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Dental Hygienist Licensing Exam practice questions

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Question 1Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Which primary tooth is typically the first to erupt into the oral cavity?

  1. Mandibular central incisor Correct answer.
  2. Maxillary canine
  3. Mandibular first molar
  4. Maxillary central incisor

Explanation

Primary mandibular central incisors usually emerge first, at about 6 to 10 months of age. Eruption timing varies, but the mandibular central incisor pair is the earliest primary dentition to appear.

Question 2Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

The principal crystalline mineral component of enamel is:

  1. Calcium sulfate
  2. Hydroxyapatite Correct answer.
  3. Octacalcium phosphate
  4. Collagen type I

Explanation

Enamel is approximately 96% mineral by weight, and that mineral is mainly hydroxyapatite. Its high mineral content gives enamel its hardness and radiopacity.

Question 3Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Which type of dentin forms in response to a mild, slow stimulus and has fewer and more irregular tubules?

  1. Circumpulpal dentin
  2. Primary dentin
  3. Mantle dentin
  4. Reactionary dentin Correct answer.

Explanation

Reactionary dentin is tertiary dentin produced by surviving odontoblasts after a mild stimulus. It is deposited at the pulp-dentin interface and tends to be less regular than primary dentin.

Question 4Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Which principal fiber group of the periodontal ligament best resists intrusive forces on the tooth?

  1. Alveolar crest fibers
  2. Transseptal fibers
  3. Oblique fibers Correct answer.
  4. Horizontal fibers

Explanation

Oblique fibers run from cementum apically to alveolar bone and are oriented to resist axial or intrusive loading. They are the most numerous principal fiber group in the periodontal ligament.

Question 5Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

The primary buffering system of resting saliva is:

  1. Urea
  2. Protein
  3. Phosphate
  4. Bicarbonate Correct answer.

Explanation

Bicarbonate is the major buffer in saliva and helps neutralize acids produced by plaque bacteria. Its concentration rises with salivary flow rate, improving buffering after stimulation.

Question 6Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Which microorganism is most strongly associated with the initiation of smooth-surface dental caries?

  1. Lactobacillus acidophilus
  2. Streptococcus mutans Correct answer.
  3. Actinomyces viscosus
  4. Porphyromonas gingivalis

Explanation

Streptococcus mutans adheres to the acquired pellicle, produces glucans from sucrose, and is highly acidogenic. These traits make it a key initiator of smooth-surface caries.

Question 7Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

The principal cariostatic effect of topical fluoride is:

  1. Enhanced remineralization Correct answer.
  2. Killing all plaque bacteria
  3. Increasing salivary flow
  4. Bleaching enamel stains

Explanation

Topical fluoride promotes remineralization and reduces demineralization by forming fluorapatite and inhibiting bacterial acid production. These effects occur at the tooth-plaque interface.

Question 8Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

In established chronic gingivitis, the predominant inflammatory cell type in the connective tissue infiltrate is:

  1. Plasma cells Correct answer.
  2. Macrophages
  3. Neutrophils
  4. Mast cells

Explanation

The established gingival lesion is dominated by plasma cells and lymphocytes, reflecting a chronic humoral immune response. Neutrophils are more prominent in the early acute response.

Question 9Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

How many cusps does a typical permanent maxillary first molar have?

  1. Four Correct answer.
  2. Three
  3. Two
  4. Five

Explanation

A typical maxillary first molar has four main cusps: mesiobuccal, distobuccal, mesiolingual, and distolingual. The cusp of Carabelli, when present, is an accessory fifth cusp.

Question 10Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

During lateral excursion, canine guidance is characterized by:

  1. Contact of non-working posterior teeth
  2. Contact of all posterior teeth on the working side
  3. Posterior disclusion by the working canine Correct answer.
  4. Bilateral balanced posterior contacts

Explanation

In canine guidance, the working-side canine contacts during lateral movement and discludes the posterior teeth on both sides. This reduces lateral forces on posterior teeth.

