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CAA NZ Instrument Rating Navigation study materials
CAA NZ Instrument Rating Navigation study resources

CAA NZ Instrument Rating Navigation practice questions

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Question 1Navigation

On a Lambert conformal conic chart used for NZ IFR navigation, what is the principal property of the projection?

  1. Azimuthal, so all great circles from the projection centre plot as straight lines
  2. Equal-area, so any closed flight-plan area measures the same regardless of latitude
  3. Equidistant, so scale is constant along every meridian from pole to pole
  4. Conformal, so angles and shapes are preserved locally while scale varies with distance from the standard parallels Correct answer.

Explanation

A Lambert conformal conic is conformal: the angle between any two lines on the chart equals the angle on the Earth, which is why bearings can be plotted directly. Scale is true only on the standard parallels and increases away from them, so distance must be measured against the chart scale appropriate to the latitude.

Question 2Navigation

An aircraft tracks 090 degrees magnetic with 10 degrees of easterly variation at the aircraft position. What is the true track?

  1. 090 degrees true
  2. 100 degrees true Correct answer.
  3. 110 degrees true
  4. 080 degrees true

Explanation

The rule is True Virgins Make Dull Company: from magnetic to true you add easterly variation. Adding 10 degrees east to 090 magnetic gives 100 degrees true.

Question 3Navigation

In New Zealand, what does the line labelled 'agonic line' on a magnetic chart represent?

  1. The line joining points of equal annual change in variation
  2. The boundary between the magnetic and true meridians on a chart
  3. The locus where magnetic variation is zero Correct answer.
  4. The locus where magnetic dip is zero

Explanation

The agonic line joins all points where magnetic north and true north coincide, so variation is zero along it. Dip and annual change are shown by separate isoclinic and isoporic information.

Question 4Navigation

A VOR radial of 270 is selected with the omni-bearing selector and the aircraft is due north of the station. Which indication is correct?

  1. FROM with a full-scale right deflection Correct answer.
  2. FROM with a full-scale left deflection
  3. TO with a full-scale left deflection
  4. TO with a full-scale right deflection

Explanation

With 270 selected, the 270 radial lies to the west of the station, so an aircraft north of the station is on the 360 radial, which is 90 degrees clockwise from the selected radial. The CDI therefore deflects fully right, and the sense flag shows FROM because the aircraft is on the side away from the station relative to the selected course.

Question 5Navigation

An aircraft is cleared to hold at a VOR on the 180 radial, right-hand pattern, inbound to the station. Which outbound heading is flown in nil wind?

  1. 360 degrees Correct answer.
  2. 180 degrees
  3. 090 degrees
  4. 270 degrees

Explanation

Holding on the 180 radial means the inbound leg tracks 180 degrees toward the station, so the outbound leg tracks the reciprocal, 360 degrees. Right-hand pattern affects only the turn direction at the fix, not the outbound heading.

Question 6Navigation

When intercepting an inbound track of 045 degrees to a VOR from a position south-east of the station, which technique gives the correct lead?

  1. Fly a heading of 225 and let the TO/FROM flag reverse
  2. Fly a heading offset toward the track, then turn onto 045 as the CDI centres with a lead based on closing angle Correct answer.
  3. Fly the 045 radial outbound until the station is abeam
  4. Fly a heading of 045 and wait for the CDI to centre

Explanation

Interception requires a deliberate offset heading toward the desired track so the CDI moves toward centre. As the needle approaches centre the aircraft must turn onto the track with a lead proportional to the intercept angle and closing speed, otherwise it overshoots.

Question 7Navigation

What is the primary purpose of a Standard Instrument Departure (SID) in the NZ instrument environment?

  1. To guarantee radar separation from all other traffic from the moment of take-off
  2. To set the noise abatement power schedule for the aerodrome
  3. To provide obstacle-safe track guidance from the runway to a defined point where the en-route or radar phase begins Correct answer.
  4. To define the minimum fuel required for the departure phase

Explanation

A SID provides a published, obstacle-cleared path from the runway to a fix or altitude where the aircraft joins the en-route structure or is radar identified. It does not by itself confer traffic separation, which remains an ATC responsibility.

