aircraft operating IFR climbs through the transition altitude in New Zealand?

  1. Set the forecast QNH for the destination aerodrome
  2. Set standard pressure 1013.2 hPa and use flight levels Correct answer.
  3. Set the regional QFE for the departure aerodrome
  4. Set the aerodrome QNH and maintain it for the remainder of the flight

Explanation

Above the transition altitude, aircraft are operated on standard pressure so that flight levels are consistent between aircraft. The altimeter is set to 1013.2 hPa when climbing through the transition altitude. QNH or QFE settings are used below the transition level.

Question 30Civil Aviation Rules

In New Zealand, what does a QNH altimeter setting indicate to a pilot?

  1. Height above the aerodrome reference point
  2. Pressure altitude referenced to 1013.2 hPa
  3. Altitude above mean sea level when the aircraft is on the ground at the reference point Correct answer.
  4. Height above the highest terrain within 10 nm

Explanation

QNH is the pressure setting that causes the altimeter to indicate altitude above mean sea level at the reference point when on the ground. It is the setting used for terrain clearance below the transition layer. QFE and standard pressure serve different purposes.

Question 31Civil Aviation Rules

Which of the following is a required element of a pilot's instrument rating privileges under the Civil Aviation Rules?

  1. Authority to certify the aircraft's altimeter system as serviceable
  2. Authority to fly under IFR in accordance with the rating and any conditions on the licence Correct answer.
  3. Authority to conduct maintenance on instrument systems
  4. Authority to issue IFR clearances to other aircraft

Explanation

An instrument rating permits the holder to operate aircraft under IFR within the privileges and conditions specified for the rating. It does not extend to maintenance certification or the issue of clearances, which belong to other roles. The rating is a flight crew privilege.

Question 32Civil Aviation Rules

What does the term 'flight level' mean when used in an IFR clearance?

  1. A surface of constant atmospheric pressure related to 1013.2 hPa Correct answer.
  2. A minimum sector altitude published on an approach chart
  3. An altitude above mean sea level referenced to local QNH
  4. A height above the aerodrome of departure

Explanation

A flight level is a surface of constant atmospheric pressure related to the standard datum of 1013.2 hPa. Aircraft above the transition altitude are separated by flight levels. Altitudes referenced to QNH are not flight levels.

Question 33Civil Aviation Rules

What does an ATC clearance to 'hold at the ABC VOR, maintain 7,000 ft' require the pilot to do?

  1. Descend to the lowest safe altitude while holding
  2. Leave the holding pattern after one orbit and proceed
  3. Remain within the published holding pattern at the specified level until further clearance Correct answer.
  4. Circle the VOR at any level while awaiting instructions

Explanation

A holding clearance requires the aircraft to remain within the protected holding pattern at the level specified until ATC issues further clearance or an approach clearance. The pilot must not descend or leave the pattern without a clearance. Fuel and endurance must be monitored throughout.

Question 34Civil Aviation Rules

An IFR aircraft is cleared to fly at FL 150 on a track of 270 degrees. Under the semi-circular rule, which level should the pilot expect?

  1. FL 140
  2. FL 160
  3. FL 170
  4. FL 150 Correct answer.

Explanation

Tracks from 180 to 359 degrees use even flight levels under the semi-circular rule, so FL 150 is not consistent with a westerly track. However, where ATC issues a specific level, the pilot must fly the level cleared. The semi-circular rule guides flight planning, not the overriding of an ATC clearance.

Question 35Civil Aviation Rules

What is the purpose of a standard instrument departure (SID) procedure in an IFR clearance?

  1. To replace the need for an IFR flight plan
  2. To specify the minimum fuel required for the flight
  3. To provide a published route and obstacle clearance from the departure aerodrome to a defined point Correct answer.
  4. To authorise flight in controlled airspace without a clearance

Explanation

A SID provides a published route with obstacle clearance and, where applicable, noise abatement tracking from the aerodrome to a defined point. It forms part of the clearance but does not replace the flight plan or the clearance itself. The pilot must comply with any published gradient and speed requirements.

Question 36Civil Aviation Rules

An IFR pilot is instructed to 'cross the XYZ VOR at or above 9,000 ft'. What does this require?

