Anesthesia Board flashcards
Anesthesia Board · Build recall with a focused review session.
32 cards. Read the term and the definition here. The deck at the top of this page is optional.
- MAC
- Minimum alveolar concentration at one atmosphere that prevents movement in 50% of patients given a standard surgical stimulus; a potency measure inversely related to lipid solubility.
- Hofmann elimination
- Spontaneous non-enzymatic degradation at physiologic pH and temperature; explains the organ-independent clearance of atracurium and cisatracurium, whose duration is unaffected by renal or hepatic failure.
- Context-sensitive half-time
- Time for plasma concentration to fall by 50% after an infusion stops; lengthens with infusion duration for lipophilic drugs such as thiopental and fentanyl but remains short for remifentanil.
- Arterial oxygen content
- CaO2 = (1.34 × Hb × SaO2) + (0.003 × PaO2), reported in mL O2 per dL; hemoglobin-bound oxygen dominates, so dissolved oxygen contributes little.
- Cerebral perfusion pressure
- Mean arterial pressure minus intracranial pressure; typical adult target is roughly 60–70 mmHg, and cerebral blood flow is autoregulated between MAP 50 and 150 mmHg.
- Depolarizing block
- Succinylcholine holds the nicotinic channel open, causing fasciculations then flaccid paralysis; Phase I block is not reversed by anticholinesterases and is actually potentiated by them.
- Ion trapping
- A weak base crosses membranes only in its uncharged form; in acidic compartments it becomes protonated and cannot exit, prolonging drug effect in fetal or infected tissue.
- Turbulent flow
- Occurs when the Reynolds number exceeds about 2000, at high flow or gas density or low viscosity; flow then varies with the square root of the pressure gradient.
- ASA physical status
- I healthy; II mild systemic disease; III severe systemic disease; IV constant threat to life; V moribund; VI brain-dead organ donor; the E suffix denotes emergency surgery.
- Mallampati classification
- Airway assessment with the patient seated, mouth open, tongue protruded: class I shows soft palate, uvula, and fauces; class IV shows only hard palate. Higher classes predict difficult laryngoscopy.
- Rapid sequence induction
- Preoxygenation, prompt induction with a fast-acting agent, and neuromuscular blockade without positive-pressure ventilation to limit aspiration; cricoid pressure is traditional but evidence is mixed.
- Sugammadex
- Modified gamma-cyclodextrin that encapsulates rocuronium and vecuronium, reversing even deep blockade within minutes; doses range from 2 to 16 mg/kg and it does not reverse succinylcholine.
- Post-dural puncture headache
- Fronto-occipital headache worsened by upright posture and relieved by lying flat, caused by CSF leak after dural puncture; conservative therapy first, epidural blood patch if persistent.
- Malignant hyperthermia
- Hypermetabolic crisis from uncontrolled skeletal muscle calcium release triggered by volatile anesthetics and succinylcholine; treat with dantrolene 2.5 mg/kg boluses, stop triggers, cool, and treat hyperkalemia.
- Laryngospasm management
- Remove the stimulus, give 100% oxygen with CPAP and jaw thrust, and deepen anesthesia; if persistent, give propofol or succinylcholine 0.5–1 mg/kg IV and prepare to reintubate.
- Apfel score
- Predicts postoperative nausea and vomiting from female sex, nonsmoking status, prior PONV or motion sickness, and postoperative opioids; each factor adds roughly 20% risk.
- Uncuffed endotracheal tube size
- For children older than 1 year, internal diameter in mm equals age in years divided by 4 plus 4; a cuffed tube is typically chosen half a size smaller.
- Left uterine displacement
- After 20 weeks' gestation the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava when supine; manual displacement or a wedge maintains venous return and cardiac output during neuraxial anesthesia.
- Lipid emulsion therapy
- For local anesthetic systemic toxicity, give 20% lipid emulsion 1.5 mL/kg bolus then 0.25 mL/kg/min infusion; continue CPR and avoid vasopressin, calcium channel blockers, and beta blockers.
- One-lung ventilation hypoxemia
- First verify tube position and hemodynamics, then apply CPAP to the non-dependent lung or PEEP to the dependent lung, and reduce tidal volume to limit volutrauma.
- Awake fiberoptic intubation
- Airway topicalization with light sedation preserves spontaneous ventilation and is indicated for anticipated difficult airways; an antisialagogue improves the view and oxygen is supplied throughout.
- Pulmonary artery catheter
- Flow-directed catheter measuring right atrial, pulmonary artery, and occlusion pressures plus thermodilution cardiac output; used in complex cardiac and shock states without routine mortality benefit.
- Informed consent elements
- Requires patient capacity, adequate disclosure of risks and alternatives, comprehension, and voluntariness; anesthesia discussion covers awareness, nausea, sore throat, dental injury, and nerve injury.
- Anesthesia billing units
- Total units equal ASA base units for the procedure plus one unit per 15 minutes of anesthesia time, multiplied by a contracted conversion factor; modifiers cover physical status and qualifying circumstances.
- EMTALA
- Federal law requiring Medicare-participating hospitals with emergency departments to provide a medical screening examination and stabilizing treatment regardless of insurance status or ability to pay.
- Medical malpractice elements
- The plaintiff must prove an established duty of care, a breach of the standard of care, causation linking the breach to injury, and compensable damages; all four elements are required.
- WHO surgical safety checklist
- Three phases: sign in before induction of anesthesia, time out before skin incision, and sign out before the patient leaves the operating room; use reduces surgical morbidity and mortality.
- Operating room fire triad
- Requires an oxidizer such as oxygen or nitrous oxide, a fuel such as drapes or the endotracheal tube, and an ignition source such as electrocautery; management is stopping gas, removing burning material, and saline.
- Alarm fatigue
- Desensitization caused by frequent false or nonactionable alarms leads to delayed clinician response; mitigation uses individualized limits, correct lead placement, and fewer unnecessary audible alarms.
- Donabedian model
- Frames quality assessment in three categories: structure (resources and staffing), process (what is done to the patient), and outcome (results), each with distinct measures and limitations.
- Plan-Do-Study-Act
- Iterative improvement cycle: plan a change, test it on a small scale, study the results, and act by adopting, adapting, or abandoning it; repeated rapid cycles drive local improvement.
- Failure mode and effects analysis
- Prospective team-based method that maps a process, identifies ways it can fail, and scores severity, occurrence, and detectability to prioritize preventive actions before harm occurs.