Question 8Navigation

An aircraft crosses a DME fix at 12 000 ft and is cleared to descend to 4 000 ft at 3 degrees, tracking inbound on the localiser. What track distance is required?

  1. Approximately 8 NM
  2. Approximately 27 NM Correct answer.
  3. Approximately 12 NM
  4. Approximately 40 NM

Explanation

A 3 degree descent gives roughly 300 ft per nautical mile. Descending 8 000 ft at 300 ft/NM requires about 27 NM of track distance, which is why DME arcs and step-down fixes are used on approaches.

Question 9Navigation

On an ILS approach, what does the glideslope provide?

  1. Vertical guidance along a fixed angle to a defined touchdown point Correct answer.
  2. Missed approach point identification by marker beacon
  3. Distance to the threshold measured by timing
  4. Lateral guidance to the runway centreline

Explanation

The glideslope is the vertical component of the ILS, normally set at about 3 degrees, giving the pilot a path to a defined touchdown zone. Lateral guidance comes from the localiser and distance from DME or markers.

Question 10Navigation

An aircraft is tracking 270 degrees true at 120 kt TAS with a wind of 360/30. What is the approximate drift angle?

  1. About 14 degrees right
  2. About 30 degrees right
  3. About 14 degrees left Correct answer.
  4. About 7 degrees right

Explanation

A wind from 360 degrees pushes the aircraft south, which is left of a westbound course. For a maintained 270-degree track, the drift magnitude is arcsin(30/120), about 14.5 degrees. The pilot needs a right heading correction to counter this left drift.

Question 11Navigation

What is the effect of increasing altitude on true airspeed for a given indicated airspeed?

  1. TAS increases only if the Mach number is held constant
  2. TAS remains constant because IAS and TAS are equivalent
  3. TAS increases because air density decreases Correct answer.
  4. TAS decreases because temperature falls

Explanation

Indicated airspeed reflects dynamic pressure, which depends on density. As altitude increases and density falls, the aircraft must fly faster through the air to produce the same dynamic pressure, so TAS rises for a given IAS.

Question 12Navigation

An aircraft flies from a point on the equator to a point 60 degrees north along the same meridian. Approximately what distance is covered?

  1. 1 800 NM
  2. 6 000 NM
  3. 5 400 NM
  4. 3 600 NM Correct answer.

Explanation

One degree of latitude is approximately 60 NM, so 60 degrees of latitude is about 3 600 NM. This is why latitude difference converts directly to distance along a meridian.

Question 13Navigation

What distinguishes a great circle from a rhumb line on a Mercator chart?

  1. A great circle is the shortest path and plots as a curve, while a rhumb line cuts all meridians at a constant angle and plots straight Correct answer.
  2. A great circle can only be flown in the southern hemisphere
  3. A great circle plots as a straight line and a rhumb line as a curve
  4. A great circle and a rhumb line are identical on all charts

Explanation

A great circle is the shortest distance between two points and appears curved on a Mercator chart. A rhumb line maintains a constant track angle and plots as a straight line but is longer except along the equator or a meridian.

Question 14Navigation

When using a GPS receiver for en-route navigation in NZ, what does the receiver's CDI display when the active waypoint is behind the aircraft?

  1. Full-scale deflection with a TO flag
  2. Full-scale deflection with a FROM flag Correct answer.
  3. No display until the waypoint is reselected
  4. Centred with a FROM flag

Explanation

If the aircraft has passed the active waypoint, the desired track points back toward it, so the CDI deflects fully and the FROM flag appears. The pilot must sequence to the next waypoint to obtain useful guidance.

Question 15Navigation

What is the significance of the MSA (minimum sector altitude) shown on an instrument approach chart?

