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RI Pesticide Applicator practice questions

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Question 1Pest Identification and Management

A grub found in turf has a C-shaped white body with a distinct brown head capsule and three pairs of true legs near the head. This insect is best described as which type of pest?

  1. A soil-dwelling aphid that sucks sap
  2. A beetle larva that feeds on grass roots Correct answer.
  3. A caterpillar that chews grass blades
  4. A billbug adult that tunnels in stems

Explanation

White grubs are the soil-inhabiting larvae of scarab beetles; they have a C-shaped white body, a hard brown head capsule, and three pairs of legs behind the head. They feed on turf roots below the surface, causing wilting and dead patches. Caterpillars have prolegs, aphids are soft-bodied sap feeders, and billbug larvae lack true legs.

Question 2Pest Identification and Management

Which feature distinguishes a caterpillar from a sawfly larva feeding on the same plant?

  1. The presence of chewing mouthparts
  2. The number of true thoracic legs
  3. The color of the head capsule
  4. The number of abdominal prolegs Correct answer.

Explanation

Caterpillars (Lepidoptera) generally have prolegs on abdominal segments 3 through 6 plus the last segment, while sawfly larvae typically have prolegs on more abdominal segments. Both chew foliage and have true thoracic legs, so proleg count and arrangement is the reliable field character. Head color and chewing mouthparts do not separate the two groups.

Question 3Pest Identification and Management

A grower reports small, pear-shaped insects clustered on new growth with sticky honeydew and sooty mold. Which pest group is most consistent with these signs?

  1. Aphids Correct answer.
  2. Cutworms
  3. Spider mites
  4. Whiteflies

Explanation

Aphids are small pear-shaped insects that cluster on tender new growth, excrete honeydew, and promote sooty mold. Spider mites cause stippling and webbing rather than honeydew, cutworms are soil-dwelling caterpillars that cut stems, and whiteflies are tiny moth-like insects with white wings.

Question 4Pest Identification and Management

Fine silk webbing on the undersides of leaves, accompanied by pale stippling on the upper leaf surface, most strongly suggests which pest?

  1. Thrips
  2. Aphids
  3. Leafminers
  4. Spider mites Correct answer.

Explanation

Spider mites feed by piercing cells on the leaf underside, producing pale stippling on the upper surface and fine silk webbing in heavy infestations. Thrips cause silvery scarring and black fecal specks, leafminers create winding trails within the leaf, and aphids produce honeydew rather than stippling.

Question 5Pest Identification and Management

A pest is described as having piercing-sucking mouthparts that it inserts into plant tissue to remove sap. Which pest group does this describe?

  1. Slugs
  2. Aphids Correct answer.
  3. Armyworms
  4. Grasshoppers

Explanation

Aphids use needle-like piercing-sucking mouthparts to tap into phloem and remove sap. Grasshoppers and armyworms chew plant tissue with mandibles, and slugs rasp tissue with a radula. Piercing-sucking feeding is typical of aphids, whiteflies, scales, and similar insects.

Question 6Pest Identification and Management

Which life stage of a scale insect is most susceptible to contact insecticide sprays?

  1. The pupal stage beneath bark
  2. The newly hatched crawler stage Correct answer.
  3. The overwintering egg mass
  4. The mature female under a waxy cover

Explanation

Crawlers are the mobile first instars that have not yet developed the protective waxy cover, so they are the stage most vulnerable to contact sprays. Mature females and eggs are shielded by wax or shell, and scale insects do not have a pupal stage. Timing sprays to crawler emergence is a core management tactic.

Question 7Pest Identification and Management

A caterpillar is found feeding at night and hiding in the soil during the day, and it curls into a C shape when disturbed. Which pest is most likely?

  1. Cutworm Correct answer.
  2. Fall webworm
  3. Cabbage looper
  4. Corn earworm

Explanation

Cutworms are nocturnally active caterpillars that hide in soil or debris by day and curl into a C shape when disturbed, often severing seedlings at the soil line. Cabbage loopers and corn earworms feed on foliage or fruit above ground, and fall webworms build webbed nests in trees.

Question 8Pest Identification and Management

Which characteristic best separates a true bug (Hemiptera) from a beetle (Coleoptera)?

  1. Body color and pattern
  2. Wing structure and mouthpart type Correct answer.
  3. Presence of antennae
  4. Number of legs

Explanation

True bugs typically have piercing-sucking mouthparts and half-leathery, half-membranous front wings, while beetles have chewing mouthparts and hard elytra covering membranous hind wings. Color, leg number, and antennae presence do not reliably separate the orders. Wing and mouthpart structure are the diagnostic features.

