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Question 1Medications
Which DEA schedule contains substances with a high potential for abuse that currently have no accepted medical use in the United States?
- Schedule V
- Schedule I Correct answer.
- Schedule III
- Schedule II
Explanation
Schedule I substances such as heroin and LSD have a high abuse potential and no currently accepted medical use, so they cannot be prescribed. Schedules II through V all include drugs with accepted medical uses, with abuse potential decreasing as the schedule number rises.
Question 2Medications
How should unopened vials of insulin be stored before use?
- At room temperature above 30 degrees C
- In the refrigerator at 2 to 8 degrees C Correct answer.
- In direct sunlight
- In a freezer at -20 degrees C
Explanation
Unopened insulin vials are kept refrigerated between 2 and 8 degrees C until first use, which preserves potency through the labeled expiration date. Insulin is a protein and is destroyed by freezing, excessive heat, and light exposure.
Question 3Medications
Which agent is the generic name for the brand product Coumadin?
- Apixaban
- Enoxaparin
- Clopidogrel
- Warfarin Correct answer.
Explanation
Coumadin is the brand name for warfarin, an oral vitamin K antagonist anticoagulant. Recognizing brand-generic pairs helps prevent dispensing errors and supports interchange counseling.
Question 4Medications
Which dosage form is absorbed in a way that avoids first-pass hepatic metabolism?
- Chewed tablet
- Enteric-coated tablet
- Sublingual tablet Correct answer.
- Oral solution
Explanation
A sublingual tablet dissolves under the tongue and is absorbed into the venous plexus, entering the systemic circulation without passing through the liver first. Swallowed dosage forms are absorbed from the GI tract into the portal vein and undergo first-pass metabolism.
Question 5Medications
A patient beginning therapy with a monoamine oxidase inhibitor should be counseled to avoid which food?
- Plain pasta
- Aged cheese Correct answer.
- White rice
- Apple juice
Explanation
Aged cheeses are high in tyramine, which is normally broken down by monoamine oxidase. When that enzyme is inhibited, tyramine accumulates and can trigger a hypertensive crisis. Fresh, low-tyramine foods are appropriate.
Question 6Medications
Which agent is used as the antidote for heparin overdose?
- Protamine Correct answer.
- Flumazenil
- Vitamin K
- Naloxone
Explanation
Protamine sulfate binds heparin directly and neutralizes its anticoagulant effect. It is the standard reversal agent for unfractionated heparin, though it only partially reverses low molecular weight heparins.
Question 7Medications
A drug has an elimination half-life of 6 hours. Approximately what percentage of the original dose remains in the body 24 hours after administration?
- 25%
- 6.25% Correct answer.
- 12.5%
- 50%
Explanation
Twenty-four hours represents four half-lives (24 divided by 6), and the fraction remaining is one-half raised to the fourth power, or 1/16. That equals 6.25% of the original amount.
Question 8Medications
Which of these products appears on the ISMP list of high-alert medications?
- Acetaminophen 500 mg capsule
- Insulin 100 units/mL vial Correct answer.
- Ferrous sulfate 325 mg
- Docusate sodium 100 mg
Explanation
Insulin is a high-alert medication because errors in dose or formulation can cause serious harm, so it requires independent double checks and concentrated formulation safeguards. Common non-high-alert products such as acetaminophen, docusate, and ferrous sulfate do not carry the same risk profile.
Question 9Medications
A child weighing 20 kg is prescribed 15 mg/kg/day of a drug divided into three equal doses. What is the amount of each dose?
- 100 mg Correct answer.
- 50 mg
- 150 mg
- 300 mg
Explanation
The total daily dose is 15 mg/kg multiplied by 20 kg, or 300 mg per day. Dividing that daily total by three doses gives 100 mg per dose.
Question 10Medications
A patient takes lisinopril daily. Which new prescription would represent therapeutic duplication requiring pharmacist follow-up?
- Levothyroxine
- Atorvastatin
- Metformin
- Losartan Correct answer.
