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Question 1Methodology
Which stain is used to assess bone marrow iron stores on an aspirate smear?
- Prussian blue Correct answer.
- Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase
- Sudan black B
- Periodic acid-Schiff
Explanation
Prussian blue reacts with ferric iron in hemosiderin and ferritin, producing blue granules that allow storage iron to be graded. It is the standard stain for evaluating marrow iron on aspirate particles.
Question 2Methodology
In flow cytometry, which marker is plotted against side scatter to identify the main leukocyte populations?
- CD34
- CD3
- CD19
- CD45 Correct answer.
Explanation
CD45 is the leukocyte common antigen, and its expression varies by lineage and maturity. Plotting CD45 against side scatter separates lymphocytes, monocytes, granulocytes, and blasts into characteristic regions.
Question 3Methodology
Which technique produces G-bands on metaphase chromosomes?
- Reverse banding with heat and Giemsa
- Silver staining of nucleolar organizer regions
- Quinacrine staining without pretreatment
- Giemsa staining after trypsin digestion Correct answer.
Explanation
G-banding uses trypsin to partially digest chromatin, followed by Giemsa staining, creating alternating light and dark bands used to identify chromosomes and abnormalities. Quinacrine produces Q-bands, silver stains nucleolar organizer regions, and heat-plus-Giemsa produces R-bands.
Question 4Methodology
A positive myeloperoxidase stain in a bone marrow smear supports which lineage?
- Myeloid Correct answer.
- Lymphoid
- Megakaryocytic
- Erythroid
Explanation
Myeloperoxidase is present in the primary granules of granulocytic and monocytic cells, so positivity supports myeloid lineage. Lymphoid, erythroid, and megakaryocytic cells are generally myeloperoxidase negative.
Question 5Methodology
Which anticoagulant is preferred for routine bone marrow aspirate morphology?
- Heparin
- Sodium oxalate
- EDTA Correct answer.
- Sodium citrate
Explanation
EDTA preserves cell morphology and prevents clotting for aspirate smears and cell counts. Heparin can produce background staining and platelet clumping, citrate dilutes the sample, and oxalate can alter cell morphology.
Question 6Methodology
Reticulocytes are best visualized with which stain?
- New methylene blue Correct answer.
- Periodic acid-Schiff
- Prussian blue
- Congo red
Explanation
New methylene blue precipitates residual ribosomal RNA in reticulocytes, producing a blue network that allows them to be counted. Wright-Giemsa can show polychromasia but is less reliable for reticulocyte counting.
Question 7Methodology
Which technique detects the t(9;22) BCR-ABL1 fusion in interphase nuclei?
- G-banded karyotype requiring dividing cells
- Southern blot analysis of digested DNA
- Sanger sequencing of a single amplicon
- Fluorescence in situ hybridization Correct answer.
Explanation
Fluorescence in situ hybridization uses fluorescent probes that hybridize to the BCR and ABL1 loci and can detect the fusion in interphase nuclei without metaphases. G-banded karyotype requires dividing cells, while Southern blot and Sanger sequencing are not routine fusion screens.
Question 8Methodology
Immunohistochemistry for CD61 on a bone marrow biopsy is used to highlight which lineage?
- Plasma cell
- Myeloid cell
- Megakaryocyte Correct answer.
- Erythroid cell
Explanation
CD61 is an integrin expressed on megakaryocytes and platelets and is a standard marker for megakaryocytic lineage. Erythroid, plasmacytic, and myeloid cells are generally CD61 negative.
Question 9Methodology
Which stain highlights reticulin fibers in a bone marrow biopsy?
- Congo red
- Masson trichrome
- Periodic acid-Schiff
- Silver impregnation Correct answer.
Explanation
Silver impregnation stains reticulin fibers black and is used to assess marrow fibrosis. Masson trichrome highlights collagen, Periodic acid-Schiff stains glycogen, and Congo red stains amyloid.
Question 10Methodology
JAK2 V617F testing for suspected myeloproliferative neoplasm is most commonly performed on which sample?