Question 9Pest Identification and Management

A pest problem is first noticed as wilting plants with roots chewed off just below the crown, and digging reveals white C-shaped larvae. Which management approach targets this pest most directly?

  1. Releasing lady beetles onto the foliage
  2. Spraying the foliage with a contact insecticide
  3. Applying a soil-applied insecticide or beneficial nematodes to the root zone Correct answer.
  4. Setting sticky yellow cards above the canopy

Explanation

White grubs feed on roots below the surface, so control must reach the root zone through soil-applied insecticides or entomopathogenic nematodes. Foliar sprays, sticky cards, and foliar predators do not contact the soil-dwelling larvae. Correct placement is central to managing soil pests.

Question 10Pest Identification and Management

Which of these is a key distinguishing feature of thrips compared with aphids?

  1. Soft body with a cottony wax cover
  2. Hard shell covering the entire body
  3. Slender body with fringed wings Correct answer.
  4. Pear-shaped body with cornicles

Explanation

Thrips are tiny, slender insects with fringed wings and rasping-sucking mouthparts that cause silvery scarring. Aphids are pear-shaped with cornicles, mealybugs have a cottony wax cover, and scales have a hard shell. Body shape and wing fringe reliably separate thrips.

Question 11Pest Identification and Management

A pest population has developed resistance after repeated use of the same insecticide class. Which practice best slows further resistance development?

  1. Increasing the dose of the same product
  2. Rotating among insecticide groups with different modes of action Correct answer.
  3. Using the product only at the lowest labeled rate
  4. Applying the same product more frequently

Explanation

Resistance management relies on rotating among modes of action so that survivors of one treatment are killed by a different chemistry. Increasing dose or frequency of the same product selects more strongly for resistance, and lower rates alone do not address the resistance mechanism. Integrated rotation is the standard recommendation.

Question 12Pest Identification and Management

Which cultural practice most directly reduces the buildup of soil-borne fungal pathogens in an annual crop rotation?

  1. Increasing plant density
  2. Rotating to a non-host crop for several seasons Correct answer.
  3. Irrigating more frequently
  4. Applying additional nitrogen fertilizer

Explanation

Rotating to a non-host crop deprives soil-borne pathogens of their host and reduces inoculum over time. Extra nitrogen, higher plant density, and more frequent irrigation can favor disease rather than suppress it. Rotation is a foundational cultural control for soil-borne disease.

Question 13Pest Identification and Management

A grower wants to confirm whether a plant problem is caused by an insect or a disease before treating. Which observation most reliably supports an insect cause?

  1. Presence of the insect or its frass and feeding damage Correct answer.
  2. Sudden wilting on one side of a plant
  3. Uniform yellowing of older leaves
  4. Circular lesions with concentric rings

Explanation

Direct evidence, such as the insect itself or its frass and characteristic feeding damage, confirms an insect cause. Uniform yellowing, one-sided wilting, and concentric-ring lesions are typical of nutrient, vascular, and fungal problems, respectively. Diagnosis should rest on direct signs rather than symptoms alone.

Question 14Pest Identification and Management

Which biological control agent is commonly used against spider mites in greenhouse crops?

  1. Predatory mites Correct answer.
  2. Entomopathogenic nematodes
  3. Bacillus thuringiensis
  4. Trichogramma wasps

Explanation

Predatory mites such as Phytoseiulus species feed on spider mites and are widely released in greenhouses. Bacillus thuringiensis targets caterpillars, entomopathogenic nematodes target soil insects, and Trichogramma wasps parasitize moth eggs. Matching the natural enemy to the target pest is essential.

Question 15Pest Identification and Management

Which weed characteristic most affects the choice between a preemergence and a postemergence herbicide program?

  1. The number of leaves on the seedling
  2. The height of the mature plant
  3. The color of the weed flowers
  4. Whether the weed reproduces mainly by seed or by perennial roots Correct answer.

Explanation

Annual weeds that reproduce by seed can often be managed with preemergence herbicides that prevent seedling establishment, while perennial weeds with extensive root systems usually require postemergence systemic treatment to kill the roots. Flower color, plant height, and leaf number do not determine the appropriate timing strategy. Life cycle and reproductive strategy drive the decision.

Question 16Pest Identification and Management

A broadleaf weed has a taproot and reproduces by both seed and root fragments. Which control approach is most likely to provide lasting suppression?