Explanation
Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor and losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker; using both blocks the same renin-angiotensin system pathway and risks hyperkalemia and renal injury. Therapeutic duplication is identified by matching mechanism rather than by matching drug names.
Question 11Medications
A persistent dry cough is a characteristic adverse effect of which drug class?
- Beta blockers
- Loop diuretics
- HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
- ACE inhibitors Correct answer.
Explanation
ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I and also reduce bradykinin breakdown, and accumulated bradykinin is thought to cause the dry cough. Switching to an angiotensin receptor blocker usually resolves it because ARBs do not affect bradykinin.
Question 12Medications
A patient should be warned to avoid large amounts of grapefruit juice while taking which medication?
- Levothyroxine
- Metformin
- Simvastatin Correct answer.
- Amoxicillin
Explanation
Simvastatin is metabolized mainly by CYP3A4, and grapefruit juice inhibits that enzyme, raising statin concentrations and the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Counseling should include avoiding grapefruit or choosing a statin with a different metabolic pathway.
Question 13Medications
Which medication is contraindicated during pregnancy because of a well-established teratogenic risk?
- Acetaminophen
- Penicillin V
- Insulin
- Isotretinoin Correct answer.
Explanation
Isotretinoin causes severe birth defects, so its prescribing program requires pregnancy testing, documented contraception, and regular monitoring before and during therapy. Acetaminophen, penicillin, and insulin are commonly used in pregnancy when clinically indicated.
Question 14Medications
Which agent reverses the sedative effects of a benzodiazepine overdose?
- Deferoxamine
- Acetylcysteine
- Flumazenil Correct answer.
- Naloxone
Explanation
Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can reverse benzodiazepine-induced sedation. It must be used cautiously because it can precipitate seizures in patients who are benzodiazepine dependent.
Question 15Medications
Which agent is the specific antidote for acetaminophen overdose?
- Deferoxamine
- Glucagon
- Acetylcysteine Correct answer.
- Leucovorin calcium
Explanation
Acetylcysteine replenishes glutathione stores and detoxifies the reactive metabolite NAPQI that accumulates when acetaminophen overwhelms normal metabolic pathways. It is most effective when administered soon after ingestion.
Question 16Medications
How should sublingual nitroglycerin tablets be stored between uses?
- Stored in the freezer
- Repackaged into a weekly pill box
- Kept in a clear plastic bag
- Kept in its original dark vial Correct answer.
Explanation
Sublingual nitroglycerin is volatile and degrades with exposure to light, heat, and moisture, so it should remain in the original tightly closed dark glass container with the cotton removed. It should be replaced about every six months after opening.
Question 17Medications
Which medication, when added to a stable warfarin regimen, is most likely to raise the INR?
- Cholestyramine
- Rifampin
- Metronidazole Correct answer.
- St. John's wort
Explanation
Metronidazole inhibits CYP2C9, the enzyme that metabolizes warfarin, so warfarin levels rise and the INR increases, raising bleeding risk. Enzyme inducers and binding resins tend to lower warfarin effect instead.
Question 18Medications
An order reads 1,000 mL of fluid over 8 hours using tubing with a drop factor of 15 drops/mL. What is the correct flow rate in drops per minute?
- 31 drops/min Correct answer.
- 15 drops/min
- 42 drops/min
- 21 drops/min
Explanation
Multiply the volume by the drop factor, then divide by the time in minutes: 1,000 mL times 15 drops/mL equals 15,000 drops, and 8 hours equals 480 minutes. The result is about 31 drops per minute.
Question 19Medications
Which pair of drug names is a recognized look-alike/sound-alike combination that requires special caution?
- Hydralazine and hydroxyzine Correct answer.
- Amoxicillin and amoxicillin/clavulanate
- Metformin and glipizide
- Atorvastatin and rosuvastatin
Explanation
Hydralazine and hydroxyzine have similar spellings and pronunciation but completely different indications, one for blood pressure and one for allergy or anxiety. Confusion between them can lead to serious dosing errors, so tall-man lettering and auxiliary labels are used.
Question 20Medications
A patient starting long-term morphine therapy for cancer pain should receive which medication prophylactically?
