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EFVV Ukraine practice questions

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Question 1General Veterinary Knowledge

Which organ is the primary site of drug metabolism in most domestic mammals?

  1. Lung
  2. Spleen
  3. Kidney
  4. Liver Correct answer.

Explanation

Hepatic enzymes, especially the cytochrome P450 system, carry out most phase I and phase II biotransformation of drugs. The kidney is mainly responsible for excretion of metabolites rather than their formation.

Question 2General Veterinary Knowledge

Which species is most sensitive to the toxic effects of ivermectin due to a defective blood-brain barrier transporter?

  1. Horses
  2. Ferrets
  3. Collie-type dogs Correct answer.
  4. Domestic cats

Explanation

Collie breeds frequently carry a mutation in the MDR1 (ABCB1) gene, impairing P-glycoprotein efflux at the blood-brain barrier and allowing ivermectin to accumulate in the CNS. This produces neurologic toxicity at doses tolerated by other breeds.

Question 3General Veterinary Knowledge

A dog presents with pale mucous membranes, tachycardia, and a packed cell volume of 15%. Which term best describes this finding?

  1. Leukocytosis
  2. Polycythemia
  3. Thrombocytosis
  4. Anemia Correct answer.

Explanation

A PCV of 15% is well below the normal canine range, indicating a reduction in circulating red cell mass, which is anemia. The accompanying pallor and tachycardia are compensatory signs of reduced oxygen-carrying capacity.

Question 4General Veterinary Knowledge

Which of the following is a ruminant forestomach?

  1. Cecum
  2. Rumen Correct answer.
  3. Jejunum
  4. Duodenum

Explanation

The ruminant stomach has four compartments, and the rumen is the largest forestomach where microbial fermentation occurs. The duodenum and jejunum are small intestinal segments, and the cecum is part of the large intestine.

Question 5General Veterinary Knowledge

Which vaccine type carries the lowest risk of causing disease in immunocompromised animals?

  1. Modified-live vaccine
  2. Live-attenuated intranasal vaccine
  3. Killed vaccine Correct answer.
  4. Live virulent field strain

Explanation

Killed vaccines contain inactivated organisms and cannot replicate, so they cannot cause vaccine-induced infection in a host with weakened immunity. Live vaccines carry a residual risk of replication and disease.

Question 6General Veterinary Knowledge

Which hormone is produced by the corpus luteum and maintains pregnancy in many domestic species?

  1. Progesterone Correct answer.
  2. Testosterone
  3. Follicle-stimulating hormone
  4. Oxytocin

Explanation

The corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which prepares and maintains the uterine environment for pregnancy. FSH drives follicular development, oxytocin acts on smooth muscle, and testosterone is an androgen.

Question 7General Veterinary Knowledge

A cow is recumbent with a flaccid rumen and a rumen pH of 5.0 after consuming a large grain meal. Which condition is most likely?

  1. Ketosis
  2. Bloat
  3. Hypocalcemia
  4. Ruminal acidosis Correct answer.

Explanation

Rapid fermentation of readily available carbohydrate lowers rumen pH and produces lactic acidosis with rumen stasis, matching the history and pH of 5.0. Normal rumen pH is approximately 6.0 to 7.0.

Question 8General Veterinary Knowledge

Which parasite is transmitted to dogs by the bite of an infected sandfly?

  1. Leishmania infantum Correct answer.
  2. Dirofilaria immitis
  3. Giardia duodenalis
  4. Toxocara canis

Explanation

Leishmania infantum is a protozoan transmitted by phlebotomine sandflies, causing canine leishmaniosis. The other organisms have different transmission routes such as ingestion or mosquito vectors.

Question 9General Veterinary Knowledge

What is the normal rectal temperature range for a healthy adult dog?

  1. 40.0 to 41.5 degrees Celsius
  2. 37.5 to 39.2 degrees Celsius Correct answer.
  3. 33.0 to 34.5 degrees Celsius
  4. 35.0 to 36.5 degrees Celsius

Explanation

Canine core temperature is normally around 37.5 to 39.2 degrees Celsius. Values outside this range suggest hypothermia or fever and require clinical interpretation.

