CAA NZ PPL Air Law cheat sheet

The Civil Aviation Act 1990 empowers the Minister to make ordinary rules; the Minister delegates rule-making to the Director of Civil Aviation, and rules are signed as Orders in Council after public consultation under section 33.

NZ Civil Aviation Rules are numbered by part: Part 1 definitions, Part 61 pilot licences, Part 91 general operating rules, Part 121/125/135 air operations, Part 139 aerodromes, Part 19 transition.

Part 91 subparts A-D cover operating rules for all aircraft; subpart E covers instruments/equipment; subpart F covers maintenance; subpart G covers additional equipment.

Advisory Circulars (ACs) are non-binding guidance explaining an acceptable means of compliance; they do not themselves create legal obligations.

CA Rules use the verbs 'shall/is' for mandatory requirements and 'should' for recommended practice, mirroring ICAO Annex wording conventions.

A rule change is notified by Notice of Rule Making and via the Gazette; pilots must check the CAA website or AIP Supplements for amendments effective after publication.

The Director of Civil Aviation issues individual certificates, ratings and exemptions under Part 21 and Part 61; the Director may impose conditions on any certificate.

Exemptions granted under section 37 of the Act are time-limited, published in the Gazette, and must be carried or referenced when operating under them.

Rule breaches are investigated by the CAA; enforcement options range from education and infringement notices to suspension/revocation and prosecution under the Act.

New Zealand airspace classes used: A (FL245 and above, IFR only, positive control), C (controlled, IFR and VFR both separated from all), D (controlled, IFR separated from IFR, VFR receives traffic info), G (uncontrolled).

Class C requires ATC clearance for both IFR and VFR and provides separation between all aircraft; Class D provides separation IFR/IFR only and VFR receives traffic information.

Visual Meteorological Conditions in Class C/D below 10,000 ft: 5 km flight visibility, 1,000 ft vertically and 1.5 km horizontally from cloud; in Class G below 10,000 ft: 5 km visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of surface.

The AIP NZ is published in four volumes: GEN (general), ENR (en-route), AD (aerodromes), and the AIP Supplements/Charts; VOL 4 contains aerodrome charts.

NOTAMs are issued for temporary changes to facilities, services or hazards; they are distributed by AIS and must be checked before flight.

A control zone (CTR) extends from the surface to a specified upper limit around a controlled aerodrome; a control area (CTA) is controlled airspace above a specified lower limit.

Aerodrome operating minima, runway declared distances (TORA, TODA, ASDA, LDA) and obstacle limitation surfaces are published in the AIP AD section.

Special Use Airspace includes restricted areas (flight prohibited except by permission), military operating areas, and mandatory broadcast zones where position reports are required on the specified frequency.

Transponder requirements: Mode A/C or Mode S required in all controlled airspace; Class C and above requires Mode S with altitude reporting where mandated by AIP.

Part 61 PPL(A) requires a minimum of 50 hours total flight time, including 10 hours solo (of which at least 5 hours cross-country) and 5 hours instrument time (at least 3 in an aircraft).

PPL(A) privileges: act as PIC of an aircraft in New Zealand, carry passengers only if the pilot has completed 3 take-offs and landings in the preceding 90 days in the same type.

A Class 1 medical is required for commercial operations; a Class 2 medical is required for PPL and must be renewed at intervals set by the CAA (commonly 24 months under 40, 12 months over 40).

A current Biennial Flight Review (BFR) or equivalent proficiency check is required within the preceding 24 months to exercise PPL privileges.

A type rating is required for multi-engine aircraft, turbine aircraft and any aircraft specified in Part 61; single-engine piston aeroplanes are covered by the class rating.

Ratings: instrument rating, instructor rating, night rating, aerobatic rating, and tailwheel/retractable undercarriage endorsements are issued under Part 61 Subpart K.

A pilot must hold a current aviation medical certificate and a current licence with the appropriate ratings before acting as PIC; the medical certificate must be carried or available for inspection.

Logbooks must record date, aircraft type and registration, departure/arrival points, flight time, and dual/solo/PIC status; entries must be retained for at least 5 years (or per Part 61).

Foreign licences may be validated for temporary operations under Part 61 Subpart L; validation is limited in time and does not replace a NZ licence for ongoing operations.

The pilot-in-command is responsible for the safe operation of the aircraft and for ensuring that pre-flight planning, weather checks, fuel and performance calculations are completed.

Occurrences that must be reported to the CAA include accidents, serious incidents, and specified reportable occurrences such as runway incursions, airprox, and engine failure.