  1. Mowing before the plant flowers
  2. A contact herbicide applied once to the foliage
  3. A systemic herbicide applied to actively growing plants Correct answer.
  4. Hand pulling only the aboveground shoots

Explanation

Perennial weeds with taproots and regenerative root fragments require a systemic herbicide that translocates to the roots during active growth. Contact herbicides kill only treated tissue, mowing alone may not exhaust root reserves, and pulling shoots leaves roots to resprout. Systemic treatment addresses the regenerative structure.

Question 17Pest Identification and Management

The economic threshold for a pest is best defined as which of the following?

  1. The pest density at which the crop is completely destroyed
  2. The maximum pest population the crop can support without any damage
  3. The level of pest damage that justifies replanting the field
  4. The pest density at which control measures should be initiated to prevent economic loss Correct answer.

Explanation

The economic threshold is the pest density at which action should be taken to prevent the population from reaching the economic injury level. It is not the point of total crop destruction or the maximum tolerable population. Treating at the threshold avoids unnecessary applications while preventing economic loss.

Question 18Pest Identification and Management

Which monitoring method is most appropriate for detecting night-flying adult moths in an orchard?

  1. Visual inspection of leaves at midday
  2. Sticky cards placed at ground level
  3. Soil core sampling to a depth of six inches
  4. Blacklight or pheromone traps checked regularly Correct answer.

Explanation

Blacklight and species-specific pheromone traps attract night-flying adult moths and provide early detection and population tracking. Midday visual inspection misses nocturnal activity, soil cores target soil stages, and ground-level sticky cards are better suited to crawling or low-flying insects. Matching the trap to the pest's behavior improves monitoring.

Question 19Pest Identification and Management

Which of these best describes the damage caused by piercing-sucking insects such as leafhoppers?

  1. Serpentine tunnels mined within the leaf
  2. Stippling, yellowing, and possible transmission of plant pathogens Correct answer.
  3. Complete defoliation of the plant
  4. Large irregular holes chewed in the leaf margin

Explanation

Piercing-sucking insects remove cell contents and sap, causing stippling and yellowing, and many leafhoppers transmit plant pathogens. Chewed holes indicate chewing insects, serpentine tunnels indicate leafminers, and complete defoliation is typical of heavy caterpillar or beetle feeding. Damage type reflects mouthpart type.

Question 20Pest Identification and Management

A grower notices a whitish, powdery growth on the upper leaf surface of squash plants. Which management practice is most appropriate for this disease?

  1. Increasing overhead irrigation frequency
  2. Improving air circulation and applying a labeled fungicide Correct answer.
  3. Removing all flowers from the plants
  4. Applying a soil insecticide to the root zone

Explanation

The powdery white growth is characteristic of powdery mildew, which is favored by poor air circulation and certain humidity conditions. Improving airflow and applying a labeled fungicide are appropriate, while increasing overhead irrigation and soil insecticides do not address the disease. Correct diagnosis guides the management choice.

Question 21Pest Identification and Management

Which characteristic is most useful for distinguishing damage by a root-knot nematode from nutrient deficiency?

  1. Presence of galls or swellings on the roots Correct answer.
  2. Yellowing of the newest leaves
  3. Stunting of the entire plant
  4. Wilting during the heat of the day

Explanation

Root-knot nematodes cause characteristic galls or swellings on roots, which distinguishes their damage from nutrient deficiency. Yellowing, midday wilting, and stunting can occur with both nematodes and deficiencies, so root inspection is required. Direct root signs provide the reliable diagnosis.

Question 22Pest Identification and Management

Which of the following is a key reason to identify a pest to species before selecting a pesticide?

  1. Different species may require different active ingredients or timing Correct answer.
  2. Pesticide choice is independent of pest biology
  3. Species identification only affects the label rate
  4. All pests respond identically to every labeled product

Explanation

Species differ in susceptibility, life cycle, and the stage vulnerable to treatment, so identification drives product and timing selection. Pests do not respond identically to all products, and identification affects more than the label rate. Accurate identification is the foundation of effective control.

Question 23Pest Identification and Management

A pest manager finds small, soft-bodied insects with a white waxy coating clustered in leaf axils. Which pest is most likely?

  1. Flea beetles
  2. Mealybugs Correct answer.
  3. Leafhoppers
  4. Armored scales

Explanation

Mealybugs are soft-bodied insects covered with white waxy material that cluster in leaf axils and other protected areas. Armored scales have a hard shell, flea beetles are small jumping beetles that chew holes, and leafhoppers are active wedge-shaped insects. The waxy coating and clustering are diagnostic of mealybugs.