Question 10General Veterinary Knowledge

Which suture pattern is best suited for apposing the edges of a skin incision while everting the wound margins?

  1. Simple interrupted Correct answer.
  2. Cushing
  3. Simple continuous
  4. Purse-string

Explanation

Simple interrupted sutures provide secure, individually adjustable apposition of skin edges and allow removal of single sutures if needed. They are the standard choice for routine skin closure.

Question 11General Veterinary Knowledge

Which of the following is the primary route of excretion for most volatile anesthetic agents?

  1. Mammary secretion
  2. Renal filtration
  3. Biliary secretion
  4. Exhalation through the lungs Correct answer.

Explanation

Volatile anesthetics are eliminated largely unchanged by the lungs, with the rate depending on alveolar ventilation and blood solubility. Metabolism and renal or biliary routes play only a minor role.

Question 12General Veterinary Knowledge

Which clinical sign is most characteristic of pain in a horse with acute laminitis?

  1. Weight shifting and reluctance to move Correct answer.
  2. Frequent urination
  3. Increased appetite
  4. Bright and alert posture with normal gait

Explanation

Acute laminitis causes severe foot pain, leading to weight shifting, a stiff gait, and reluctance to move. The horse often adopts a posture with weight shifted to the hindlimbs.

Question 13General Veterinary Knowledge

Which cell type produces antibodies?

  1. Plasma cell Correct answer.
  2. Erythrocyte
  3. Platelet
  4. Neutrophil

Explanation

Plasma cells are terminally differentiated B lymphocytes that secrete antibodies. Neutrophils are phagocytes, erythrocytes carry oxygen, and platelets mediate hemostasis.

Question 14General Veterinary Knowledge

A puppy is presented with vomiting and diarrhea after ingesting rat poison. Which rodenticide class causes delayed coagulopathy through inhibition of vitamin K epoxide reductase?

  1. Cholecalciferol rodenticides
  2. Metaldehyde molluscicides
  3. Anticoagulant rodenticides Correct answer.
  4. Bromethalin rodenticides

Explanation

Anticoagulant rodenticides inhibit vitamin K epoxide reductase, depleting active vitamin K and clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, causing delayed hemorrhage. Treatment involves vitamin K1 supplementation.

Question 15General Veterinary Knowledge

Which zoonotic disease is caused by a bacterium shed in the urine of infected rodents and can cause febrile illness in humans?

  1. Tetanus
  2. Leptospirosis Correct answer.
  3. Rabies
  4. Brucellosis

Explanation

Leptospira interrogans is shed in rodent and animal urine and can infect humans through contact with contaminated water or tissues, causing febrile illness with possible hepatic and renal involvement.

Question 16General Veterinary Knowledge

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a preanesthetic physical examination?

  1. To identify risk factors and tailor the anesthetic protocol Correct answer.
  2. To replace the need for blood work
  3. To determine the exact surgical diagnosis
  4. To guarantee an uneventful recovery

Explanation

A preanesthetic examination identifies cardiovascular, respiratory, and other risk factors so the anesthetic protocol can be individualized. It complements, but does not replace, diagnostic testing.

Question 17General Veterinary Knowledge

Which structure prevents backflow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium?

  1. Tricuspid valve Correct answer.
  2. Pulmonary valve
  3. Mitral valve
  4. Aortic valve

Explanation

The tricuspid valve sits between the right atrium and right ventricle and prevents regurgitation during ventricular systole. The mitral valve is on the left side, and the semilunar valves guard ventricular outflow.

Question 18General Veterinary Knowledge

A herd of pigs shows high mortality with neurologic signs, and Streptococcus suis is suspected. Which additional finding most supports this diagnosis?

  1. Bleeding from the umbilicus
  2. Severe anemia with jaundice
  3. Chronic weight loss with emaciation
  4. Purulent meningitis on postmortem examination Correct answer.

