ABPath Hematopathology flashcards
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- Bone marrow cellularity estimate
- Cellularity is estimated as 100 minus the patient's age in years; a 60-year-old therefore has approximately 40% marrow cellularity.
- M:E ratio
- The ratio of myeloid to erythroid cells in marrow; normal is 2:1 to 4:1, increased in granulocytic hyperplasia and decreased in erythroid hyperplasia.
- Reticulin fibrosis grading
- Bone marrow reticulin is graded MF-0 to MF-3; MF-2 shows diffuse dense reticulin, and MF-3 adds collagen fibrosis or osteosclerosis.
- Blast percentage threshold
- Acute leukemia is generally diagnosed when blasts are at least 20% of blood or marrow cells, except APL with t(15;17), which is diagnostic regardless.
- Embryonic hematopoiesis sites
- Hematopoiesis begins in the yolk sac at about 3 weeks, moves to the liver by 6 weeks, and to bone marrow by 20 weeks of gestation.
- Hemoglobin switching
- Embryonic hemoglobins are replaced by fetal HbF (alpha2 gamma2), then by adult HbA (alpha2 beta2) after birth; adult HbF is below 2%.
- CD34 stem cell marker
- CD34 identifies hematopoietic stem and progenitor cells; lineage markers include CD19 for B cells, CD3 for T cells, and CD13/CD33 for myeloid cells.
- Clonal hematopoiesis of indeterminate potential
- CHIP is a somatic mutation with variant allele frequency at least 2% in blood or marrow without cytopenia or dysplasia; common genes are DNMT3A, TET2, ASXL1.
- Reticulocyte index formula
- Reticulocyte index equals reticulocyte percentage multiplied by patient hematocrit divided by normal hematocrit; a value above 2 suggests adequate marrow response.
- Iron deficiency ferritin cutoff
- Serum ferritin below 30 ng/mL strongly supports iron deficiency; ferritin is an acute-phase reactant and may be normal or high with inflammation.
- Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
- Warm AIHA is caused by IgG antibodies that bind red cells at 37 degrees Celsius; the direct antiglobulin test is positive for IgG, and spherocytes are seen.
- Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria flow
- PNH is diagnosed by flow cytometry showing loss of CD55 and CD59 on red cells and loss of CD24 or CD14 on granulocytes.
- Absolute neutrophil count
- ANC equals the white blood cell count multiplied by the percentage of segmented plus band neutrophils; severe neutropenia is ANC below 500/microliter.
- CML genetic hallmark
- Chronic myeloid leukemia is defined by t(9;22) forming BCR::ABL1; the smear shows basophilia and a full myeloid left shift.
- Acute promyelocytic leukemia
- APL has t(15;17) PML::RARA, often with DIC and Auer rods; it is treated urgently with ATRA and arsenic trioxide.
- MDS ring sideroblast threshold
- Ring sideroblasts are erythroid precursors with at least five iron granules encircling one-third of the nucleus; at least 5% supports MDS with SF3B1 mutation.
- CLL immunophenotype
- CLL cells are CD5 positive, CD23 positive, CD20 dim, and surface immunoglobulin dim; smudge cells are common on the blood smear.
- Mantle cell lymphoma marker
- Mantle cell lymphoma is CD5 positive, CD23 negative, and cyclin D1 positive due to t(11;14); it is generally more aggressive than CLL.
- Hairy cell leukemia markers
- Hairy cell leukemia expresses CD11c, CD25, CD103, and CD123; it is TRAP positive and commonly has BRAF V600E mutation.
- Hodgkin Reed-Sternberg phenotype
- Classic Reed-Sternberg cells are CD15 positive, CD30 positive, CD45 negative, and PAX5 weak; nodular sclerosis is the most common subtype.
- Aplastic anemia diagnostic criteria
- Aplastic anemia shows pancytopenia with a hypocellular marrow; cellularity is below 25%, or below 30% with less than 50% residual hematopoietic cells.
- Leukoerythroblastic smear
- A leukoerythroblastic smear shows nucleated red cells and immature myeloid cells in blood; causes include marrow infiltration, myelofibrosis, and severe hemolysis.
- HLH diagnostic criteria
- HLH requires five of eight criteria: fever, splenomegaly, cytopenias, hypertriglyceridemia or hypofibrinogenemia, hemophagocytosis, low NK activity, high ferritin, high sIL-2R.
- ITP treatment threshold
- Immune thrombocytopenia usually requires treatment when platelets are below 30,000/microliter or when bleeding occurs; first-line options are corticosteroids and IVIG.
- TTP ADAMTS13 cutoff
- Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is diagnosed when ADAMTS13 activity is below 10%; treatment is urgent plasma exchange, not platelet transfusion.
- HIT 4Ts score
- The 4Ts score estimates heparin-induced thrombocytopenia probability using thrombocytopenia degree, timing, thrombosis, and other causes; stop heparin if intermediate or high.
- Glanzmann thrombasthenia defect
- Glanzmann thrombasthenia is a deficiency of platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa; platelets fail to aggregate with all agonists except ristocetin, and count is normal.
- PT versus aPTT
- PT measures extrinsic and common pathway factors, while aPTT measures intrinsic and common pathway factors; mixing studies distinguish factor deficiency from inhibitor.
- Factor V Leiden
- Factor V Leiden causes activated protein C resistance from a G1691A mutation; it is the most common inherited thrombophilia and increases venous thrombosis risk.
- DIC laboratory pattern
- Disseminated intravascular coagulation shows prolonged PT and aPTT, low fibrinogen, elevated D-dimer, thrombocytopenia, and schistocytes on the blood smear.
- Restrictive transfusion threshold
- For stable hospitalized adults, red cell transfusion is generally indicated when hemoglobin is below 7 g/dL; a threshold of 8 g/dL is used for cardiac surgery.
- Platelet transfusion prophylaxis
- Prophylactic platelet transfusion is typically given when the count is below 10,000/microliter; it is avoided in TTP and HIT unless active bleeding is present.