- Buccal swab
- Bone marrow biopsy tissue section
- Plasma supernatant
- Peripheral blood leukocytes Correct answer.
Explanation
JAK2 V617F is a somatic mutation in myeloid cells, so peripheral blood leukocytes are the usual and adequate sample. Bone marrow is not required for this mutation, buccal swabs test germline DNA, and plasma lacks cellular DNA.
Question 11Methodology
Which assay is a widely used confirmatory test for lupus anticoagulant?
- Prothrombin time with thromboplastin reagent
- Dilute Russell viper venom time Correct answer.
- Fibrinogen assay by Clauss method
- Thrombin time using exogenous thrombin
Explanation
The dilute Russell viper venom time is sensitive to lupus anticoagulants and is commonly used with a mixing or confirmatory step. Prothrombin time, thrombin time, and fibrinogen assays assess different pathways or fibrinogen and are not confirmatory for lupus anticoagulant.
Question 12Methodology
Which method is standard for quantifying hemoglobin A2 in beta-thalassemia trait?
- G6PD enzyme assay for oxidative hemolysis
- Direct antiglobulin test for antibody coating
- Osmotic fragility testing of red cells
- High-performance liquid chromatography Correct answer.
Explanation
High-performance liquid chromatography separates and quantifies hemoglobin fractions, including HbA2, which is typically elevated in beta-thalassemia trait. Osmotic fragility, direct antiglobulin testing, and G6PD testing evaluate different red cell disorders.
Question 13Methodology
Quantitative reverse-transcription PCR for BCR-ABL1 is used mainly to:
- Establish lineage of blasts
- Assess platelet function
- Detect iron overload
- Monitor treatment response Correct answer.
Explanation
Quantitative reverse-transcription PCR measures BCR-ABL1 transcript levels and is the standard method for monitoring tyrosine kinase inhibitor response and measurable residual disease in CML. It does not determine lineage, iron status, or platelet function.
Question 14Methodology
Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase staining is classically positive in which disorder?
- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
- Acute promyelocytic leukemia
- Multiple myeloma
- Hairy cell leukemia Correct answer.
Explanation
Hairy cell leukemia cells classically show tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase positivity that resists tartrate inhibition. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia, acute promyelocytic leukemia, and multiple myeloma are not defined by this staining pattern.
Question 15Methodology
Congo red staining with apple-green birefringence under polarized light identifies which deposit?
- Fibrin
- Amyloid Correct answer.
- Lipofuscin
- Hemosiderin
Explanation
Congo red binds amyloid fibrils and produces apple-green birefringence under polarized light. Hemosiderin is highlighted by Prussian blue, fibrin by trichrome or related stains, and lipofuscin is a wear-and-tear pigment.
Question 16Methodology
Which technique is best for detecting a cryptic PML-RARA fusion when karyotype is normal?
- Reticulin stain
- FISH with a PML-RARA probe Correct answer.
- Serum protein electrophoresis with immunofixation
- Flow cytometric CD45 gating
Explanation
FISH with PML and RARA probes detects the fusion even when metaphases are normal or unavailable. Serum protein electrophoresis, reticulin staining, and CD45 gating do not detect this specific gene fusion.
Question 17Methodology
In bone marrow examination, which feature is best evaluated on the core biopsy rather than the aspirate smear?
- Marrow cellularity Correct answer.
- Neutrophil nuclear segmentation
- Platelet morphology and clumping
- Rouleaux formation on smears
Explanation
The core biopsy preserves marrow architecture and allows overall cellularity, topography, and fibrosis to be assessed. Neutrophil segmentation, platelet morphology, and rouleaux are better evaluated on aspirate or peripheral blood smears.
Question 18Methodology
Which molecular method is most appropriate for detecting a known single-nucleotide variant with high sensitivity?
- Allele-specific real-time PCR Correct answer.
- G-banded karyotype of metaphase cells
- Standard Sanger sequencing of the region
- Reticulin staining of the biopsy
Explanation
Allele-specific real-time PCR uses primers designed for the exact variant and can detect low-level mutant alleles. Sanger sequencing has lower sensitivity, karyotype detects chromosomal changes, and reticulin staining is histologic.