Question 24Pest Identification and Management

Which integrated pest management principle is illustrated by planting a trap crop around the edge of a field?

  1. Removing all alternative hosts from the landscape
  2. Increasing pesticide applications
  3. Manipulating pest behavior to concentrate damage away from the main crop Correct answer.
  4. Eliminating all pests from the field

Explanation

A trap crop attracts pests to a designated area, concentrating them away from the main crop where they can be managed. It does not aim to eliminate all pests or increase pesticide use, and it relies on providing attractive hosts rather than removing them. This is a behavioral manipulation tactic within IPM.

Question 25Pest Identification and Management

Which environmental condition most favors the rapid buildup of many foliar fungal diseases?

  1. High wind and dry air
  2. Cool, dry soil conditions
  3. Prolonged leaf wetness and high humidity Correct answer.
  4. Low humidity and bright sunlight

Explanation

Most foliar fungal pathogens require free moisture on the leaf surface and high humidity for spore germination and infection. Dry, windy, or low-humidity conditions generally slow disease development. Managing irrigation and canopy airflow reduces leaf wetness duration.

Question 26Pest Identification and Management

Which insect order is characterized by having two pairs of membranous wings and a chewing mouthpart in the adult stage?

  1. Diptera
  2. Hymenoptera Correct answer.
  3. Hemiptera
  4. Coleoptera

Explanation

Hymenoptera (bees, wasps, ants) typically have two pairs of membranous wings and chewing mouthparts, though some have modified mouthparts for lapping. This combination is a key identifying feature for the order.

Question 27Pest Identification and Management

A grower finds small, pear-shaped insects clustered on the undersides of new leaves, and notices sticky honeydew on the upper leaves. Which pest is most likely?

  1. Aphids Correct answer.
  2. Spider mites
  3. Whiteflies
  4. Thrips

Explanation

Aphids are small, soft-bodied, pear-shaped insects that often cluster on new growth and excrete honeydew. Spider mites are not pear-shaped and do not produce honeydew; thrips are slender and leave silvery damage; whiteflies are tiny and moth-like.

Question 28Pest Identification and Management

Which of the following is a key characteristic of damage caused by chewing insects?

  1. Wilting of the whole plant
  2. Stippling of leaves
  3. Removal of leaf tissue Correct answer.
  4. Galls on roots

Explanation

Chewing insects have mouthparts adapted to bite and tear plant tissue, resulting in missing leaf area, holes, or notched edges. Stippling, wilting, and galls are typically associated with piercing-sucking insects or other pests.

Question 29Pest Identification and Management

Which of the following is a primary reason for identifying a pest to species before selecting a pesticide?

  1. To determine the pest's aesthetic appeal
  2. To decide whether the pest is native or exotic
  3. To estimate the pest's age
  4. To ensure the pesticide is legally registered for that pest Correct answer.

Explanation

Pesticide labels specify the pests they are registered to control; using a product on an unlisted pest is illegal and may be ineffective. Species identification ensures the chosen product is both legal and appropriate.

Question 30Pest Identification and Management

A field has a history of damping-off in seedlings. Which management practice is most effective for reducing this disease?

  1. Increasing soil moisture
  2. Using certified disease-free seed and well-drained planting beds Correct answer.
  3. Planting at a shallower depth
  4. Applying a high-nitrogen fertilizer at planting

Explanation

Damping-off is favored by cool, wet soils and is often seed- or soil-borne. Using certified disease-free seed and ensuring good drainage reduces pathogen introduction and conditions that favor disease.

Question 31Pest Identification and Management

A grower observes white, powdery patches on the upper surface of peony leaves. Which environmental condition most favors this disease?

  1. High humidity with moderate temperatures Correct answer.
  2. Cool, wet soils
  3. Free moisture on leaves for extended periods
  4. Hot, dry weather

Explanation

Powdery mildew fungi typically thrive in high humidity but do not require free water on leaves; moderate temperatures are also favorable. Free moisture and cool, wet soils favor other diseases like downy mildew or root rots.

Question 32Pest Identification and Management

Which of the following is a key difference between damage by root-knot nematodes and nutrient deficiency?

  1. Nutrient deficiency causes root galls
  2. Nutrient deficiency causes stunting
  3. Root-knot nematodes cause root galls Correct answer.
  4. Root-knot nematodes cause leaf yellowing

Explanation

Root-knot nematodes induce characteristic galls or swellings on roots, which are not produced by nutrient deficiencies. While both can cause stunting and yellowing, the presence of galls is diagnostic for nematodes.

