NZ Optometry Registration flashcards
NZ Optometry Registration · Build recall with a focused review session.
32 cards. Read the term and the definition here. The deck at the top of this page is optional.
- Corneal endothelial function
- The endothelium actively pumps fluid out of the stroma to maintain corneal deturgescence. Endothelial cells do not regenerate; loss leads to corneal oedema and reduced transparency.
- Aqueous outflow pathways
- Conventional outflow passes through trabecular meshwork into Schlemm's canal and episcleral veins, accounting for most aqueous drainage. Uveoscleral outflow is the minor alternative route.
- Foveal avascular zone
- The central fovea lacks inner retinal layers and relies on choroidal circulation. This gives high acuity but makes it vulnerable to vascular and toxic injury.
- Spherical equivalent formula
- Spherical equivalent equals sphere plus half the cylinder power. It provides a single refractive estimate used for comparison and pre-operative planning.
- Duochrome test principle
- Red and green targets exploit longitudinal chromatic aberration. In myopia the red is clearer; in hyperopia the green is clearer. It refines spherical endpoint.
- Jackson cross-cylinder use
- With the handle aligned to the axis, it identifies astigmatism axis. With the handle at 45 degrees to the axis, it refines cylinder power.
- AC/A ratio calculation
- The heterophoria method divides the difference between near and distance deviation by the accommodative demand in dioptres. Normal is about 4-6 prism dioptres per dioptre.
- Convergence insufficiency features
- Exophoria greater at near than distance, reduced positive fusional vergence, receded near point of convergence, and symptoms with near work define convergence insufficiency.
- Hofstetter amplitude formula
- Minimum amplitude equals 15 minus 0.25 times age. Average amplitude equals 18.5 minus 0.3 times age. These give expected accommodative amplitude norms.
- Acute angle closure signs
- Mid-dilated fixed pupil, corneal oedema, shallow anterior chamber, and very high intraocular pressure. It requires urgent pressure lowering and referral for iridotomy.
- Bacterial keratitis management
- Contact lens wear is a major risk. Corneal infiltrate with epithelial defect needs culture if severe and fluoroquinolone treatment with prompt referral.
- Wet AMD referral
- Choroidal neovascularisation causes subretinal fluid or haemorrhage and sudden distortion. Urgent referral is needed for anti-VEGF treatment to limit vision loss.
- Dk/t oxygen benchmarks
- Dk/t measures oxygen transmissibility. Common minimum benchmarks are 24 for daily wear and 87 for extended wear in standard units.
- Scleral lens fitting
- The lens vaults the cornea and lands on the sclera with a fluid reservoir. Assess vault and landing zone with slit lamp or OCT and check for conjunctival compression.
- Orthokeratology risks
- Overnight rigid lenses reshape the corneal epithelium to reduce myopia. Baseline topography and follow-up are required, with vigilance for microbial keratitis.
- Topical anaesthetic use
- Proparacaine and oxybuprocaine act rapidly and briefly. They are used for tonometry and foreign body removal, not for chronic pain management.
- Timolol contraindications
- Topical beta-blockers reduce aqueous production but are contraindicated in asthma, heart block, and bradycardia. They can also cause ocular surface dryness.
- Prostaglandin analogue effects
- Latanoprost increases uveoscleral outflow to lower intraocular pressure. Side effects include iris darkening, eyelash growth, and periorbital fat atrophy.
- Leukocoria differential
- A white pupillary reflex may indicate retinoblastoma, congenital cataract, Coats disease, or persistent fetal vasculature. All require urgent referral.
- Cycloplegic retinoscopy
- Cyclopentolate relaxes accommodation in children. Retinoscopy under cycloplegia is the primary objective refraction method for paediatric patients.
- Low vision magnification
- Required magnification equals reference acuity divided by the patient's acuity. This guides selection of magnifiers, telescopes, and electronic video magnifiers.
- Giant cell arteritis red flags
- Age over 50 with headache, jaw claudication, and visual loss suggests giant cell arteritis. Urgent ESR and CRP testing plus high-dose steroids prevent bilateral blindness.
- Optic neuritis features
- Pain on eye movement, relative afferent pupillary defect, and colour desaturation suggest demyelinating optic neuritis. MRI and neurology referral are indicated.
- Diabetic retinopathy screening
- Annual retinal screening detects microaneurysms, haemorrhages, and neovascularisation. Good glycaemic control reduces progression, and refer for laser or anti-VEGF when indicated.
- Goldmann tonometry principle
- A 3.06 mm applanated area balances the force applied. Central corneal thickness affects readings; thin corneas underestimate and thick corneas overestimate pressure.
- Gonioscopy Shaffer grading
- Shaffer grades 0 to 4 describe angle width. Structures include Schwalbe's line, trabecular meshwork, scleral spur, and ciliary body band.
- Humphrey field reliability
- Fixation losses, false positives, and false negatives indicate test reliability. Unreliable fields should be repeated before clinical interpretation.
- HPCA Act regulation
- The Health Practitioners Competence Assurance Act 2003 regulates optometrists. The Optometrists and Dispensing Opticians Board sets standards and recertification requirements.
- Informed consent elements
- Consent requires understanding of the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives. Document consent, especially for invasive or research procedures.
- Privacy Act 2020
- The Health Information Privacy Code governs patient records. Disclosure requires consent or a legal obligation, and records must be accurate and secure.
- Cultural safety in practice
- Practitioners recognise their own culture and bias and their impact on care. Te Tiriti principles of partnership, participation, and protection guide equitable engagement.
- Teach-back technique
- The clinician asks the patient to explain the plan in their own words. This confirms health literacy and corrects misunderstandings before the patient leaves.