Question 11Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

The acquired enamel pellicle is best described as:

  1. An adsorbed salivary glycoprotein film Correct answer.
  2. A mineralized deposit of bacterial origin
  3. An inflammatory exudate from the sulcus
  4. Food debris retained within fissures

Explanation

The acquired pellicle forms rapidly as salivary glycoproteins adsorb to the enamel surface. It is not mineralized and serves as a substrate for bacterial adhesion.

Question 12Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Supragingival calculus is primarily composed of:

  1. Dense microbial biofilm only
  2. Food remnants and debris
  3. Mineralized plaque Correct answer.
  4. Organic matrix with sparse mineral

Explanation

Calculus is mineralized dental plaque, with calcium phosphate salts deposited among the organic matrix and microorganisms. Supragingival calculus is generally less dense than subgingival calculus.

Question 13Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Which cell is primarily responsible for bone resorption in periodontitis?

  1. Osteoblast
  2. Fibroblast
  3. Cementoblast
  4. Osteoclast Correct answer.

Explanation

Osteoclasts are multinucleated cells that resorb bone by secreting acid and proteolytic enzymes. In periodontitis, inflammatory cytokines promote osteoclast activity and alveolar bone loss.

Question 14Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

The sensory supply to the teeth and periodontium of the mandible is provided by which division of the trigeminal nerve?

  1. Ophthalmic division
  2. Mandibular division Correct answer.
  3. Maxillary division
  4. Facial division

Explanation

The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve supplies sensation to mandibular teeth and associated tissues. The maxillary division supplies the upper teeth, while the ophthalmic division supplies the upper face and eye region.

Question 15Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

The addition of epinephrine to a local anesthetic solution primarily produces:

  1. Increases the pH of the anesthetic solution
  2. Speeds onset by raising the pKa of the base
  3. Prevents allergic reactions to the anesthetic
  4. Vasoconstriction and prolonged anesthesia Correct answer.

Explanation

Epinephrine is a vasoconstrictor that reduces local blood flow, slowing anesthetic absorption and prolonging its effect. It also improves hemostasis in the injection area.

Question 16Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Which nutrient deficiency impairs collagen synthesis and predisposes to gingival bleeding?

  1. Vitamin C Correct answer.
  2. Vitamin A
  3. Vitamin D
  4. Vitamin B12

Explanation

Vitamin C is required for hydroxylation of proline and lysine during collagen synthesis. Deficiency can cause defective collagen, gingival bleeding, and delayed wound healing.

Question 17Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

The first step in gingival wound healing after periodontal surgery is:

  1. Collagen deposition by fibroblasts
  2. Epithelialization of the wound margin
  3. Angiogenesis in granulation tissue
  4. Formation of a blood clot Correct answer.

Explanation

Hemostasis and clot formation occur immediately after surgery and provide the provisional matrix for healing. Epithelialization, granulation tissue, and collagen deposition follow in later phases.

Question 18Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

The predominant immunoglobulin in whole saliva that protects mucosal surfaces is:

  1. IgG
  2. IgM
  3. IgA Correct answer.
  4. IgE

Explanation

Secretory IgA is the main immunoglobulin in saliva and mucosal secretions. It inhibits microbial adhesion and neutralizes antigens at mucosal surfaces.

Question 19Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Enamel is formed from which embryonic tissue layer?

  1. Endoderm
  2. Ectoderm Correct answer.
  3. Neural crest
  4. Mesoderm

Explanation

The enamel organ arises from oral ectoderm, and ameloblasts differentiate from this epithelial source. Dentin and pulp, by contrast, arise largely from neural crest-derived ectomesenchyme.

Question 20Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

A tooth with an invagination of enamel and dentin into the pulp chamber is called:

  1. Dens evaginatus (talon cusp)
  2. Taurodontism with elongated pulp
  3. Dens invaginatus Correct answer.
  4. Gemination of a single tooth germ

Explanation

Dens invaginatus results from infolding of the enamel organ before mineralization, producing a channel lined by enamel and dentin. It commonly affects maxillary lateral incisors.