  1. It guarantees terrain clearance within 25 NM of the navigation aid in the sector, but does not provide obstacle clearance for the approach itself Correct answer.
  2. It is the altitude at which the missed approach must be initiated
  3. It is the altitude assigned by ATC for all arrivals in the sector
  4. It is the lowest altitude that may be flown on the approach segment

Explanation

The MSA gives 1 000 ft terrain clearance within 25 NM of the reference aid in each sector and is an emergency or situational awareness tool. It does not authorise descent below the published segment altitudes on the approach.

Question 16Navigation

An aircraft on a DME arc of 15 NM from a VOR is tracking clockwise. What heading change is required to maintain the arc as the aircraft passes abeam the station?

  1. A single 90 degree turn at the abeam point
  2. No change, since the arc is a constant radius
  3. A continuous turn to keep the DME reading constant Correct answer.
  4. A turn away from the station to increase DME

Explanation

Maintaining a DME arc requires a continuous turn because the aircraft's heading must change to keep the radius constant. The lead required depends on TAS and the arc radius, and the turn direction follows the arc direction.

Question 17Navigation

What is the purpose of a waypoint in an RNAV route?

  1. A physical ground-based transmitter
  2. A boundary between airspace classes
  3. A point where ATC must be contacted
  4. A defined geographical point used to construct the route and provide navigation guidance Correct answer.

Explanation

Waypoints are defined positions, either named fixes or coordinates, that form the route structure for RNAV navigation. They are database entries rather than physical transmitters.

Question 18Navigation

An aircraft is cleared to descend from FL 150 to 5 000 ft at 240 kt ground speed, with a required descent gradient of 4 percent. What rate of descent is required?

  1. About 970 ft/min Correct answer.
  2. About 640 ft/min
  3. About 480 ft/min
  4. About 1 200 ft/min

Explanation

A 4 percent gradient is 4 NM per 100 NM, so feet per nautical mile is 4 percent of 6 076 ft, about 243 ft/NM. Multiplying by 4 NM per minute (240 kt) gives about 970 ft/min.

Question 19Navigation

When converting a true heading to a compass heading, in what order are variation and deviation applied?

  1. Apply only deviation, since variation is included in the chart
  2. Apply only variation, since deviation is constant
  3. Add or subtract deviation first, then variation
  4. Add or subtract variation first, then deviation Correct answer.

Explanation

The sequence from true to compass is true, variation, magnetic, deviation, compass: variation converts true to magnetic, then deviation converts magnetic to compass. Deviation is specific to the aircraft installation and varies with heading.

Question 20Navigation

What does a 'fly-by' waypoint require the aircraft to do in RNAV navigation?

  1. Begin the turn to the next leg before reaching the waypoint, using a defined turn radius Correct answer.
  2. Hold at the waypoint until cleared
  3. Overfly the waypoint before turning
  4. Descend to the waypoint altitude before turning

Explanation

A fly-by waypoint allows the aircraft to anticipate the turn and roll out onto the next leg without passing directly over the fix. A fly-over waypoint, by contrast, requires the aircraft to cross the fix before turning.

Question 21Navigation

An aircraft at 10 000 ft with a TAS of 180 kt experiences a wind of 270/40 while tracking 090 degrees true. What is the approximate ground speed?

  1. 220 kt
  2. 260 kt
  3. 140 kt Correct answer.
  4. 180 kt

Explanation

The wind is directly on the nose for a track of 090, so it reduces ground speed by its full value. The ground speed is therefore approximately 180 minus 40, about 140 kt.

Question 22Navigation

What is the primary reference for lateral navigation when flying a localiser approach?

  1. The marker beacon at the outer fix
  2. The localiser beam, which is aligned with the runway centreline Correct answer.
  3. The glideslope, which is aligned with the runway centreline
  4. The DME distance to the threshold

Explanation

The localiser provides lateral guidance and is aligned with the runway centreline. The glideslope provides vertical guidance, while DME and markers provide distance information.

Question 23Navigation

An aircraft tracking 360 degrees true at 100 kt TAS encounters a wind of 090/20. What is the approximate heading required to maintain track?