Question 19Methodology
Which flow cytometric finding supports a diagnosis of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?
- Strong CD34 expression on neutrophils
- Loss of CD55 and CD59 Correct answer.
- Coexpression of CD19 and CD5 on T cells
- Increased CD45 on erythrocytes
Explanation
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria results from loss of glycosylphosphatidylinositol-anchored proteins, including CD55 and CD59, on red cells and granulocytes. CD34 marks immaturity, CD19 with CD5 is a T-cell lymphoma pattern, and CD45 is not increased on erythrocytes.
Question 20Methodology
A bone marrow aspirate is markedly hemodiluted, but the core biopsy shows 60% cellularity. Which conclusion is most appropriate?
- The biopsy better reflects true cellularity Correct answer.
- The core biopsy is uninterpretable because the aspirate is diluted
- The aspirate should be used to exclude myelofibrosis confidently
- The aspirate cellularity accurately reflects a hypercellular marrow
Explanation
Hemodilution from peripheral blood falsely lowers aspirate cellularity, so the core biopsy is preferred for assessing overall cellularity and architecture. The biopsy remains interpretable and is not invalidated by a diluted aspirate.
Question 21Methodology
In a mixing study, the APTT corrects immediately after 1:1 mixing with normal plasma and remains corrected after 2 hours of incubation. What is the most likely cause?
- A specific factor inhibitor
- Factor deficiency Correct answer.
- Lupus anticoagulant
- Unfractionated heparin
Explanation
Immediate and sustained correction indicates a factor deficiency, because normal plasma supplies the missing factor. Inhibitors and lupus anticoagulants typically fail to correct or show time-dependent behavior, and heparin may prolong the mixing study.
Question 22Methodology
Which flow cytometric strategy best distinguishes minimal residual disease in B-ALL after therapy?
- CD45 intensity measured alone on all nucleated cells without other markers
- Morphologic blast count alone without immunophenotypic markers
- Forward and side scatter gating alone without lineage markers
- Leukemia-associated immunophenotype with CD45/SSC and B-cell markers Correct answer.
Explanation
Minimal residual disease flow cytometry uses leukemia-associated immunophenotypic aberrations and multiple B-cell markers to identify rare residual blasts against normal hematogones. CD45/SSC gating alone or morphology lacks the needed sensitivity and specificity.
Question 23Methodology
Which molecular assay has the greatest sensitivity for monitoring deep molecular response in CML?
- Fluorescence in situ hybridization
- Droplet digital PCR Correct answer.
- G-banded karyotype
- Standard RQ-PCR
Explanation
Droplet digital PCR partitions DNA into many reactions and can detect very low BCR-ABL1 levels with high precision, exceeding standard RQ-PCR in deep response. Karyotype and FISH are less sensitive for minimal residual disease.
Question 24Methodology
A dual-color dual-fusion FISH probe set for BCR-ABL1 is applied to a normal metaphase. How many fusion signals are expected?
- Zero Correct answer.
- Two
- One
- Three
Explanation
In a normal cell, the BCR and ABL1 probes remain on separate chromosomes, producing separate red and green signals without fusion. A t(9;22) cell typically shows two fusion signals with this probe design.
Question 25Hematopoiesis
Which cell-surface antigen is most widely used to identify human hematopoietic stem and progenitor cells for enumeration and selection?
- CD34 Correct answer.
- CD3
- CD66b
- CD19
Explanation
CD34 is expressed on hematopoietic stem cells and early progenitors and is lost as cells commit to mature lineages. It is therefore the standard marker for progenitor enumeration and selection. The other markers are lineage-restricted to T cells, B cells, or granulocytes.
Question 26Hematopoiesis
Which is the earliest morphologically recognizable cell in the erythroid lineage?
- Orthochromic normoblast
- Proerythroblast Correct answer.