Question 21Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Which bacterium is a key pathogen in chronic periodontitis and is classified as a red complex organism?

  1. Actinomyces odontolyticus
  2. Streptococcus sanguinis
  3. Porphyromonas gingivalis Correct answer.
  4. Veillonella parvula

Explanation

Porphyromonas gingivalis is one of the red complex organisms strongly associated with chronic periodontitis. It produces proteases and virulence factors that promote tissue destruction.

Question 22Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

The critical pH at which enamel begins to demineralize in the presence of plaque is approximately:

  1. 6.8
  2. 4.0
  3. 7.4
  4. 5.5 Correct answer.

Explanation

Enamel demineralization begins near pH 5.5 when plaque acids lower the local pH. This critical value varies with calcium and phosphate concentrations but is commonly taught as 5.5.

Question 23Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Acellular extrinsic fiber cementum is primarily found in which region of the root?

  1. Cervical and middle root Correct answer.
  2. Apical third of the root
  3. Furcation region of molars
  4. Coronal enamel surface

Explanation

Acellular extrinsic fiber cementum covers the cervical and middle portions of the root and contains Sharpey fibers for periodontal ligament attachment. Cellular cementum is more prominent apically.

Question 24Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

The temporomandibular joint is best described as:

  1. Synovial joint with a fibrocartilage disk Correct answer.
  2. A simple ball-and-socket synovial joint
  3. A fibrous synarthrosis with sutural ligaments
  4. A secondary cartilaginous symphysis

Explanation

The temporomandibular joint is a synovial joint with a fibrocartilaginous articular disk that divides it into upper and lower compartments. It permits both hinge and gliding movements.

Question 25Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

A patient taking a nonselective beta-blocker may have a reduced response to which component of a local anesthetic cartridge?

  1. Epinephrine Correct answer.
  2. Sodium metabisulfite
  3. Lidocaine
  4. Sodium chloride

Explanation

Nonselective beta-blockers block beta-adrenergic receptors and can blunt the cardiovascular effects of epinephrine. This interaction may also produce an exaggerated pressor response from unopposed alpha stimulation.

Question 26Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

How many teeth are present in a complete primary dentition?

  1. 24
  2. 32
  3. 28
  4. 20 Correct answer.

Explanation

A complete primary dentition contains five teeth per quadrant - two incisors, one canine, and two molars - for a total of 20. The permanent dentition replaces these and adds premolars and third molars to reach 32 teeth. A count above 20 in a young child suggests supernumerary or permanent teeth have erupted.

Question 27Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Which compound is the principal mineral component of enamel, dentin, cementum, and bone?

  1. Calcium oxalate
  2. Calcium carbonate
  3. Brushite
  4. Hydroxyapatite Correct answer.

Explanation

The mineral phase of all calcified dental and skeletal tissues is predominantly hydroxyapatite, a crystalline calcium phosphate. Its structure allows substitution of ions such as fluoride and carbonate, which alters solubility. Calcium carbonate and calcium oxalate are not the main mineral of these tissues.

Question 28Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Which salivary gland contributes the greatest volume of saliva during stimulated secretion?

  1. Sublingual gland
  2. Minor salivary glands
  3. Submandibular gland
  4. Parotid gland Correct answer.

Explanation

The parotid glands are large serous glands that supply roughly half of the saliva produced under stimulation. At rest, the submandibular glands provide the largest resting volume. Sublingual and minor glands contribute comparatively small amounts at all flow rates.

Question 29Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Which vitamin is required for intestinal absorption of calcium and therefore for normal mineralization of enamel and dentin?

  1. Folate
  2. Vitamin D Correct answer.
  3. Thiamin
  4. Vitamin K

Explanation

Vitamin D is hydroxylated to calcitriol, which increases intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate and supports mineralization of developing dental tissues. Deficiency during odontogenesis can produce enamel hypoplasia and poorly mineralized dentin. The other listed vitamins are not directly responsible for calcium absorption.

Question 30Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

What is the principal function of the periodontal ligament?