The CAA occurrence reporting form (CA005) must be submitted within the timeframes set by the CAA; serious incidents must be reported as soon as practicable.

The Transport Accident Investigation Commission (TAIC) investigates accidents and serious incidents independently; the CAA does not investigate accidents.

A 'just culture' approach protects reporters of errors from enforcement action except in cases of gross negligence or wilful misconduct.

Pre-flight action: the PIC must check AIP, NOTAMs, weather, fuel requirements, weight and balance, and aircraft serviceability before flight.

Dangerous goods must be carried in accordance with Part 92 and the ICAO Technical Instructions; the PIC must ensure proper packaging, labelling and documentation.

Crew and passenger safety briefings, seat belt use, and smoking rules are mandated by Part 91; the PIC must ensure the aircraft is operated within its limitations.

Fuel requirements: VFR flights must carry enough fuel to reach the destination plus a 30-minute reserve (day) or 45-minute reserve (night) at normal cruise.

VFR flights must be conducted in VMC; when unable to maintain VMC, the pilot must request a clearance or take action to remain clear of cloud and in sight of surface.

Cruising altitudes: VFR flights above 3,000 ft AMSL must use the semi-circular rule (odd/even thousands plus 500 ft) based on magnetic track.

Right-of-way rules: aircraft on final approach have priority; when two aircraft converge, the one on the right has right-of-way; the less manoeuvrable aircraft has priority.

Minimum safe altitudes: 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m in congested areas; 500 ft elsewhere, except for take-off and landing.

Position reports in mandatory broadcast zones must include aircraft identification, position, altitude and intentions on the specified frequency.

Aircraft must be equipped with a serviceable transponder, altimeter, compass, and (for VFR at night) appropriate lighting and instruments as required by Part 91 Subpart E.

The PIC must maintain a listening watch on the appropriate frequency and comply with ATC clearances; read-back is required for clearances involving altitude, heading and runway.

Aircraft must be operated within the limitations of the flight manual and the pilot's licence and ratings; passengers may not be carried for hire or reward without an air operator certificate.

Every aircraft operated in NZ must have a current Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) or a permit to fly issued under Part 21.

Maintenance must be performed by a Part 145 maintenance organisation or an appropriately rated engineer, and released to service with a maintenance release.

Annual inspections and 100-hour inspections (for aircraft used for hire or reward) are required; the specific intervals are in the aircraft maintenance programme.

Airworthiness Directives (ADs) issued by the CAA or the state of design must be complied with within the specified time.

Defect reporting: defects affecting airworthiness must be recorded and reported to the CAA and the manufacturer as required by Part 43/Part 145.

The aircraft flight manual (AFM) and weight and balance schedule must be carried on board and the aircraft operated within its limits.

Modifications require approval under Part 21; unapproved modifications invalidate the C of A.

Aircraft registration marks and nationality marks (ZK-) must be displayed in accordance with Part 47.

ATC clearances are required for all IFR flights in controlled airspace and for VFR flights in Class C and D airspace.

A clearance does not relieve the PIC of responsibility for terrain clearance, obstacle avoidance and compliance with the rules.

Read-back is mandatory for clearances relating to route, altitude, heading, speed and runway; failure to read back correctly requires clarification.

Squawk codes: 7500 (unlawful interference), 7600 (radio failure), 7700 (emergency); these are recognised internationally and must be used when appropriate.

Radio failure in VMC: continue VFR, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report to ATC; in IMC follow the published lost-communication procedures.

Emergency frequencies: 121.5 MHz (civil) and 243.0 MHz (military); a distress call uses 'MAYDAY' and an urgency call uses 'PAN PAN'.

Position reporting points and frequencies are published in the AIP ENR section and on aerodrome charts; pilots must report at compulsory reporting points.

ATC may issue traffic information and safety alerts; pilots must acknowledge and, where practicable, comply, but remain responsible for see-and-avoid.

Licence holders must notify the CAA of any change of address within 30 days and of any change in medical status.

Logbooks must be retained and produced on request by the CAA; electronic logbooks are acceptable if they meet Part 61 requirements.

A licence may be suspended or revoked by the Director for breaches of the Act or Rules, or for medical unfitness.

Pilot records must include dual instruction received, solo flights, and endorsements; the CAA may audit these records.

Medical certificates are issued by CAA-approved medical examiners; a fit assessment may include limitations (e.g. corrective lenses, no night flying).

Renewal of a PPL requires a current medical, a current BFR, and compliance with recent experience requirements.