  1. 090 degrees true
  2. 012 degrees true Correct answer.
  3. 360 degrees true
  4. 348 degrees true

Explanation

The wind is from the right, so the aircraft must point into wind, giving a heading greater than 360. The drift angle is about arcsin(20/100), roughly 12 degrees, so the heading is about 012 degrees true.

Question 24Navigation

What is the role of the initial approach fix (IAF) in an instrument approach procedure?

  1. The point at which the aircraft joins the approach and begins the initial approach segment Correct answer.
  2. The point at which the missed approach is initiated
  3. The point at which ATC hands over to tower
  4. The point at which the aircraft touches down

Explanation

The IAF marks the beginning of the published approach, where the aircraft transitions from the en-route or arrival structure onto the approach. The missed approach point and touchdown point are later fixes.

Question 25Navigation

An aircraft is 30 NM from a VOR on the 090 radial and needs to intercept the 120 radial inbound. Which action is appropriate?

  1. Turn away from the station to increase the intercept angle
  2. Maintain the 090 radial until the station is abeam
  3. Fly directly to the station and then turn onto the 120 radial outbound
  4. Turn to a heading that increases the rate of change of bearing toward 120, then track inbound on the 120 radial Correct answer.

Explanation

To intercept a different radial the aircraft must turn so that the bearing from the station changes toward the desired value, then establish inbound tracking on the new radial. Turning away or maintaining the current radial delays the intercept.

Question 26Navigation

On a Lambert conformal conic chart used for instrument navigation, what property is preserved along with the chart's conformality?

  1. Angles measured at a point equal the true angles on the Earth Correct answer.
  2. Rhumb lines plot as straight lines
  3. Great circles plot as straight lines
  4. Scale is constant across the entire chart

Explanation

A conformal projection preserves local angles, so a bearing plotted on the chart matches the true bearing on the Earth at that point. This is why Lambert conformal conic charts suit IFR work, where accurate angular measurement matters. Scale and straight-line representation vary with the projection type, not with conformality.

Question 27Navigation

What does the term 'variation' refer to when converting between true and magnetic directions in New Zealand?

  1. The angular difference between true north and magnetic north at a given position Correct answer.
  2. The error introduced by the aircraft's electrical systems during turns
  3. The difference between indicated airspeed and true airspeed at altitude
  4. The angular difference between magnetic north and compass north caused by aircraft magnetism

Explanation

Variation is the angle between true north and magnetic north at a location, and it changes with position and over time. It is applied when converting true directions to magnetic or the reverse. Deviation, by contrast, is caused by aircraft magnetism and affects the compass only.

Question 28Navigation

Which of the following best describes the function of the CDI needle when a VOR receiver is tuned to a station and the OBS is set to a selected radial?

  1. It shows the angular deviation of the aircraft from the selected radial Correct answer.
  2. It shows the distance from the station
  3. It shows the aircraft's heading relative to the selected radial
  4. It shows the glideslope deviation

Explanation

The course deviation indicator responds to the phase difference between the received VOR signal and the selected radial, showing left or right angular displacement from that radial. It does not indicate heading or distance. Distance requires DME, and glideslope is a separate ILS display.

Question 29Navigation

What is the principal navigational purpose of the airway structure published in the NZ AIP en-route section?

  1. To provide defined tracks and minimum altitudes for IFR navigation between significant points Correct answer.
  2. To define controlled airspace boundaries for VFR traffic
  3. To specify noise abatement procedures near aerodromes
  4. To publish instrument approach minima at each aerodrome

Explanation

Published airways give IFR aircraft defined lateral tracks, minimum en-route altitudes and navigational references between significant points. They form the backbone of the en-route structure used for flight planning and clearance. Airspace boundaries and approach minima are published separately.

Question 30Navigation

On an instrument chart, what does a Minimum En-route Altitude (MEA) guarantee for the segment concerned?