Question 33Pest Identification and Management

Which of the following is the best example of a cultural control method for preventing weed seed production?

  1. Using a postemergence herbicide
  2. Mowing before weeds set seed Correct answer.
  3. Applying a preemergence herbicide
  4. Releasing a biological control agent

Explanation

Mowing before weeds set seed is a cultural practice that prevents seed production and reduces the weed seed bank. Herbicides are chemical controls, and biological control uses living organisms.

Question 34Pest Identification and Management

A grower wants to reduce the risk of insecticide resistance. Which practice is most effective?

  1. Rotating among insecticide classes with different modes of action Correct answer.
  2. Using the same insecticide repeatedly
  3. Treating only when pest populations are highest
  4. Applying insecticides at higher than label rates

Explanation

Rotating among insecticide classes with different modes of action reduces selection pressure for resistance. Repeated use of the same class, higher rates, and treating only at peak populations can accelerate resistance.

Question 35Pest Identification and Management

Which of the following best describes the damage caused by piercing-sucking insects such as stink bugs on fruit?

  1. Punctures and discoloration Correct answer.
  2. Wilting of the entire plant
  3. Root galls
  4. Chewing holes in leaves

Explanation

Piercing-sucking insects insert their mouthparts into plant tissue, causing punctures and often discoloration or deformation. Chewing holes, root galls, and whole-plant wilting are not typical of stink bug feeding.

Question 36Pest Identification and Management

A pest manager finds small, pale caterpillars inside green heads of cabbage. Which pest is most likely?

  1. Cabbage looper
  2. Diamondback moth Correct answer.
  3. Cross-striped cabbageworm
  4. Imported cabbageworm

Explanation

Diamondback moth larvae are small, pale green caterpillars that often feed inside cabbage heads and can be found in the growing point. Cabbage loopers and imported cabbageworms are larger and typically feed on leaves.

Question 37Pest Identification and Management

Which of the following is a key reason to use a pheromone trap in an IPM program?

  1. To monitor adult pest activity and time treatments Correct answer.
  2. To confuse pests and prevent mating
  3. To kill large numbers of pests
  4. To attract beneficial insects

Explanation

Pheromone traps are primarily used for monitoring adult activity, which helps time other control measures. They are not intended for mass trapping or attracting beneficials, and mating disruption uses different formulations.

Question 38Pest Identification and Management

A field has a history of cutworm damage. Which monitoring method is most appropriate for detecting cutworm larvae before planting?

  1. Soil sifting or bait stations Correct answer.
  2. Yellow sticky cards
  3. Pheromone traps
  4. Light traps

Explanation

Cutworm larvae live in the soil, so sifting soil or using bait stations can detect their presence before planting. Light and pheromone traps target adults, and sticky cards are for flying insects.

Question 39Pest Identification and Management

Which of the following is the best example of a mechanical control method for slugs in a garden?

  1. Using a parasitic nematode
  2. Hand-picking slugs at night Correct answer.
  3. Applying metaldehyde bait
  4. Planting resistant varieties

Explanation

Hand-picking is a mechanical control method that physically removes pests. Metaldehyde bait is chemical, resistant varieties are cultural, and parasitic nematodes are biological.

Question 40Pest Identification and Management

A grower notices that a pesticide application failed to control a pest. Which of the following is the most likely reason?

  1. The pesticide was applied at the right time
  2. The pest was identified correctly
  3. The pest was misidentified Correct answer.
  4. The pesticide was applied at the correct rate

Explanation

Misidentification can lead to using a pesticide that is not effective against the actual pest. Correct identification, rate, and timing are all factors that contribute to successful control.

Question 41Pesticide Labels and Labeling

Under FIFRA, a pesticide may legally be sold or distributed in Rhode Island only if it is registered with which entity?

  1. The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency Correct answer.
  2. The U.S. Department of Agriculture
  3. The Rhode Island Department of Health
  4. The Rhode Island Department of Environmental Management

Explanation

FIFRA requires federal registration with the U.S. EPA before a pesticide can be distributed or sold in interstate commerce. States such as Rhode Island may add their own registration or classification requirements, but federal EPA registration is the underlying legal prerequisite.

Question 42Pesticide Labels and Labeling

A pesticide label states 'Keep out of reach of children.' Where on the label must this statement appear?