Ratings lapse if not exercised within the specified period; revalidation requires a proficiency check or specified experience.

The CAA maintains a public register of licences and certificates; pilots should verify their own records and report discrepancies.

Aerodrome operators are responsible for publishing aerodrome data, obstacle information and operating procedures in the AIP AD section.

Runway incursions are a major safety risk; pilots must obtain clearance before entering or crossing any runway and must read back hold-short instructions.

Aerodrome lighting, markings and signs follow ICAO Annex 14 standards; pilots must be familiar with runway holding position markings and taxiway signs.

Wind limitations, crosswind limits and runway surface conditions must be considered before take-off and landing; the PIC must assess performance.

Ground movement: pilots must follow taxi clearances, maintain a listening watch and give way to aircraft on the runway and to emergency vehicles.

Bird strike and wildlife hazard reporting is required; occurrences must be reported to the aerodrome operator and the CAA.

Apron safety: no smoking, engine start and shutdown procedures, and marshalling signals must be observed; the PIC is responsible for passenger safety on the apron.

Aerodrome emergency plans and rescue fire fighting categories are published; pilots should be aware of the category for their aerodrome.

The CAA may issue infringement notices, suspend or revoke certificates, or prosecute for breaches of the Civil Aviation Act or Rules.

Defences include honest and reasonable mistake, but the burden is on the pilot to demonstrate compliance with the rules.

Record-keeping requirements: flight records, maintenance records and training records must be retained for the periods specified in the relevant Parts.

The CAA conducts surveillance and audits; pilots and operators must cooperate with inspectors and produce records on request.

Operating without a current licence, medical or C of A is an offence and may invalidate insurance.

Exemptions from rules must be applied for in writing and are published; operating outside the terms of an exemption is a breach.

The Act provides for penalties including fines and imprisonment for serious offences such as flying while impaired or without a licence.

Pilots should be aware of the CAA's safety promotion material and advisory circulars, which explain acceptable means of compliance.

Before flight, the PIC must obtain a weather briefing, check NOTAMs, plan the route, calculate fuel, and verify aircraft performance and weight and balance.

A flight plan must be filed for IFR flights and for VFR flights in controlled airspace where required; flight plans must be submitted before departure.

Alternate aerodrome requirements: a destination alternate is required when the weather at destination is below specified minima or when required by the operator.

Fuel planning: VFR requires destination plus 30 minutes (day) or 45 minutes (night) reserve; IFR requires destination plus alternate plus 30 minutes.

Weight and balance must be calculated for every flight; the aircraft must be loaded within the centre of gravity limits and maximum weight.

Take-off and landing performance must be calculated using the AFM data, considering runway length, slope, wind, temperature and pressure altitude.

Aircraft serviceability: the PIC must ensure the aircraft is airworthy and that any defects have been rectified and released.

Passenger briefing must cover emergency exits, life jackets (if applicable), and the use of seat belts.

Class A: IFR only, positive control; VFR flight is not permitted.

Class C: IFR and VFR both require clearance; ATC provides separation between all aircraft.

Class D: IFR and VFR require clearance; ATC provides separation IFR/IFR only; VFR receives traffic information.

Class G: uncontrolled; no clearance required; pilots must use see-and-avoid and comply with VMC minima.

VMC minima in Class C/D below 10,000 ft: 5 km visibility, 1,000 ft vertical and 1.5 km horizontal from cloud.

VMC minima in Class G below 10,000 ft: 5 km visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of surface.

Special VFR (SVFR) may be granted in control zones when VMC cannot be maintained; SVFR requires ATC clearance and specific visibility minima.

IFR flights must comply with instrument approach procedures and minima published in the AIP; the pilot must hold an instrument rating.

In an emergency, the PIC may deviate from the rules to the extent necessary to meet the emergency; the CAA must be informed if a rule is breached.

Distress calls use MAYDAY; urgency calls use PAN PAN; both should include position, altitude, nature of emergency and intentions.

Emergency descent: pilots should turn off the transponder, squawk 7700, and descend at the best rate while maintaining terrain clearance.

Fire, engine failure and forced landing procedures must be practised; the PIC must brief passengers and prepare for evacuation.

Occurrence reports must be submitted to the CAA within the specified timeframe; serious incidents must be reported immediately.

TAIC investigates accidents and serious incidents; the CAA may also investigate for regulatory purposes.

The CAA's occurrence reporting system is confidential and encourages reporting of errors to improve safety.

Post-occurrence: preserve evidence, do not move the aircraft unless necessary, and cooperate with investigators.