Explanation

Streptococcus suis commonly causes purulent meningitis, with inflammation of the meninges and neurologic signs in young pigs. The other findings are not typical of this infection.

Question 19General Veterinary Knowledge

Which of the following correctly describes the difference between bactericidal and bacteriostatic antibiotics?

  1. Both terms refer to the same mechanism of action
  2. Bactericidal agents kill bacteria, while bacteriostatic agents inhibit their growth Correct answer.
  3. Bactericidal agents inhibit growth, while bacteriostatic agents kill bacteria
  4. Bactericidal agents act only on gram-positive organisms

Explanation

Bactericidal antibiotics kill the organism, whereas bacteriostatic antibiotics inhibit replication and rely on host defenses for clearance. This distinction guides drug selection in certain infections.

Question 20General Veterinary Knowledge

Which diagnostic test is most appropriate to confirm pregnancy in a mare at approximately 16 days after ovulation?

  1. Transrectal ultrasonography Correct answer.
  2. Rumen fluid analysis
  3. Bone marrow biopsy
  4. Abdominal radiography

Explanation

Transrectal ultrasonography reliably detects the embryonic vesicle in the uterus from around day 14 to 16, allowing early pregnancy diagnosis. Radiography and other listed tests are not applicable.

Question 21General Veterinary Knowledge

Which of the following is the correct definition of the term 'zoonosis'?

  1. A disease limited to wild animals
  2. A disease transmissible between animals and humans Correct answer.
  3. A congenital malformation
  4. A disease caused only by viruses

Explanation

A zoonosis is an infectious disease that can be transmitted between animals and humans, either directly or through vectors or food. It is not restricted by pathogen type or host species.

Question 22General Veterinary Knowledge

A dog with diabetes mellitus is poorly regulated. Which complication should be monitored for by measuring urine ketones?

  1. Diabetic ketoacidosis Correct answer.
  2. Pancreatic exocrine insufficiency
  3. Hyperadrenocorticism
  4. Hypothyroidism

Explanation

Insufficient insulin permits lipolysis and ketone production, leading to ketoacidosis, which is detected by urine or blood ketone measurement. Poor regulation is a major risk factor.

Question 23General Veterinary Knowledge

Which of the following is an appropriate first-line approach to a dog in status epilepticus?

  1. Give oral phenobarbital and discharge
  2. Administer a benzodiazepine such as diazepam intravenously Correct answer.
  3. Apply a cold water bath
  4. Wait for the seizure to resolve spontaneously

Explanation

Status epilepticus is a medical emergency requiring rapid termination of seizure activity, and intravenous benzodiazepines are first-line therapy. Delaying treatment risks neuronal injury and systemic complications.

Question 24General Veterinary Knowledge

Which of the following best explains why young animals often require higher drug doses per kilogram than adults for some drugs?

  1. Greater total body water and lower plasma protein binding Correct answer.
  2. Higher hepatic enzyme activity than adults
  3. Lower metabolic rate
  4. Increased fat content

Explanation

Neonates have a higher proportion of total body water and lower plasma protein concentrations, increasing the volume of distribution for water-soluble drugs. This can lower plasma concentrations and alter dosing requirements.

Question 25General Veterinary Knowledge

Which of the following is the main function of neutrophils in the inflammatory response?

  1. Oxygen transport
  2. Release of histamine in allergic reactions
  3. Antibody production
  4. Phagocytosis of bacteria Correct answer.

Explanation

Neutrophils are the predominant phagocytes in acute inflammation, migrating to the site to engulf and destroy bacteria. Antibodies come from plasma cells and histamine from mast cells.

Question 26General Veterinary Knowledge

Which species is a hindgut fermenter in which microbial digestion occurs mainly in the cecum and large colon?

  1. Horse Correct answer.
  2. Rabbit
  3. Cat
  4. Dog

Explanation

Horses rely on a voluminous cecum and large colon harboring symbiotic microbes that ferment fibrous plant material into volatile fatty acids. This contrasts with foregut fermenters such as ruminants.