  1. Supplies blood to the dental pulp
  2. Anchors the tooth in the alveolus Correct answer.
  3. Forms the cribriform plate of alveolar bone
  4. Secretes the cementum covering the root surface

Explanation

The periodontal ligament is a dense connective tissue whose principal fiber bundles insert into cementum on one side and alveolar bone on the other. This arrangement suspends the tooth in its socket and converts occlusal load into tension on bone. Cementum is produced by cementoblasts, and the pulp receives blood from separate vessels entering through the apical foramen.

Question 31Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

In a healthy adult, what is the normal depth of the gingival sulcus?

  1. 0.1 to 0.5 mm
  2. 1 to 3 mm Correct answer.
  3. 4 to 5 mm
  4. 6 to 8 mm

Explanation

In health the gingival sulcus is a shallow crevice measuring roughly 1 to 3 mm with light probing force. Depths of 4 mm or more usually indicate attachment loss or gingival enlargement and should be interpreted together with bleeding and clinical attachment level. Sulci shallower than 1 mm are not characteristic of a healthy adult periodontium.

Question 32Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Which nerve provides motor innervation to the muscles of facial expression?

  1. Facial nerve Correct answer.
  2. Trigeminal nerve
  3. Hypoglossal nerve
  4. Glossopharyngeal nerve

Explanation

The facial nerve, cranial nerve VII, supplies the muscles of facial expression, including the orbicularis oris and buccinator that position the lips and cheeks during chewing. The trigeminal nerve carries sensation from the face and oral cavity but does not provide this motor supply. The hypoglossal and glossopharyngeal nerves serve the tongue musculature and pharyngeal sensation.

Question 33Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

What is the recommended fluoride concentration in community drinking water in the United States?

  1. 0.7 ppm Correct answer.
  2. 0.3 ppm
  3. 2.0 ppm
  4. 0.07 ppm

Explanation

Community water fluoridation is maintained at approximately 0.7 mg/L, or ppm, fluoride, a level that reduces caries while limiting the risk of fluorosis. Concentrations near 2 ppm exceed the recommended level and can produce enamel fluorosis. Concentrations far below 0.7 ppm provide little cariostatic benefit.

Question 34Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Which microorganism is considered a primary early colonizer of the clean tooth surface during dental biofilm formation?

  1. Porphyromonas gingivalis
  2. Treponema denticola
  3. Streptococcus sanguinis Correct answer.
  4. Lactobacillus acidophilus

Explanation

Streptococcus sanguinis and related oral streptococci attach first to salivary proteins of the acquired pellicle and form the initial layer of biofilm. Their presence creates binding sites that allow bridging organisms and later anaerobes to colonize. Porphyromonas gingivalis, Treponema denticola, and lactobacilli appear later in biofilm maturation.

Question 35Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Which group of bacteria is most closely associated with progression of caries into dentin?

  1. Veillonella parvula
  2. Lactobacillus species Correct answer.
  3. Fusobacterium nucleatum
  4. Streptococcus sanguinis

Explanation

Lactobacillus species are acidogenic and highly acid-tolerant, so they thrive in the low-pH environment of an advancing lesion and are associated with dentinal progression. They are generally regarded as secondary invaders rather than initiators of the lesion. Streptococcus sanguinis is an early plaque colonizer, and Veillonella and Fusobacterium are not the principal acid producers in dentinal caries.

Question 36Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Long-term use of which medication most commonly produces generalized fibrous gingival overgrowth?

  1. Atorvastatin
  2. Levothyroxine
  3. Phenytoin Correct answer.
  4. Metformin

Explanation

Phenytoin is a classic cause of drug-induced fibrous gingival enlargement, affecting a substantial proportion of long-term users. The mechanism involves fibroblast proliferation and increased collagen synthesis, and plaque control influences the severity. Metformin, atorvastatin, and levothyroxine are not associated with this effect.

Question 37Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

The yellow-brown intrinsic tooth discoloration associated with tetracycline use during development results from which process?