  1. Terrain and obstacle clearance along the airway within the stated signal coverage Correct answer.
  2. The altitude at which the aircraft achieves best glide performance
  3. The lowest altitude at which DME can be received
  4. Clearance from traffic in all adjacent airspace

Explanation

The MEA is the lowest published altitude that provides obstacle and terrain clearance along the airway while also ensuring navigation signal coverage. It does not provide separation from other traffic, which is a function of the airspace classification and ATC. Pilots must still comply with any higher assigned altitude.

Question 31Navigation

An aircraft is tracking a magnetic course of 090 degrees with a magnetic heading of 085 degrees. What is the wind effect described by these figures?

  1. A right drift of 5 degrees Correct answer.
  2. A headwind component of 5 knots
  3. A left drift of 5 degrees
  4. A tailwind component of 5 knots

Explanation

Drift is the difference between heading and track. Here the aircraft is pointed at 085 but travelling along 090, so it has been pushed to the right by 5 degrees, which is right drift. Wind correction is applied by turning into the wind, so the heading is to the left of track.

Question 32Navigation

What does the term 'waypoint' mean in the context of an RNAV route?

  1. A radio navaid that must be tuned for the route
  2. A point where ATC must be contacted
  3. A geographical position defined by coordinates used to define the route Correct answer.
  4. A holding fix used only during missed approaches

Explanation

An RNAV waypoint is a defined geographical position, usually given by latitude and longitude or a named fix, that the navigation system uses to build the route. It does not require a ground-based navaid. Waypoints may be fly-by or fly-over and are used throughout the route and procedures.

Question 33Navigation

In the cruise, an aircraft's true airspeed is 150 kt and the headwind component is 30 kt. What is the ground speed?

  1. 120 kt Correct answer.
  2. 105 kt
  3. 180 kt
  4. 150 kt

Explanation

Ground speed equals true airspeed adjusted for the wind component along track. A headwind reduces groundspeed, so 150 minus 30 gives 120 kt. A tailwind would add to the true airspeed instead.

Question 34Navigation

An aircraft tracking a magnetic course of 270 degrees experiences a wind from 180 degrees. What is the wind component along track?

  1. A headwind Correct answer.
  2. A pure crosswind
  3. No component, since the wind is perpendicular
  4. A tailwind

Explanation

Wind direction is the direction the wind comes from. A wind from 180 degrees blows towards 360 degrees, while the aircraft tracks 270 degrees, so the wind opposes the aircraft and gives a headwind. A wind from 090 degrees would give a tailwind on this track.

Question 35Navigation

What is the primary purpose of a holding pattern in instrument navigation?

  1. To allow the pilot to reset the altimeter
  2. To provide a defined manoeuvre for delaying aircraft while maintaining a protected airspace Correct answer.
  3. To allow the aircraft to descend without ATC clearance
  4. To align the aircraft with the runway centreline before landing

Explanation

A holding pattern gives a published, protected manoeuvre in which an aircraft can wait for onward clearance without leaving controlled airspace. Entry procedures, timing or distance legs and altitudes are specified so that all aircraft remain within the protected area. It is not a descent or alignment procedure in itself.

Question 36Navigation

An aircraft at 8 000 ft has a true airspeed of 160 kt and tracks 000 degrees true with a wind of 270/40. Approximately what heading is required to maintain track?

  1. 040 degrees
  2. 000 degrees
  3. 014 degrees Correct answer.
  4. 346 degrees

Explanation

The wind from 270 blows towards 090, which is a crosswind from the left of the 000 track. The aircraft must turn into the wind, that is to the left of track, so the heading must be less than 000, which is 360 minus the drift. The drift angle is about arcsine of 40/160, roughly 14 degrees, giving a heading of about 346 degrees.

Question 37Navigation

When planning a flight, what does the 'safe endurance' figure represent?