Question 27General Veterinary Knowledge

Which procedure is used to restore patency of a blocked tear duct (nasolacrimal duct) in a dog?

  1. Enucleation
  2. Nasolacrimal cannulation and flushing Correct answer.
  3. Third eyelid flap
  4. Tarsorrhaphy

Explanation

Cannulating the lacrimal punctum and flushing saline through the nasolacrimal duct clears obstructions and confirms patency by fluid exiting the nostril. It is the standard diagnostic and therapeutic approach for epiphora due to duct blockage.

Question 28General Veterinary Knowledge

Which of the following is a notifiable (reportable) viral disease of livestock characterized by vesicles on the tongue, teats, and feet?

  1. Brucellosis
  2. Mastitis
  3. Foot-and-mouth disease Correct answer.
  4. Ringworm

Explanation

Foot-and-mouth disease is a highly contagious picornavirus infection of cloven-hoofed animals producing vesicles on the oral mucosa, teats, and coronary bands. Because of its economic impact it must be reported to veterinary authorities.

Question 29General Veterinary Knowledge

A 6-year-old dog presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and dilute urine, and a water deprivation test fails to concentrate the urine. Which condition is most consistent with these findings?

  1. Hyperadrenocorticism
  2. Diabetes insipidus Correct answer.
  3. Acute renal failure
  4. Pyometra

Explanation

Failure to concentrate urine after water deprivation indicates a defect in antidiuretic hormone secretion or response, the hallmark of diabetes insipidus. Central and nephrogenic forms can be distinguished with a desmopressin (ADH) response test.

Question 30General Veterinary Knowledge

Which vaccine type consists of a live organism that has been attenuated so it replicates without causing disease and generally stimulates strong, long-lasting immunity?

  1. Subunit vaccine
  2. Toxoid vaccine
  3. Modified-live vaccine Correct answer.
  4. Killed vaccine

Explanation

Modified-live vaccines contain attenuated organisms capable of limited replication, which mimics natural infection and elicits robust humoral and cell-mediated immunity. They typically require fewer boosters than killed products but may be unsuitable in immunocompromised animals.

Question 31General Veterinary Knowledge

Which of the following best describes the purpose of aseptic technique during surgery?

  1. To reduce the amount of anesthetic required
  2. To speed healing by increasing blood flow to the wound
  3. To minimize contamination of the surgical site and wound by microorganisms Correct answer.
  4. To prevent postoperative pain

Explanation

Aseptic technique-including sterile drapes, gowns, gloves, and instrument handling-reduces microbial contamination of the surgical field and thereby lowers surgical site infection rates. It does not directly influence anesthesia depth, perfusion, or analgesia.

Question 32General Veterinary Knowledge

A farmer reports sudden deaths in a group of young calves with muscle tremors and a history of grazing on lush pasture; blood magnesium is low. Which condition is most likely?

  1. Hypocalcemia
  2. Hypomagnesemic tetany Correct answer.
  3. Bloat
  4. Ketosis

Explanation

Low magnesium in rapidly growing pasture, especially in cool wet weather, impairs neuromuscular function and causes tetany, often with sudden death in calves. Treatment is intravenous magnesium and supportive care.

Question 33General Veterinary Knowledge

Which of the following is the most appropriate method to confirm a diagnosis of canine parvovirus infection in a young puppy with bloody diarrhea?

  1. Complete blood count showing neutrophilia
  2. Fecal antigen test (ELISA) Correct answer.
  3. Abdominal radiography
  4. Serum biochemistry panel

Explanation

A fecal antigen ELISA detects viral antigen shed in the feces and provides rapid confirmation of parvovirus. It is the standard point-of-care test, though vaccination within the previous weeks can cause false positives.

Question 34General Veterinary Knowledge

Which of the following best explains why a veterinarian should avoid using a fluoroquinolone in a young, growing dog?