- An antihistamine
- A stimulant laxative Correct answer.
- An antidiarrheal
- A proton pump inhibitor
Explanation
Opioids slow GI motility and routinely cause constipation that does not resolve with continued use, so a scheduled stimulant laxative is started at the same time as the opioid. Diarrhea is not an expected effect that requires prophylaxis.
Question 21Medications
Why is metformin commonly held around a procedure that uses intravenous iodinated contrast media?
- Lactic acidosis Correct answer.
- Hypoglycemia
- Stevens-Johnson syndrome
- Hyperkalemia
Explanation
Iodinated contrast can cause acute kidney injury, which impairs metformin clearance and allows the drug to accumulate, raising the risk of lactic acidosis. Metformin is typically held at the time of the study and restarted after renal function is confirmed to be acceptable.
Question 22Medications
A patient prescribed which antibiotic should be counseled about the risk of tendinitis and tendon rupture?
- Amoxicillin
- Azithromycin
- Cephalexin
- Ciprofloxacin Correct answer.
Explanation
Fluoroquinolones such as ciprofloxacin carry a boxed warning for tendinitis and tendon rupture, especially in older adults and patients on corticosteroids. Patients should report tendon pain and stop the drug pending evaluation.
Question 23Medications
Which over-the-counter product should a patient on warfarin be advised to avoid for routine pain relief?
- Acetaminophen
- Diphenhydramine
- Docusate
- Ibuprofen Correct answer.
Explanation
NSAIDs such as ibuprofen inhibit platelet function and irritate the gastric mucosa, and combined with warfarin they substantially increase bleeding risk. Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic at recommended doses, with monitoring of the INR.
Question 24Medications
How should levothyroxine be administered for best absorption?
- Together with a calcium supplement
- Immediately after breakfast
- 30 to 60 minutes before breakfast Correct answer.
- At bedtime with a glass of milk
Explanation
Levothyroxine is taken on an empty stomach 30 to 60 minutes before breakfast because food, calcium, and iron reduce its absorption. Separating the dose from those products by at least four hours keeps thyroid hormone levels stable.
Question 25Medications
Which insulin product has the most rapid onset of action?
- Insulin glargine
- Insulin lispro Correct answer.
- Regular insulin
- NPH insulin
Explanation
Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting analog with an onset of roughly 15 minutes, so it is injected just before meals. Regular insulin begins working in about 30 minutes, while NPH and glargine are intermediate and long-acting basal products.
Question 26Medications
Which of these medications is classified as a proton pump inhibitor?
- Metoclopramide
- Ranitidine
- Ondansetron
- Omeprazole Correct answer.
Explanation
Proton pump inhibitors reduce gastric acid secretion by irreversibly blocking the hydrogen-potassium ATPase pump in parietal cells. Omeprazole is the prototype PPI. Ranitidine is an H2 receptor antagonist, while ondansetron and metoclopramide have antiemetic mechanisms.
Question 27Medications
Which medication is a short-acting beta-2 adrenergic agonist used for rapid relief of bronchospasm?
- Fluticasone
- Tiotropium
- Albuterol Correct answer.
- Montelukast
Explanation
Short-acting beta-2 agonists relax bronchial smooth muscle within minutes and are used as rescue therapy for acute asthma symptoms. Albuterol is the standard short-acting beta-2 agonist. The other agents are controllers or long-acting bronchodilators.
Question 28Medications
Which medication is a loop diuretic?
- Spironolactone
- Hydrochlorothiazide
- Furosemide Correct answer.
- Acetazolamide
Explanation
Loop diuretics inhibit the sodium-potassium-2 chloride cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. Furosemide is the prototype loop diuretic. Spironolactone is potassium-sparing, hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide, and acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.
Question 29Medications
Which agent is the preferred antidote for acute opioid overdose?
- Flumazenil
- Atropine
- Naloxone Correct answer.
- Naltrexone
Explanation
Naloxone is a short-acting opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression. Naltrexone is a longer-acting oral antagonist used mainly for maintenance treatment of dependence, not acute overdose. Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines, and atropine is an anticholinergic.