  1. Maximum fuel capacity divided by maximum range
  2. Total fuel divided by cruise fuel flow
  3. Usable fuel minus reserves, divided by the planned fuel flow Correct answer.
  4. Fuel required to reach the destination only

Explanation

Safe endurance is the time the aircraft can remain airborne on fuel that is available for the flight, after reserves have been set aside. It is calculated by subtracting fixed and reserve fuel from usable fuel and dividing by the planned consumption rate. This figure is then compared with the planned flight time to confirm the fuel is sufficient.

Question 38Navigation

An aircraft is 20 NM from a VOR and is tracking directly towards it on the 180 radial. What does the DME read, and how does it change as the aircraft closes?

  1. 0 NM and remaining constant
  2. 20 NM remaining constant until overhead
  3. 20 NM decreasing at a rate equal to ground speed Correct answer.
  4. 20 NM increasing at a rate equal to ground speed

Explanation

DME measures slant range, so at 20 NM the reading approximates the distance to the station and decreases as the aircraft approaches. The rate of decrease equals the component of groundspeed along the line to the station. When directly overhead, the reading falls to the aircraft's altitude in nautical miles rather than zero.

Question 39Navigation

What is the significance of the transition level in instrument departure and arrival procedures?

  1. It is the lowest level at which an aircraft may enter controlled airspace
  2. It is the level at which the approach may be commenced
  3. It is the level at which the landing gear must be extended
  4. It is the level at which the altimeter is changed from QNH to standard pressure when climbing Correct answer.

Explanation

The transition level is the lowest flight level available above the transition altitude, and when climbing through it the altimeter is set to standard pressure. When descending, the change back to QNH is made at the transition level. This ensures all aircraft above the transition altitude use a common pressure reference.

Question 40Navigation

An aircraft on an ILS approach has a decision altitude of 200 ft above the threshold. What does reaching this altitude require if the required visual reference is not established?

  1. Reduce the rate of descent and continue
  2. Continue the approach to touchdown using the instruments
  3. Hold at the decision altitude until visual contact
  4. Execute a missed approach Correct answer.

Explanation

The decision altitude is the point at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference has not been established. Continuing below this altitude without visual reference is not permitted. The missed approach procedure published on the chart is then flown.

Question 41Navigation

How is the maximum drift angle affected when true airspeed increases while wind speed remains constant?

  1. It becomes zero at all airspeeds above 200 kt
  2. It increases, because the wind has more time to act
  3. It decreases, because the crosswind component is a smaller fraction of the airspeed Correct answer.
  4. It remains unchanged, because drift depends only on wind direction

Explanation

The drift angle is determined by the ratio of the crosswind component to true airspeed, so for a given wind a higher airspeed produces a smaller drift angle. This is why faster aircraft require smaller wind correction angles. Wind direction alone does not determine drift.

Question 42Navigation

On a Mercator chart, how does the spacing of the lines of latitude change with increasing latitude?

  1. The spacing increases only in the southern hemisphere
  2. The spacing decreases progressively towards the poles
  3. The spacing remains constant at all latitudes
  4. The spacing increases progressively towards the poles Correct answer.

Explanation

A Mercator chart stretches the meridians apart to keep them parallel, and the latitude scale is expanded correspondingly so that the projection remains conformal. The spacing between parallels therefore increases towards the poles. This is why the scale of a Mercator chart varies with latitude.

Question 43Navigation

An aircraft is cleared to hold at a VOR on the 360 radial, right-hand pattern, at 7 000 ft. Which entry is appropriate for an aircraft approaching the fix on a heading of 180 degrees?

  1. Parallel entry
  2. Teardrop entry
  3. Direct entry Correct answer.
  4. Procedure turn entry

Explanation

The aircraft is approaching the holding fix from the direction of the inbound leg, so a direct entry is used. In a direct entry the aircraft turns onto the outbound leg in the direction of the hold after crossing the fix. Parallel and teardrop entries are used when approaching from other sectors.

Question 44Navigation

What is the effect of a lower QNH on the true altitude of an aircraft flying at a constant indicated altitude?