  1. It causes hemolysis in dogs
  2. It is poorly absorbed after oral administration
  3. It can damage developing cartilage in weight-bearing joints Correct answer.
  4. It is inactivated by gastric acid

Explanation

Fluoroquinolones have been associated with arthropathy and cartilage lesions in growing animals, so they are generally avoided in immature dogs. They are otherwise well absorbed orally and not markedly acid-labile.

Question 35General Veterinary Knowledge

A horse with colic has a distended abdomen and a high-pitched ping on auscultation of the left flank; rectal examination reveals a markedly distended large colon displaced to the left. Which condition is most likely?

  1. Left dorsal displacement of the large colon Correct answer.
  2. Gastric ulceration
  3. Small intestinal strangulation
  4. Sand enteropathy

Explanation

Left dorsal displacement (nephrosplenic entrapment) of the large colon produces a distended left flank and a characteristic ping, with the colon displaced over the nephrosplenic ligament. Diagnosis is confirmed by rectal palpation and ultrasonography.

Question 36General Veterinary Knowledge

Which of the following is the main reason for performing a complete blood count in a sick animal?

  1. To measure serum electrolytes and renal values
  2. To measure hormone concentrations
  3. To assess red cell, white cell, and platelet populations Correct answer.
  4. To identify bacteria in a urine sample

Explanation

A CBC quantifies erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets and evaluates their morphology, helping detect anemia, inflammation, infection, or marrow disorders. Chemistry panels and urinalysis cover other aspects such as electrolytes and renal function.

Question 37General Veterinary Knowledge

A dog with chronic kidney disease is fed a renal diet. Which dietary modification is most appropriate to slow progression?

  1. Restricting dietary phosphorus Correct answer.
  2. Increasing dietary sodium
  3. Increasing dietary protein
  4. Increasing dietary calcium

Explanation

Phosphate retention contributes to renal secondary hyperparathyroidism and progression of chronic kidney disease, so restricting dietary phosphorus is a cornerstone of management. Moderate protein restriction and blood pressure control are also used.

Question 38General Veterinary Knowledge

Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) reduces inflammation?

  1. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase, reducing prostaglandin synthesis Correct answer.
  2. Blockade of histamine H1 receptors
  3. Activation of opioid receptors
  4. Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis

Explanation

NSAIDs inhibit cyclooxygenase enzymes, decreasing synthesis of prostaglandins that mediate pain, fever, and inflammation. Selective COX-2 inhibitors spare some gastrointestinal prostaglandins but still carry renal risks.

Question 39General Veterinary Knowledge

A herd experiences late-term abortions and retained placentas; serology in a cow is positive for a bacterium that localizes to the placenta and causes cotyledonary necrosis. Which organism is most likely?

  1. Campylobacter fetus
  2. Brucella abortus Correct answer.
  3. Escherichia coli
  4. Leptospira interrogans

Explanation

Brucella abortus infects the placenta, causing necrosis of the cotyledons and late-term abortion with retained fetal membranes. It is a zoonotic pathogen and a reportable disease in many countries.

Question 40General Veterinary Knowledge

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in managing a dog with a suspected acute anaphylactic reaction after a vaccine?

  1. Perform an abdominal radiograph before treatment
  2. Administer a corticosteroid alone and recheck in 24 hours
  3. Administer epinephrine and provide intravenous fluid support Correct answer.
  4. Give an oral antihistamine and observe at home

Explanation

Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate epinephrine to reverse vasodilation and bronchoconstriction, along with intravenous fluids and oxygen. Antihistamines and steroids are adjuncts, not first-line therapy.

Question 41Veterinary Anatomy and Physiology

Which type of muscle tissue is under voluntary control and shows striations under the microscope?

  1. Myoepithelial tissue
  2. Skeletal muscle Correct answer.
  3. Cardiac muscle
  4. Smooth muscle

Explanation

Skeletal muscle is innervated by somatic motor neurons, giving voluntary control, and its sarcomeres produce visible cross-striations. Cardiac muscle is striated but involuntary, and smooth muscle is neither striated nor voluntary.

Question 42Veterinary Anatomy and Physiology

In the mammalian heart, which chamber pumps oxygenated blood into the systemic circulation?