  1. The aircraft must descend to 9,000 ft after passing the VOR
  2. The aircraft must be at exactly 9,000 ft over the VOR
  3. The aircraft may cross the VOR at any level above the minimum safe altitude
  4. The aircraft must not be below 9,000 ft when crossing the VOR Correct answer.

Explanation

An 'at or above' restriction sets a minimum crossing level at the specified point. The aircraft may cross higher but must not be lower than the specified level. This allows ATC to maintain separation while giving the pilot flexibility.

Question 37Civil Aviation Rules

What is the significance of the 'minimum safe altitude' (MSA) published on an instrument approach chart?

  1. It is the lowest altitude that provides terrain clearance within a defined sector around a navigation aid Correct answer.
  2. It is the altitude below which ATC will not issue a clearance
  3. It is the altitude at which the aircraft must begin the final approach
  4. It is the maximum altitude for the procedure

Explanation

An MSA provides terrain clearance within a defined sector, usually 25 nm around a navigation aid, and is used for emergency planning and orientation. It is not a clearance limit or an approach commencement altitude. The pilot must still comply with the cleared level.

Question 38Civil Aviation Rules

An IFR aircraft is cleared for an instrument approach and the pilot becomes aware that the reported visibility is below the approach minima. What is the appropriate action?

  1. Commence the approach and decide at the missed approach point
  2. Advise ATC and request an alternative clearance or holding Correct answer.
  3. Continue the approach and land if the runway is sighted
  4. Descend below the minima to check the actual conditions

Explanation

If the reported conditions are below the minima for the approach, the pilot should not commence the approach and should advise ATC to obtain an alternative. Descending below minima to check conditions is not permitted. The pilot retains responsibility for the decision to commence an approach.

Question 39Civil Aviation Rules

What does the term 'decision altitude' (DA) mean for a precision approach?

  1. The altitude at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference is not established Correct answer.
  2. The altitude at which ATC terminates radar service
  3. The altitude below which the autopilot must be disengaged
  4. The altitude at which the aircraft must be fully configured for landing

Explanation

Decision altitude is the altitude at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference has not been established. It is referenced to mean sea level for a precision approach. It is distinct from minimum descent altitude used on non-precision approaches.

Question 40Civil Aviation Rules

An IFR pilot receives a clearance that would require descent below the minimum safe altitude for the sector. What should the pilot do?

  1. Comply with the clearance because ATC has responsibility for terrain clearance
  2. Descend to the cleared level and monitor the terrain warning system
  3. Advise ATC that the clearance cannot be accepted and request an amended clearance Correct answer.
  4. Accept the clearance and maintain the higher level without advising ATC

Explanation

The pilot in command remains responsible for terrain clearance and must not accept a clearance that would compromise it. ATC should be advised immediately and an amended clearance requested. Silently maintaining a different level creates a separation risk.

Question 41Civil Aviation Rules

What does a 'clearance limit' in an IFR clearance normally specify?

  1. The time at which the clearance expires
  2. The maximum altitude the aircraft may climb to
  3. The minimum fuel required to reach the destination
  4. The point to which the aircraft is cleared to proceed before a further clearance is required Correct answer.

Explanation

The clearance limit is the point to which an aircraft is cleared to proceed, commonly an aerodrome or a navigation aid. Further clearance is required before proceeding beyond it. It is not an altitude or time limit.

Question 42Civil Aviation Rules

Which condition would require a pilot to notify ATC immediately while operating IFR in controlled airspace?

  1. A change in the aircraft's cruise speed of 5 knots
  2. A minor change in the destination aerodrome forecast
  3. A request to change the cruising level at a later point
  4. A failure of the aircraft's primary navigation receiver Correct answer.

Explanation

A failure of navigation equipment that affects the ability to comply with the clearance must be reported to ATC promptly. Minor speed changes and forecast changes do not require immediate notification. Requests for future level changes can be made in the normal course.

Question 43Civil Aviation Rules

What is the minimum visibility requirement for a pilot to commence a take-off under IFR from an aerodrome?

  1. There is no visibility requirement for an IFR take-off
  2. The visibility must be at least 5 km in all cases
  3. The visibility must be at least the landing minima for the destination
  4. The visibility must be at least the published take-off minima for the aerodrome or runway Correct answer.