Question 30Medications
Which of these medications is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance?
- Oxycodone Correct answer.
- Lorazepam
- Alprazolam
- Phenobarbital
Explanation
Schedule II includes drugs with high abuse potential and accepted medical use but severe dependence liability. Oxycodone is a Schedule II opioid. Alprazolam, lorazepam, and phenobarbital are Schedule IV controlled substances.
Question 31Medications
Which auxiliary label is most appropriate for an oral suspension?
- Take on an empty stomach
- Do not take with dairy
- Shake well before use Correct answer.
- For external use only
Explanation
Oral suspensions contain dispersed drug particles that settle during storage, so shaking resuspends them and ensures a uniform dose. The other labels apply only to specific products and are not universal for suspensions.
Question 32Medications
Which medication is an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor?
- Amlodipine
- Losartan
- Atorvastatin Correct answer.
- Atenolol
Explanation
Statins inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, the rate-limiting enzyme in hepatic cholesterol synthesis. Atorvastatin belongs to this class. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, atenolol is a beta blocker, and losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker.
Question 33Medications
Which medication belongs to the benzodiazepine class?
- Haloperidol
- Lorazepam Correct answer.
- Sertraline
- Bupropion
Explanation
Benzodiazepines enhance inhibitory neurotransmission at GABA-A receptors. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and sedation. Bupropion is an atypical antidepressant, sertraline is an SSRI, and haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic.
Question 34Medications
Which herbal supplement is known to induce CYP enzymes and can reduce the anticoagulant effect of warfarin?
- St. John's wort Correct answer.
- Garlic
- Valerian
- Ginkgo biloba
Explanation
St. John's wort is a potent inducer of CYP3A4 and P-glycoprotein, which can lower warfarin concentrations and reduce the INR. Ginkgo and garlic are more often associated with additive bleeding risk rather than enzyme induction.
Question 35Medications
A patient taking metformin should have which laboratory parameter monitored periodically?
- Serum amylase
- INR
- Renal function Correct answer.
- Liver enzymes
Explanation
Metformin is eliminated renally, and reduced kidney function can lead to drug accumulation and lactic acidosis. The estimated glomerular filtration rate guides whether metformin should be continued, reduced, or avoided.
Question 36Medications
Which electrolyte abnormality increases the risk of digoxin toxicity?
- Hypokalemia Correct answer.
- Hypocalcemia
- Hypernatremia
- Hyperkalemia
Explanation
Digoxin binds to the sodium-potassium ATPase and competes with potassium. Low serum potassium increases digoxin binding and the risk of toxicity, so potassium should be maintained in the normal range.
Question 37Medications
How should levothyroxine be administered for optimal absorption?
- At bedtime with a light snack
- Fasting, 30 to 60 minutes before breakfast Correct answer.
- Together with a calcium supplement
- With the morning meal and coffee
Explanation
Food, calcium, and iron can reduce levothyroxine absorption. Administering it on an empty stomach 30 to 60 minutes before breakfast provides the most consistent absorption.
Question 38Medications
Which medication is most commonly associated with photosensitivity reactions?
- Doxycycline Correct answer.
- Metformin
- Lisinopril
- Atorvastatin
Explanation
Tetracyclines, including doxycycline, can accumulate in skin and cause phototoxic reactions after sun exposure. Patients should use sunscreen and protective clothing. The other medications are not classic photosensitizers.
Question 39Medications
Which medication carries a boxed warning for tardive dyskinesia?
- Ondansetron
- Metoclopramide Correct answer.
- Omeprazole
- Loperamide
Explanation
Metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonist that can cause tardive dyskinesia, especially with prolonged use. The FDA requires a boxed warning describing this irreversible movement disorder.
Question 40Medications
A patient taking lithium should be counseled to maintain consistent intake of which dietary substance?
- Iron
- Potassium
- Sodium Correct answer.