- Basophilic normoblast
- Polychromatophilic normoblast
Explanation
The proerythroblast is the first erythroid precursor that can be recognized by light microscopy. It is large with a prominent nucleolus and basophilic cytoplasm. Subsequent maturation proceeds through basophilic, polychromatophilic, and orthochromic normoblasts.
Question 27Hematopoiesis
At which stage of granulopoiesis do primary (azurophilic) granules first become prominent?
- Metamyelocyte
- Band neutrophil
- Promyelocyte Correct answer.
- Myeloblast
Explanation
Primary granules appear during the promyelocyte stage, when the cell is still relatively large and basophilic. Secondary granules begin to accumulate at the myelocyte stage. Later forms such as metamyelocytes and band neutrophils contain both granule types but are not the first to show primary granules.
Question 28Hematopoiesis
Which hemoglobin predominates in the red cells of healthy adults?
- HbA2
- HbH
- HbA Correct answer.
- HbF
Explanation
Adult hemoglobin A, composed of two alpha and two beta chains, makes up the vast majority of hemoglobin after infancy. HbF is the major fetal hemoglobin, and HbA2 is a minor adult fraction. HbH is an abnormal beta-chain tetramer seen in alpha-thalassemia.
Question 29Hematopoiesis
A reticulocyte is distinguished from a mature erythrocyte mainly by the presence of which feature?
- Nuclear DNA
- Cytoplasmic granules
- Residual RNA Correct answer.
- Hemoglobin crystals
Explanation
Reticulocytes retain residual ribosomal RNA and organelles for a short period after enucleation, which is why they stain with supravital dyes such as new methylene blue. Mature erythrocytes have lost this RNA. Neither mature erythrocytes nor reticulocytes normally contain a nucleus.
Question 30Hematopoiesis
What is the approximate normal bone marrow cellularity in a healthy 40-year-old?
- 100%
- 80%
- 50% Correct answer.
- 20%
Explanation
Bone marrow cellularity declines with age and is often estimated as roughly 100 minus age, so a 40-year-old would be expected to have cellularity near 50% to 60%. Among the choices, 50% is the appropriate approximate value. Marked deviations suggest hypocellular or hypercellular marrow disorders.
Question 31Hematopoiesis
Which enzyme catalyzes the final step of heme biosynthesis?
- ALA synthase
- Porphobilinogen deaminase
- ALA dehydratase
- Ferrochelatase Correct answer.
Explanation
Ferrochelatase inserts ferrous iron into protoporphyrin IX to form heme, completing the pathway. ALA synthase catalyzes the committed first step, while the other enzymes act at earlier intermediate steps. Deficiency of ferrochelatase causes erythropoietic protoporphyria.
Question 32Hematopoiesis
In adults, erythropoietin is produced mainly by which renal cells?
- Renal tubular cells
- Renal peritubular cells Correct answer.
- Hepatic stellate cells
- Bone marrow macrophages
Explanation
Erythropoietin is synthesized predominantly by peritubular interstitial fibroblast-like cells in the kidney, which sense hypoxia through the HIF pathway. The liver contributes a smaller amount in adults. Renal tubular cells and marrow macrophages do not produce most circulating erythropoietin.
Question 33Hematopoiesis
Which cytokine is the principal driver of neutrophil production and mobilization from the bone marrow?
- IL-5
- G-CSF Correct answer.
- Thrombopoietin
- Erythropoietin
Explanation
Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor stimulates proliferation and maturation of neutrophil precursors and promotes their release from the marrow. IL-5 mainly affects eosinophils, thrombopoietin drives platelet production, and erythropoietin supports erythroid cells.
Question 34Hematopoiesis
In adults, thrombopoietin is produced predominantly by which organ?
- Bone marrow
- Kidney
- Liver Correct answer.
- Spleen
Explanation
Thrombopoietin is produced mainly by hepatocytes in the liver, with smaller contributions from the kidney and marrow stroma. It stimulates megakaryocyte maturation and platelet production. Bone marrow and spleen are important sites of platelet production and pooling but are not the predominant source of thrombopoietin.