  1. On the back panel only
  2. In the precautionary statements area Correct answer.
  3. Within the storage and disposal section
  4. In the directions for use section

Explanation

The child hazard warning is part of the precautionary statements, which also include hazard-to-humans and environmental hazard information. It must be located in that signal-word and precautionary block, not buried in directions or storage text.

Question 43Pesticide Labels and Labeling

The signal word on a pesticide label is determined primarily by which factor?

  1. The size of the container sold
  2. The product's cost per acre
  3. The target pest's life stage
  4. The product's acute toxicity to humans Correct answer.

Explanation

Signal words (DANGER, WARNING, CAUTION) reflect the acute toxicity category of the formulated product as determined by EPA hazard criteria. They are a human-health communication tool and are not based on economics, packaging, or pest biology.

Question 44Pesticide Labels and Labeling

Which label section tells an applicator the maximum number of applications allowed per season?

  1. The precautionary statements
  2. The ingredient statement
  3. The storage and disposal section
  4. The directions for use Correct answer.

Explanation

Use restrictions such as maximum application frequency, rate limits, and seasonal caps appear in the directions for use. That section governs how the product may lawfully be applied.

Question 45Pesticide Labels and Labeling

The statement 'It is a violation of Federal law to use this product in a manner inconsistent with its labeling' appears on pesticide labels to convey which principle?

  1. Only federal employees must follow the label
  2. Label directions are legally enforceable requirements Correct answer.
  3. Labels are advisory recommendations
  4. Off-label use is permitted if the applicator accepts liability

Explanation

This use-inconsistent statement establishes that label directions carry the force of law under FIFRA. Applying a product in a way the label does not permit is a violation, not merely poor practice.

Question 46Pesticide Labels and Labeling

A product label lists 'Active ingredient: Glyphosate, N-(phosphonomethyl)glycine, in the form of its isopropylamine salt .... 41.0%'. What does this portion of the label represent?

  1. The warranty statement
  2. The precautionary statements
  3. The directions for use
  4. The ingredient statement Correct answer.

Explanation

The ingredient statement identifies each active ingredient by name and concentration, and typically states the total inert content. It is distinct from use directions and hazard warnings.

Question 47Pesticide Labels and Labeling

Which of the following is a restricted-use pesticide classification decision made at the federal level?

  1. A product becomes restricted use whenever it is sold in containers over one gallon
  2. A product is restricted use whenever it carries a CAUTION signal word
  3. A product is restricted use only when a state governor requests it
  4. A product may be classified restricted use when it poses unreasonable adverse effects without additional regulatory controls Correct answer.

Explanation

EPA classifies a pesticide as restricted use when it determines the product, without additional regulatory restrictions, may cause unreasonable adverse effects on people or the environment. Only certified applicators may then purchase and apply it.

Question 48Pesticide Labels and Labeling

An applicator is reading a label to determine whether protective eyewear is required during mixing. Which label element provides this information?

  1. The EPA registration number
  2. The first aid statement
  3. The net contents statement
  4. The personal protective equipment statements Correct answer.

Explanation

Personal protective equipment requirements appear in the precautionary statements and specify what must be worn for mixing, loading, application, and other tasks. The other elements serve unrelated identification or emergency purposes.

Question 49Pesticide Labels and Labeling

A label's directions for use specify a rate of '1.5 to 2 pints per acre' for a given crop. An applicator wants to apply 2.5 pints per acre to improve control. How should this be handled?

  1. Apply 2.5 pints only if the pest pressure is unusually high
  2. Apply no more than 2 pints per acre unless a supplemental label allows otherwise Correct answer.
  3. Apply 2.5 pints because it is within a reasonable margin of the labeled range
  4. Apply 2.5 pints and record the deviation in the application log

Explanation

The labeled rate range is a legal limit; applying above the maximum labeled rate is a use inconsistent with the labeling. A higher rate is permissible only if a valid supplemental or amended label authorizes it.

Question 50Pesticide Labels and Labeling

An applicator wants to use a registered product on a crop that is not listed anywhere in the label's directions for use. What is the correct interpretation?

  1. The use is allowed if no residue tolerance exists
  2. The use is permitted because the product is registered
  3. The use is allowed if the applicator notifies the state first
  4. The use is prohibited unless a valid supplemental label lists that crop Correct answer.

Explanation

Uses not addressed on the label are generally not permitted; a crop must appear in the directions for use or on an approved supplemental labeling. Registration of the product for other uses does not authorize an unlisted use.