- Calcium
Explanation
Sodium and lithium compete for renal reabsorption. A low-sodium diet increases lithium retention and toxicity risk, while large sodium loads can lower lithium levels. Consistent sodium intake helps stabilize lithium concentrations.
Question 41Medications
Which combination is most associated with severe hypotension and should be avoided?
- Levothyroxine and calcium
- Sildenafil and nitroglycerin Correct answer.
- Metformin and alcohol
- Amoxicillin and food
Explanation
Sildenafil and nitrates both produce vasodilation through the nitric oxide pathway. Combining them can cause life-threatening hypotension, so nitrates are contraindicated with PDE5 inhibitors.
Question 42Medications
Which antipsychotic requires routine monitoring of absolute neutrophil count because of agranulocytosis risk?
- Clozapine Correct answer.
- Quetiapine
- Olanzapine
- Risperidone
Explanation
Clozapine can cause severe neutropenia and agranulocytosis. A risk evaluation and mitigation strategy requires regular absolute neutrophil count monitoring to detect this adverse effect early.
Question 43Medications
Which antibiotic should be taken on an empty stomach because food and dairy products reduce its absorption?
- Tetracycline Correct answer.
- Amoxicillin
- Azithromycin
- Cephalexin
Explanation
Tetracycline chelates with calcium, iron, magnesium, and aluminum, forming complexes that are poorly absorbed. It should be taken on an empty stomach and separated from dairy products and mineral supplements.
Question 44Medications
Which insulin product is classified as long-acting?
- Insulin glargine Correct answer.
- Insulin lispro
- Insulin regular
- Insulin aspart
Explanation
Insulin glargine forms microprecipitates after injection and provides a relatively steady basal insulin effect over approximately 24 hours. Lispro and aspart are rapid-acting, and regular insulin is short-acting.
Question 45Medications
Which medication is a direct oral anticoagulant?
- Heparin
- Warfarin
- Clopidogrel
- Apixaban Correct answer.
Explanation
Apixaban directly inhibits factor Xa and is classified as a direct oral anticoagulant. Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist, heparin works indirectly through antithrombin, and clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent.
Question 46Medications
A patient with an estimated glomerular filtration rate of 25 mL/min/1.73 m² is prescribed metformin. What is the most appropriate action?
- Avoid metformin Correct answer.
- Increase the dose
- Continue the current dose
- Reduce the dose by half
Explanation
Metformin is contraindicated when the eGFR is below 30 mL/min/1.73 m² because reduced clearance increases the risk of lactic acidosis. Alternative antihyperglycemic therapy should be selected.
Question 47Medications
A patient taking warfarin has an INR of 8.5 and no signs of bleeding. Which intervention is most appropriate?
- Hold warfarin and give oral vitamin K Correct answer.
- Start heparin therapy
- Continue warfarin and recheck in one week
- Administer fresh frozen plasma
Explanation
For a markedly elevated INR without bleeding, warfarin should be held and low-dose oral vitamin K given to lower the INR. Fresh frozen plasma is reserved for serious or life-threatening bleeding.
Question 48Medications
Which medication is contraindicated in a patient with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency?
- Primaquine Correct answer.
- Atorvastatin
- Amoxicillin
- Metformin
Explanation
Primaquine is an oxidant drug that can cause severe hemolytic anemia in patients with G6PD deficiency. Other oxidant agents such as certain sulfonamides and dapsone should also be avoided.
Question 49Medications
Which medication is most likely to precipitate serotonin syndrome when combined with an SSRI?
- Atorvastatin
- Aspirin
- Tramadol Correct answer.
- Metformin
Explanation
Tramadol inhibits serotonin reuptake in addition to its opioid activity. Combining it with an SSRI increases serotonergic stimulation and the risk of serotonin syndrome.
Question 50Medications
Which medication requires therapeutic drug monitoring because of a narrow therapeutic index?
- Omeprazole
- Vancomycin Correct answer.
- Loratadine
- Amoxicillin
Explanation
Vancomycin has a narrow therapeutic window and can cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Serum trough or AUC monitoring is used to keep concentrations in the effective but safe range.