Explanation

An IFR take-off may only be commenced if the visibility is at least the take-off minima published for the aerodrome or runway. Where no minima are published, the applicable rule default applies. The landing minima at the destination are not relevant to the take-off decision.

Question 44Civil Aviation Rules

An IFR flight is planned to an aerodrome where an instrument approach is available. What does the alternate requirement depend on?

  1. The number of passengers on board
  2. The aircraft's maximum cruise speed
  3. The forecast weather at the destination at the expected time of arrival Correct answer.
  4. The availability of a GPS receiver on board

Explanation

The need for a destination alternate depends on the forecast weather at the destination for the relevant period. If the forecast indicates conditions will be at or above the specified planning minima, an alternate may not be required. Passenger numbers and cruise speed do not determine the requirement.

Question 45Civil Aviation Rules

What does the term 'IFR' mean as used in the Civil Aviation Rules?

  1. Instrument failure report, a mandatory occurrence notification
  2. Instrument flight rating, the licence endorsement for instrument flight
  3. Instrument flight rules, the rules governing flight by reference to instruments Correct answer.
  4. Instrumented flight route, a published airway structure

Explanation

IFR stands for instrument flight rules, which govern the conduct of flight by reference to instruments and under ATC where applicable. It is distinct from the instrument rating, which is a licence endorsement. The other expansions are not correct.

Question 46Civil Aviation Rules

What is the purpose of a position report from an IFR aircraft in procedural airspace?

  1. To request a change of cruising level
  2. To confirm the aircraft's fuel endurance to the destination
  3. To allow ATC to update separation between aircraft using procedural standards Correct answer.
  4. To advise the destination aerodrome of the arrival time

Explanation

In procedural airspace, ATC relies on position reports to establish and maintain separation between aircraft. Reports are made at compulsory reporting points or as requested. They are not primarily a fuel or arrival notification mechanism.

Question 47Civil Aviation Rules

An IFR aircraft in controlled airspace experiences a two-way radio failure. What is the appropriate initial action?

  1. Land at the nearest aerodrome regardless of the clearance
  2. Continue on the last acknowledged clearance and squawk the appropriate emergency code Correct answer.
  3. Descend immediately to the lowest safe altitude and circle
  4. Turn back to the departure aerodrome without delay

Explanation

On radio failure, the pilot should continue in accordance with the last acknowledged clearance or instruction and squawk the appropriate code to alert ATC. The aircraft should then comply with the published radio failure procedures. Immediate diversion without regard to the clearance is not the prescribed first action.

Question 48Civil Aviation Rules

What does the term 'reduced vertical separation minimum' (RVSM) require of an aircraft operating in the designated airspace?

  1. A radar service provided by ATC at all times
  2. A minimum of two pilots on the flight deck at all times
  3. Operation only during daylight hours
  4. Approved altimetry and autopilot equipment meeting the RVSM specification Correct answer.

Explanation

RVSM operations require the aircraft to be approved with altimetry and automatic altitude control equipment meeting the specified standard. The reduced separation is then applied between approved aircraft. Two-pilot crewing and daylight operation are not RVSM requirements.

Question 49Civil Aviation Rules

An IFR pilot is cleared to descend via a published arrival procedure with 'descend via' instructions. What must the pilot ensure?

  1. Compliance with all published altitude and speed restrictions on the procedure unless specifically cancelled Correct answer.
  2. Descent at the pilot's discretion to the lowest safe altitude
  3. Immediate descent to the final approach altitude
  4. Descent only after passing the final waypoint

Explanation

A 'descend via' clearance authorises descent on the published procedure while complying with its altitude and speed restrictions. Restrictions remain in force unless ATC specifically cancels them. The pilot must also ensure terrain clearance is maintained throughout.

Question 50Civil Aviation Rules

What is the significance of a 'mandatory reporting point' in IFR operations?

  1. The pilot must obtain a new clearance before passing it
  2. The pilot must change frequency when passing it
  3. The pilot must report position to ATC when passing it Correct answer.
  4. The pilot must descend to the published altitude when passing it

Explanation

At a mandatory reporting point, the pilot must report the aircraft's position and level to ATC. The report allows ATC to update separation. Frequency changes and level changes are governed by separate instructions.