COF flashcards

32 cards. Read the term and the definition here. The deck at the top of this page is optional.

Bradycardia

A resting heart rate below 60 beats per minute in an adult. It may be normal in athletes or indicate conduction disorders, medication effects, or hypothyroidism.

Tachypnea

A respiratory rate above 20 breaths per minute in an adult. It can reflect fever, pain, hypoxia, anxiety, or metabolic acidosis and warrants assessment of oxygenation.

Hypoglycemia threshold

Blood glucose below 70 mg/dL. Typical features include diaphoresis, tremor, palpitations, confusion, and hunger; severe cases progress to seizure or loss of consciousness.

Hemoglobin A1c

A measure of average blood glucose over roughly the prior two to three months. A value of 6.5 percent or higher on two occasions supports a diabetes diagnosis.

Standard precautions

Infection control practices applied to all patients, treating every blood and body fluid as potentially infectious. They include hand hygiene and appropriate gloves, gown, mask, and eye protection.

Body mass index

Weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared. A value of 18.5 to 24.9 falls in the normal range for adults.

SOAP note

A structured progress note organized as Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan. It separates patient-reported information from clinician findings and the resulting plan.

Sensitivity

The proportion of people with disease who test positive. A highly sensitive test is useful for ruling out a condition when the result is negative.

Specificity

The proportion of people without disease who test negative. A highly specific test is useful for ruling in a condition when the result is positive.

Positive predictive value

The probability that a person with a positive test truly has the disease. It depends on disease prevalence in the tested population as well as test accuracy.

Sign versus symptom

A sign is an objective finding observed or measured by the clinician, such as a rash or elevated blood pressure. A symptom is a subjective experience reported by the patient.

Differential diagnosis

A ranked list of candidate conditions that could explain a patient's presentation. Candidates are ordered by likelihood, severity, and treatability before confirmatory testing.

Red-flag findings

Clinical features suggesting serious underlying disease, such as sudden severe pain, unexplained weight loss, or focal neurologic deficit. They prompt urgent evaluation or referral.

Informed consent elements

Disclosure of the nature of the intervention, its risks and benefits, reasonable alternatives, and the consequences of refusal. Consent must be voluntary and may be withdrawn at any time.

Therapeutic index

The ratio of a drug's toxic dose to its effective dose. A narrow index means therapeutic and harmful doses are close, so closer monitoring is required.

Polypharmacy

Concurrent use of five or more medications. It raises risk of drug interactions, adverse effects, and adherence problems, and warrants periodic medication review.

Five rights of medication administration

The checks performed before giving a drug: right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, and right time. They reduce preventable medication errors.

SMART treatment goals

Goals framed as specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound. This structure allows objective reassessment of progress at a scheduled interval.

Four bioethical principles

Autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, and justice. These principles frame ethical reasoning in clinical decisions, especially when duties to the patient conflict.

Negligence elements

Four elements must be shown: a duty of care existed, the duty was breached, the breach caused harm, and damages resulted. All four are required.

Scope of practice

The set of tasks and responsibilities a clinician may legally perform under a specific license or certification. Practicing outside it creates legal and safety risk.

Mandatory reporting

Legal obligations to report specified events such as suspected child abuse, elder abuse, or certain communicable diseases to designated authorities, even absent patient consent.

HIPAA breach notification

A breach affecting 500 or more individuals requires notifying affected persons without unreasonable delay and no later than 60 days after discovery.

Confidentiality exception

Patient information may be disclosed without authorization only where law requires it or where serious imminent harm to an identifiable third party exists.

Teach-back method

A communication technique in which the patient restates instructions in their own words. It verifies comprehension rather than assuming the message was understood.

Health literacy

The capacity to obtain, process, and understand health information needed to make decisions. Low health literacy is common and calls for plain-language materials and confirmation of understanding.

Late entry documentation

An addition made to a record after the fact, entered with the current date and time plus a note of when the event actually occurred. Entries are never backdated.

Medical interpreter use

Clinical discussions with limited-English-proficiency patients should use qualified medical interpreters rather than family members, to ensure accuracy and confidentiality.

Records release authorization

Written patient authorization is generally required before releasing records, except for treatment, payment, and health care operations purposes permitted by law.

Sharps container standard

Containers must be puncture-resistant, closable, leakproof, and labeled with a biohazard warning. They are replaced when about three-quarters full to prevent injury.

RACE fire response

The sequence Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish or Evacuate. It prioritizes removing people from danger before containing the fire and extinguishing or evacuating.

Safety Data Sheet

A document summarizing a chemical's hazards, handling precautions, and emergency measures. It must be accessible to staff wherever the substance is stored or used.