  1. Right ventricle
  2. Left atrium
  3. Left ventricle Correct answer.
  4. Right atrium

Explanation

The left ventricle receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium and ejects it into the aorta against high resistance, so its wall is the thickest. The right side handles deoxygenated blood destined for the lungs.

Question 43Veterinary Anatomy and Physiology

Which blood cell type in mammals is primarily responsible for phagocytosis of pathogens and cellular debris?

  1. Neutrophil Correct answer.
  2. Lymphocyte
  3. Thrombocyte
  4. Erythrocyte

Explanation

Neutrophils are granulocytes that migrate to sites of inflammation and engulf microbes by phagocytosis. Erythrocytes transport gases, thrombocytes support haemostasis, and lymphocytes mediate specific immune recognition.

Question 44Veterinary Anatomy and Physiology

Which structure connects a muscle to bone and transmits the force of contraction?

  1. Ligament
  2. Fascia
  3. Tendon Correct answer.
  4. Aponeurosis

Explanation

A tendon is dense regular connective tissue that joins muscle to bone and conducts tensile force. Ligaments join bone to bone, while fascia and aponeuroses are broader connective sheets.

Question 45Veterinary Anatomy and Physiology

Which part of the brain is the principal centre for regulating body temperature, thirst, and hunger?

  1. Medulla oblongata
  2. Hypothalamus Correct answer.
  3. Thalamus
  4. Cerebellum

Explanation

The hypothalamus contains nuclei that integrate autonomic and endocrine output to maintain homeostasis, including thermoregulation and water balance. The cerebellum coordinates movement, the medulla controls vital reflexes, and the thalamus relays sensory information.

Question 46Veterinary Anatomy and Physiology

Which organ is the primary site of nutrient absorption in the monogastric digestive tract?

  1. Oesophagus
  2. Stomach
  3. Large intestine
  4. Small intestine Correct answer.

Explanation

The small intestine has villi and microvilli that greatly expand surface area, and its brush-border enzymes complete digestion while absorption of most nutrients occurs. The large intestine mainly absorbs water and electrolytes.

Question 47Veterinary Anatomy and Physiology

Which structure in the kidney is the functional unit responsible for forming urine?

  1. Nephron Correct answer.
  2. Ureter
  3. Renal pelvis
  4. Renal capsule

Explanation

The nephron comprises the glomerulus, renal tubules, and collecting duct, where filtration, reabsorption, and secretion produce urine. The renal pelvis and ureter are conducting structures, and the capsule is a fibrous covering.

Question 48Veterinary Anatomy and Physiology

Which gas exchange surface is characteristic of the mammalian lung?

  1. Cutaneous surface
  2. Gill lamellae
  3. Tracheal tubes
  4. Alveoli Correct answer.

Explanation

Alveoli are thin-walled sacs surrounded by capillaries, giving a large surface area for diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Gills, tracheal tubes, and skin are respiratory surfaces of other animal groups.

Question 49Veterinary Anatomy and Physiology

During the cardiac cycle, what happens during ventricular systole?

  1. The atria contract while ventricles relax
  2. The semilunar valves open and blood is ejected Correct answer.
  3. The semilunar valves close and ventricles fill
  4. The atrioventricular valves open and ventricles fill

Explanation

Ventricular contraction raises intraventricular pressure above arterial pressure, forcing the semilunar valves open and ejecting blood into the aorta and pulmonary artery. Atrioventricular valves close at the onset of systole to prevent backflow.

Question 50Veterinary Anatomy and Physiology

A dog has a lesion damaging the motor neurons supplying the hind limb. Which functional consequence is most directly expected?

  1. Loss of sensation from the limb
  2. Weakness or paralysis of the limb muscles Correct answer.
  3. Increased glandular secretion in the limb
  4. Loss of pain perception in the limb

Explanation

Lower motor neurons carry impulses from the spinal cord to skeletal muscle, so their damage produces weakness, atrophy, and reduced reflexes in the affected muscles. Sensory and autonomic functions depend on different nerve populations.