  1. Oxidation of hemoglobin breakdown products in dentin
  2. Calcium chelation in developing tooth mineral Correct answer.
  3. Deposition of bilirubin during enamel maturation
  4. Precipitation of calcium oxalate crystals within enamel

Explanation

Tetracyclines chelate calcium and are incorporated directly into enamel, dentin, and bone during mineralization. The drug fluoresces under ultraviolet light and darkens with light exposure, producing yellow-brown intrinsic staining. The other processes do not require the drug to be present at the time of mineral deposition.

Question 38Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Which buffer system is the principal contributor to acid neutralization in stimulated whole saliva?

  1. Bicarbonate Correct answer.
  2. Salivary proteins
  3. Phosphate
  4. Urea-derived ammonia

Explanation

Bicarbonate concentration rises with salivary flow rate and becomes the dominant buffer of stimulated whole saliva, protecting enamel against acid challenges. Phosphate contributes more at low flow rates, and urea-derived ammonia plays only a minor buffering role in most individuals. Protein buffers contribute little to overall salivary buffering capacity.

Question 39Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Which statement best describes the flow of gingival crevicular fluid?

  1. It is unrelated to gingival health
  2. It falls as plaque mass accumulates
  3. It rises with gingival inflammation severity Correct answer.
  4. It occurs only in established periodontitis

Explanation

Gingival crevicular fluid is a serum-derived transudate whose volume increases as inflammation raises vascular permeability in the gingival connective tissue. Flow rises measurably within days of plaque accumulation, even before clinical attachment loss. Measuring the flow can therefore indicate the presence of active gingival inflammation.

Question 40Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

The junctional epithelium adheres to the tooth surface mainly through which structure?

  1. Desmosomes linking epithelial cells to enamel
  2. Gap junctions between epithelial cells and cementum
  3. Insertion of collagen fiber bundles into cementum
  4. Hemidesmosomes and an internal basal lamina Correct answer.

Explanation

Junctional epithelial cells attach to the tooth by hemidesmosomes anchored to an internal basal lamina, forming the epithelial attachment. Collagen fiber bundles inserting into cementum belong to the connective tissue attachment, which is a separate structure. Desmosomes and gap junctions connect epithelial cells to one another rather than to the tooth.

Question 41Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Parathyroid hormone raises serum calcium concentration chiefly by which action?

  1. Increasing renal tubular phosphate reabsorption
  2. Reducing intestinal absorption of dietary calcium
  3. Mobilizing bone calcium and reducing renal loss Correct answer.
  4. Inhibiting osteoclastic bone resorption directly

Explanation

Parathyroid hormone responds to low serum calcium by stimulating osteoclastic bone resorption and by increasing renal tubular reabsorption of calcium. It also promotes phosphate excretion and activates vitamin D to enhance intestinal calcium absorption. It does not lower serum calcium or suppress resorption.

Question 42Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

On the Stephan curve, plaque pH after a sucrose rinse reaches its lowest value of approximately 5.0 within about which interval?

  1. 5 to 20 minutes Correct answer.
  2. 3 to 4 hours
  3. 6 to 8 hours
  4. 1 to 2 hours

Explanation

Plaque bacteria ferment sucrose rapidly, driving plaque pH down to about 5.0 or lower within 5 to 20 minutes of the challenge. Salivary buffering and remineralization then restore pH toward neutrality over the following 30 to 60 minutes. This rapid fall and slow recovery is the basis of the Stephan curve.

Question 43Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Pregnancy-associated gingivitis is most directly attributable to which factor?

  1. Reduced subgingival pathogen counts
  2. Elevated progesterone and estrogen levels Correct answer.
  3. Increased salivary calcium concentration
  4. Decreased serum cortisol concentrations

Explanation

Rising progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy alter gingival vasculature and modulate the inflammatory response, exaggerating the reaction to plaque. The condition usually resolves after delivery as hormone levels return to baseline. Diet and hygiene changes are secondary contributors, and the condition is not explained by changes in pathogen counts.

Question 44Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Amide local anesthetics such as lidocaine are biotransformed primarily by which route?

