PCCE Paralegal flashcards
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32 cards. Read the term and the definition here. The deck at the top of this page is optional.
- Rule 12(b)(6) motion
- A pretrial motion asserting the complaint fails to state a claim upon which relief can be granted; the court tests the legal sufficiency of the allegations, not their truth.
- Res judicata
- Claim preclusion barring a second suit on the same claim between the same parties or their privies after a final judgment on the merits.
- Summary judgment standard
- Judgment without trial when pleadings, discovery, and affidavits show no genuine dispute of material fact and the movant is entitled to judgment as a matter of law.
- Removal deadline
- A defendant generally must file the notice of removal within 30 days after receiving the initial pleading that sets forth a removable claim, under 28 U.S.C. 1446(b).
- Statute of Frauds categories
- Common law writing requirements covering promises about marriage, contracts exceeding one year, land, executor liability, goods of $500 or more, and suretyship.
- Mailbox rule
- Under common law, an acceptance is effective on dispatch, while a revocation of an offer is effective only when the offeree receives it.
- Perfect tender rule
- A UCC rule letting a buyer reject goods that fail in any respect to conform to the contract, subject to the seller's right to cure the nonconformity.
- Expectation damages
- A contract remedy putting the injured party where performance would have: loss in value plus other loss, minus costs avoided and losses avoided.
- Business judgment rule
- A presumption that directors acted on an informed basis, in good faith, and in the honest belief the action served the corporation's best interests.
- Piercing the corporate veil
- Disregarding limited liability when owners used the entity as an alter ego, undercapitalized it, or committed fraud, making personal assets reachable by creditors.
- Charging order
- A creditor's remedy against a debtor's LLC membership interest that grants distribution rights only, without voting or management authority in the company.
- Corporate opportunity doctrine
- A fiduciary duty barring directors and officers from taking a business opportunity belonging to the corporation unless they disclose it and the corporation declines.
- Miranda trigger
- The warning requirement applies only when a suspect is in custody and subjected to interrogation by law enforcement; if either element is missing, no warning is required.
- Double jeopardy attaches
- Protection against a second prosecution for the same offense begins when the jury is sworn or, in a bench trial, when the first witness is sworn.
- Exclusionary rule
- Evidence obtained through an unconstitutional search or seizure is generally inadmissible in the prosecution's case-in-chief, subject to exceptions like inevitable discovery and attenuation.
- Specific intent
- A mens rea requiring the defendant to consciously intend the prohibited result or conduct, distinguishing offenses like burglary and attempt from general intent crimes.
- Per stirpes distribution
- An intestate inheritance method dividing a deceased descendant's share among that person's own descendants, so each family branch receives an equal portion.
- Holographic will
- A will written in the testator's own handwriting and signed by the testator, valid without witnesses in the states that recognize this form.
- Spendthrift trust
- A trust provision preventing a beneficiary from voluntarily assigning distributions and shielding trust assets from most of the beneficiary's creditors.
- Elective share
- A statutory portion of a deceased spouse's estate that the survivor may claim instead of taking under the will, commonly one-third to one-half.
- Best interests of the child
- The governing custody standard weighing factors such as stability, parental fitness, the child's needs, and sometimes the child's preference, rather than parental fault.
- UCCJEA home state
- The state where the child lived with a parent for at least six consecutive months before the custody proceeding, which has priority to decide custody.
- Equitable distribution
- A divorce property division method used outside community property states that allocates marital property fairly under statutory factors without requiring a 50/50 split.
- Community property
- A marital property doctrine in a minority of states treating most earnings and acquisitions during marriage as jointly owned, each spouse holding one-half at divorce.
- Race-notice recording statute
- A recording act protecting a later purchaser who takes without notice of a prior unrecorded interest and records before that prior interest is recorded.
- Adverse possession elements
- Actual, open and notorious, exclusive, hostile, and continuous possession of another's land for the statutory period, which can ripen into title.
- Quitclaim deed
- A conveyance transferring whatever interest the grantor holds with no covenants of title, leaving the grantee to bear the risk of defects.
- Implied warranty of habitability
- A landlord's nonwaivable promise that residential premises meet basic health and safety standards, breach of which supports repair-and-deduct or rent withholding remedies.
- Res ipsa loquitur
- An inference of negligence permitted when the instrumentality was in the defendant's exclusive control and the injury would not ordinarily occur absent negligence.
- Negligence per se
- A statute violation establishing breach when the plaintiff belongs to the class the statute protects and the harm is the type the statute was meant to prevent.
- Modified comparative negligence
- A system reducing a plaintiff's recovery by their percentage of fault and barring recovery entirely when that fault reaches or exceeds 50 or 51 percent.
- Proximate cause
- A causation element limiting liability to harms within the risk that made the conduct negligent, excluding unforeseeable superseding causes that break the chain.