Question 35Hematopoiesis
Which transcription factor is considered a master regulator of erythroid and megakaryocytic lineage commitment?
- PU.1
- PAX5
- CEBPA
- GATA1 Correct answer.
Explanation
GATA1 is required for erythroid and megakaryocytic differentiation and activates lineage-specific genes such as globins and platelet factors. PU.1 and CEBPA promote myeloid programs, while PAX5 is a B-cell commitment factor. These factors help establish lineage identity from multipotent progenitors.
Question 36Hematopoiesis
Which bone marrow finding is most characteristic of megaloblastic erythropoiesis caused by vitamin B12 or folate deficiency?
- Erythroid hyperplasia with left shift
- Ring sideroblasts
- Basophilic stippling
- Nuclear-cytoplasmic asynchrony Correct answer.
Explanation
Impaired DNA synthesis delays nuclear maturation while cytoplasmic hemoglobinization proceeds, producing nuclear-cytoplasmic asynchrony. This is accompanied by megaloblastic erythroid precursors and hypersegmented neutrophils. Ring sideroblasts and basophilic stippling point to different disorders.
Question 37Hematopoiesis
Which B-lineage stage is the first to express surface immunoglobulin M?
- Pre-B cell
- Immature B cell Correct answer.
- Pro-B cell
- Mature naive B cell
Explanation
Surface IgM first appears on the immature B cell after successful heavy- and light-chain rearrangement. Pro-B cells are rearranging heavy-chain genes, and pre-B cells express cytoplasmic mu chain but not surface IgM. Mature naive B cells express both IgM and IgD.
Question 38Hematopoiesis
Most thymocytes in the thymic cortex express which surface phenotype?
- Double-negative for CD4 and CD8
- CD4 single-positive
- Double-positive for CD4 and CD8 Correct answer.
- CD8 single-positive
Explanation
Cortical thymocytes are predominantly CD4 and CD8 double-positive and undergo positive selection there. Single-positive CD4 or CD8 cells are more mature and are found mainly in the medulla. Double-negative cells are early precursors before CD4 and CD8 expression.
Question 39Hematopoiesis
Which protein is a characteristic constituent of neutrophil-specific (secondary) granules?
- Elastase
- Azurocidin
- Lactoferrin Correct answer.
- Myeloperoxidase
Explanation
Specific granules contain lactoferrin, gelatinase, and other antimicrobial proteins. Myeloperoxidase, elastase, and azurocidin are concentrated in azurophilic primary granules. Granule content helps identify neutrophil maturation and function.
Question 40Hematopoiesis
Which growth factor primarily supports the differentiation of monocytes into macrophages?
- IL-5
- Erythropoietin
- M-CSF Correct answer.
- Thrombopoietin
Explanation
Macrophage colony-stimulating factor binds CSF1R and promotes monocyte survival and macrophage differentiation. IL-5 supports eosinophils, thrombopoietin supports megakaryocytes, and erythropoietin supports erythroid cells.
Question 41Hematopoiesis
Which cytokine is most specific for eosinophil differentiation and survival?
- IL-7
- IL-4
- IL-12
- IL-5 Correct answer.
Explanation
IL-5 is the key cytokine for eosinophil lineage commitment, proliferation, and survival. IL-4 promotes Th2 responses, IL-7 supports lymphocyte development, and IL-12 drives Th1 and NK-cell responses.
Question 42Hematopoiesis
Which anatomic region is the first source of definitive hematopoietic stem cells with long-term repopulating capacity in the human embryo?
- Fetal liver
- Yolk sac
- AGM region Correct answer.
- Umbilical cord
Explanation
Definitive hematopoietic stem cells first emerge in the aorta-gonad-mesonephros region and later seed the fetal liver for expansion. The yolk sac produces primitive erythroid and macrophage progenitors but not the first long-term repopulating stem cells. The fetal liver and umbilical cord are later sites.
Question 43Hematopoiesis
In an adult with severe hemolytic anemia, which organ is the principal site of stress erythropoiesis outside the bone marrow?