  1. Salivary and gingival esterases
  2. Plasma pseudocholinesterase
  3. Renal glomerular filtration
  4. Liver microsomal enzymes Correct answer.

Explanation

Amide anesthetics are metabolized mainly by hepatic microsomal enzymes, which is why severe liver disease can prolong their effect. Ester anesthetics such as procaine and benzocaine are hydrolyzed in plasma by pseudocholinesterase. The kidney excretes metabolites rather than the parent amide compound.

Question 45Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Which microorganism is most often implicated in root surface caries?

  1. Actinomyces viscosus Correct answer.
  2. Veillonella parvula
  3. Campylobacter rectus
  4. Streptococcus mutans

Explanation

Actinomyces viscosus and other Actinomyces species colonize exposed cementum and dentin and are the organisms most consistently associated with root caries. Streptococcus mutans is linked primarily to coronal caries initiation. Veillonella and Campylobacter are not the principal pathogens of root surface lesions.

Question 46Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Which property of a local anesthetic molecule primarily determines the proportion present as diffusible uncharged base and therefore the speed of onset?

  1. Vasodilator activity
  2. pKa Correct answer.
  3. Protein binding
  4. Lipid solubility

Explanation

The pKa governs the equilibrium between the charged and uncharged forms of the drug at tissue pH, and only the uncharged base crosses the nerve membrane. A lower pKa relative to tissue pH yields more base and a faster onset. Lipid solubility governs potency and protein binding influences duration, not the fraction of diffusible base.

Question 47Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

Within a single dentinal tubule, which region is the most highly mineralized?

  1. Intertubular dentin
  2. The dentinoenamel junction
  3. The odontoblast process
  4. Peritubular dentin Correct answer.

Explanation

Peritubular, or intratubular, dentin forms a highly mineralized cuff lining each tubule and contains far less collagen than the surrounding intertubular matrix. The odontoblast process occupying the tubule lumen is cellular and not mineralized. The dentinoenamel junction is a boundary zone between two tissues rather than a structure within a tubule.

Question 48Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

The salivary lactoperoxidase system inhibits bacteria through which mechanism?

  1. Binding free iron and depriving bacteria of it
  2. Oxidizing thiocyanate to hypothiocyanite Correct answer.
  3. Cleaving bacterial DNA within the cell
  4. Hydrolyzing bacterial cell wall peptidoglycan

Explanation

Lactoperoxidase catalyzes the oxidation of salivary thiocyanate by hydrogen peroxide to hypothiocyanite, which damages bacterial membranes and interferes with glycolysis. Iron sequestration is the mechanism of lactoferrin rather than lactoperoxidase. Peptidoglycan hydrolysis and DNA cleavage are carried out by lysozyme and DNase respectively.

Question 49Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

A 5% sodium fluoride varnish contains approximately what fluoride ion concentration?

  1. 1,000 ppm
  2. 5,000 ppm
  3. 22,600 ppm Correct answer.
  4. 12,300 ppm

Explanation

Five percent sodium fluoride varnish contains about 2.26% fluoride ion, which equals roughly 22,600 ppm. It is applied in small quantities and sets on the tooth surface to release fluoride over time. A 5,000 ppm product is a prescription high-fluoride dentifrice, and 1,000 to 1,500 ppm products are standard over-the-counter dentifrices.

Question 50Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice

A patient who smokes presents with deep probing depths and radiographic bone loss but very little gingival bleeding. Which explanation best accounts for this presentation?

  1. Increased salivary flow dilutes bacterial toxins
  2. Higher crevicular fluid flow washes out mediators
  3. Thickened collagen hides underlying inflammation
  4. Nicotine-induced vasoconstriction masks bleeding Correct answer.

Explanation

Nicotine and other tobacco constituents cause vasoconstriction and blunt the vascular inflammatory response, so a smoker's gingiva may bleed little despite advanced destruction. Smokers also show impaired neutrophil function and poorer healing, so their disease is often more severe than bleeding scores suggest. Bleeding is therefore a less reliable screening indicator in smokers.