OMSB Obstetrics and Gynecology (OEOG) flashcards
OMSB Obstetrics and Gynecology (OEOG) · Build recall with a focused review session.
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- Naegele rule
- Estimated due date is calculated as the first day of the last menstrual period plus 280 days, or LMP minus 3 months plus 7 days. Ultrasound dating supersedes LMP when discrepancy is significant.
- Postpartum hemorrhage definition
- Cumulative blood loss of 1000 mL or more, or any blood loss accompanied by signs of hemodynamic instability, within 24 hours of birth. Uterine atony is the most common cause.
- Magnesium sulfate toxicity signs
- Loss of deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and oliguria signal magnesium toxicity. Calcium gluconate is the antidote, and serum levels are monitored when renal function is impaired.
- Preeclampsia severe features
- Blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg or higher, platelets under 100,000, transaminases twice normal, creatinine above 1.1 mg/dL, pulmonary edema, or persistent cerebral or visual symptoms.
- Antenatal corticosteroids
- Betamethasone 12 mg intramuscularly twice 24 hours apart, or dexamethasone 6 mg four times 12 hours apart, given between 24 and 34 weeks to reduce neonatal respiratory distress and mortality.
- Shoulder dystocia maneuvers
- Sequence begins with calling for help and McRoberts maneuver, then suprapubic pressure, then internal rotation such as the Rubin maneuver. The HELPERR mnemonic organizes the escalating steps.
- GBS prophylaxis antibiotic
- Intrapartum penicillin G is first-line for group B streptococcus prophylaxis. Cefazolin is used for penicillin allergy without anaphylaxis, and clindamycin only after confirmed susceptibility testing.
- PALM-COEIN classification
- System for abnormal uterine bleeding: structural causes are polyp, adenomyosis, leiomyoma, malignancy; nonstructural are coagulopathy, ovulatory dysfunction, endometrial, iatrogenic, and not yet classified.
- Postmenopausal bleeding evaluation
- Any bleeding after menopause requires evaluation. Endometrial thickness of 4 mm or less on transvaginal ultrasound has high negative predictive value, but tissue biopsy remains definitive.
- Amsel criteria
- Diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis requires three of four: homogeneous discharge, vaginal pH above 4.5, positive whiff test, and clue cells on microscopy.
- Emergency contraception options
- Copper IUD is most effective and can be placed up to 5 days after intercourse. Levonorgestrel is used within 72 hours, ulipristal acetate within 120 hours.
- Ectopic pregnancy discriminatory zone
- Beta-hCG level above which a normal intrauterine gestational sac should be visible on transvaginal ultrasound, typically 1500 to 3500 mIU/mL. Absence of a sac warrants close follow-up.
- Endometriosis diagnosis
- Laparoscopy with visualization and histologic confirmation is the gold standard. GnRH agonists and progestins provide symptom control by suppressing estrogen, but they do not eradicate disease.
- Endometrial cancer type I
- Endometrioid adenocarcinoma that is estrogen-driven and associated with obesity, diabetes, hypertension, and unopposed estrogen exposure. It generally carries a favorable prognosis.
- BRCA risk-reducing surgery
- Risk-reducing salpingo-oophorectomy is recommended for BRCA1 carriers by age 35 to 40 and BRCA2 carriers by age 40 to 45, after childbearing is complete.
- Ovarian cancer CA-125
- CA-125 is useful for monitoring treatment response and detecting recurrence, but it lacks sensitivity and specificity for population screening. It can be elevated by many benign conditions.
- Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia treatment
- Low-risk disease is treated with single-agent methotrexate or actinomycin D. High-risk disease with a WHO score of 7 or more receives multiagent EMA-CO chemotherapy.
- Sentinel node biopsy vulvar cancer
- Appropriate for unifocal vulvar squamous cell carcinoma 4 cm or smaller with clinically negative groin nodes. It reduces the morbidity of full inguinofemoral lymphadenectomy.
- Cell-free DNA screening
- Maternal blood test analyzing placental DNA for trisomy 21, 18, and 13. It has the highest detection rate among screening tests but is not diagnostic; invasive testing confirms positive results.
- RhD immune globulin timing
- Anti-D immune globulin is given at 28 weeks gestation and within 72 hours of delivery of an RhD-positive infant, plus after amniocentesis, miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, or abdominal trauma.
- Category III fetal heart tracing
- Absent baseline variability with recurrent late or variable decelerations, bradycardia, or a sinusoidal pattern. It indicates abnormal fetal status and prompts immediate evaluation or delivery.
- Oligohydramnios definition
- Amniotic fluid index of 5 cm or less, or deepest vertical pocket under 2 cm. It is associated with fetal renal anomalies, placental insufficiency, and prolonged membrane rupture.
- Twin-twin transfusion syndrome
- Monochorionic twin pregnancy with oligohydramnios in one sac and polyhydramnios in the other due to unbalanced placental vascular anastomoses. Fetoscopic laser ablation is definitive treatment.
- Gestational diabetes diagnostic thresholds
- On 75 g oral glucose tolerance test: fasting 92 mg/dL or higher, 1-hour 180 mg/dL or higher, or 2-hour 153 mg/dL or higher. A single abnormal value establishes the diagnosis.
- Infertility evaluation timing
- Evaluation begins after 12 months of regular unprotected intercourse. It starts at 6 months when the woman is 35 or older, and immediately with oligomenorrhea or known reproductive pathology.
- Rotterdam PCOS criteria
- Diagnosis requires two of three: oligo-ovulation or anovulation, clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound with 12 or more follicles or ovarian volume above 10 mL.
- Letrozole versus clomiphene
- Letrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, produces higher live birth rates than clomiphene citrate in women with polycystic ovary syndrome and is increasingly used as first-line ovulation induction.
- Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
- Complication of controlled ovarian stimulation peaking 5 to 9 days after hCG trigger. Features include ovarian enlargement, ascites, hemoconcentration, and oliguria; severe cases need hospitalization.
- Primary ovarian insufficiency
- Loss of ovarian function before age 40, confirmed by FSH above 40 mIU/mL on two occasions 4 weeks apart. Estrogen replacement is required for bone and cardiovascular health.
- POP-Q stage II
- Pelvic organ prolapse quantification stage in which the leading point descends between 1 cm above and 1 cm below the hymenal remnant. Stage III extends beyond the hymen.
- Midurethral sling
- Synthetic mesh tape placed under the midurethra to treat stress urinary incontinence. It is the most commonly performed anti-incontinence surgery; risks include mesh erosion and de novo urgency.
- Urodynamic stress incontinence
- Involuntary leakage of urine during filling cystometry when intra-abdominal pressure rises, in the absence of a detrusor contraction. It confirms the diagnosis before surgical correction.