- Spleen Correct answer.
- Lymph node
- Thymus
- Liver
Explanation
The spleen can resume erythropoiesis in response to severe stress, producing extramedullary erythroid islands. The liver may also contribute but is less important in adults. The thymus and lymph nodes are primarily lymphoid organs.
Question 44Hematopoiesis
Which chemokine-receptor pair is central to retaining hematopoietic stem cells within the bone marrow niche?
- Jagged and NOTCH
- Angiopoietin and TIE2
- SCF and c-KIT
- CXCL12 and CXCR4 Correct answer.
Explanation
CXCL12 produced by marrow stromal cells binds CXCR4 on hematopoietic stem cells and promotes their retention in the niche. Disruption of this axis mobilizes stem cells into peripheral blood. SCF, angiopoietin, and Notch signals support stem-cell maintenance but are not the main retention mechanism.
Question 45Hematopoiesis
Erythropoietin binding to its receptor activates which cytoplasmic kinase to initiate STAT5 signaling in erythroid progenitors?
- JAK2 Correct answer.
- SYK
- JAK3
- BTK
Explanation
The erythropoietin receptor lacks intrinsic kinase activity and signals through the associated tyrosine kinase JAK2. JAK2 activation leads to STAT5 phosphorylation and promotes erythroid survival and proliferation. JAK3, BTK, and SYK mediate other cytokine or antigen-receptor pathways.
Question 46Hematopoiesis
Which transcription factor must be downregulated for a B cell to differentiate into an antibody-secreting plasma cell?
- IRF4
- XBP1
- PAX5 Correct answer.
- BLIMP1
Explanation
PAX5 maintains B-cell identity and represses plasma-cell genes; its silencing is required for terminal plasma-cell differentiation. BLIMP1 then drives the secretory program, with support from IRF4 and XBP1. Loss of PAX5 allows the cell to exit the mature B-cell state.
Question 47Erythrocyte disorders
Which combination of iron studies is most typical of iron deficiency anemia?
- Low serum ferritin with elevated total iron-binding capacity Correct answer.
- Elevated transferrin saturation with normal serum ferritin
- Normal serum ferritin with reduced transferrin saturation
- Elevated serum ferritin with low total iron-binding capacity
Explanation
Iron deficiency depletes storage iron, so serum ferritin falls and total iron-binding capacity rises as transferrin increases. Transferrin saturation is low because circulating iron is insufficient to fill available binding sites.
Question 48Erythrocyte disorders
Which mechanism best explains the anemia of chronic disease?
- Defective globin chain synthesis from beta-gene deletion
- Hepcidin-driven iron sequestration with impaired erythropoiesis Correct answer.
- Autoantibody-mediated destruction of red cells
- Intravascular mechanical hemolysis from fibrin strands
Explanation
Inflammatory cytokines increase hepcidin, which blocks iron release from macrophages and reduces intestinal iron absorption. The resulting iron-restricted erythropoiesis and blunted erythropoietin response produce a normocytic or microcytic anemia.
Question 49Erythrocyte disorders
A bone marrow aspirate shows ring sideroblasts. Which abnormality underlies this finding?
- Mitochondrial iron accumulation in erythroid precursors Correct answer.
- Antibody-mediated destruction of mature red cells
- Extravascular hemolysis due to membrane protein loss
- Deficiency of erythroid precursors in the marrow
Explanation
Ring sideroblasts form when iron accumulates in mitochondria around the nucleus of erythroid precursors, usually because heme synthesis is defective. This produces a ring of Prussian blue-positive granules on iron staining.
Question 50Erythrocyte disorders
Which hemoglobin fraction is typically elevated in beta-thalassemia trait?
- Hemoglobin A2 Correct answer.
- Hemoglobin F
- Hemoglobin A
- Hemoglobin H
Explanation
Beta-thalassemia trait reduces beta-globin output, so compensatory delta-globin production raises hemoglobin A2. Hemoglobin A2 elevation on electrophoresis or chromatography is a key diagnostic clue.