  1. True altitude is higher than indicated
  2. True altitude equals indicated altitude at all times
  3. True altitude is unaffected by QNH
  4. True altitude is lower than indicated Correct answer.

Explanation

When the QNH is lower than the standard setting used in the altimeter, the altimeter over-reads, so the aircraft is actually lower than the indicated altitude. This is the basis of the 'high to low, look out below' rule. Pilots must correct for this when terrain clearance is critical.

Question 45Navigation

An aircraft on a DME arc of 20 NM from a VOR must change from the 090 radial to the 120 radial. Approximately how far does the aircraft travel along the arc?

  1. 40 NM
  2. 10.5 NM Correct answer.
  3. 5 NM
  4. 20 NM

Explanation

The arc length equals the radius multiplied by the angle in radians. Thirty degrees is about 0.524 radians, so 20 NM times 0.524 gives about 10.5 NM. This distance divided by groundspeed gives the time available to complete the turn onto the next radial.

Question 46Navigation

What does the term 'required navigation performance' (RNP) specify for an RNAV route?

  1. The navigation accuracy that must be maintained for at least 95 per cent of the flight time Correct answer.
  2. The minimum fuel required to reach the destination
  3. The maximum altitude at which the route may be flown
  4. The maximum flight time between waypoints

Explanation

RNP specifies the lateral navigation accuracy that the aircraft's system must achieve for at least 95 per cent of the flight time on the route. It also implies onboard performance monitoring and alerting. It is a navigation standard, not a fuel or time limit.

Question 47Navigation

An aircraft tracking 045 degrees true at 200 kt TAS has a wind of 135/50. What is the approximate wind correction angle and its direction?

  1. About 25 degrees to the left of track
  2. About 25 degrees to the right of track
  3. About 10 degrees to the right of track
  4. About 10 degrees to the left of track Correct answer.

Explanation

The wind from 135 blows towards 315, which is a crosswind from the right of the 045 track, so the aircraft must turn left into the wind. The drift angle is approximately arcsine of the crosswind component divided by true airspeed. With a crosswind component of about 35 kt, the drift is about 10 degrees, giving a heading of about 035 degrees.

Question 48Navigation

When converting a true course to a magnetic course, which correction is applied and using which data source?

  1. Apply variation from the aircraft's magnetic compass
  2. Apply the wind correction angle from the flight log
  3. Apply variation from the chart or AIP, adding easterly variation Correct answer.
  4. Apply deviation from the compass swing card

Explanation

True course is converted to magnetic course by applying the local variation, which is obtained from the chart or AIP. The rule is that easterly variation is added when going from true to magnetic. Deviation is a compass error and is applied later when converting magnetic heading to compass heading.

Question 49Navigation

An aircraft is 40 NM from a VOR on the 270 radial and is cleared to intercept the 300 radial inbound. Which action is appropriate?

  1. Turn left to a heading of about 210 degrees and intercept the 300 radial
  2. Maintain the 270 radial and wait for a further clearance
  3. Turn to a heading of 120 degrees and intercept the 300 radial outbound
  4. Turn right to a heading of about 330 degrees and intercept the 300 radial Correct answer.

Explanation

The aircraft is on the 270 radial, which is west of the station, and must reach the 300 radial, which lies to the north-west. Turning right onto a heading of about 330 degrees allows the aircraft to close on the 300 radial while remaining outside the station. Once the CDI centres, the aircraft turns inbound onto the 300 radial.

Question 50Navigation

An aircraft must descend from FL 180 to 6 000 ft over a ground distance of 60 NM. What average rate of descent is required at a groundspeed of 300 kt?

  1. About 3 000 ft per minute
  2. About 1 500 ft per minute Correct answer.
  3. About 1 000 ft per minute
  4. About 2 000 ft per minute

Explanation

The descent is 12 000 ft over 60 NM, which is 200 ft per nautical mile. At 300 kt groundspeed the aircraft covers 5 NM per minute, so the required rate is 200 times 5, which is 1 000 ft per minute. The answer depends on both the gradient and the groundspeed.