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ACSM CPT practice questions

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Question 1Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

What is the primary purpose of administering the PAR-Q+ during an initial client consultation?

  1. To estimate the client's current cardiorespiratory fitness level
  2. To determine the client's body composition and target weight
  3. To identify clients who may need medical clearance Correct answer.
  4. To establish the client's baseline muscular strength

Explanation

The PAR-Q+ is a self-report health screening tool designed to flag signs, symptoms, or diagnosed conditions that may warrant physician consultation before exercise. It does not measure fitness; it determines whether clearance or follow-up questioning is needed.

Question 2Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

Which element must an informed consent document include before fitness testing begins?

  1. A description of risks, benefits, and the right to withdraw Correct answer.
  2. The client's medical diagnosis list and insurance policy number
  3. The trainer's fee schedule and cancellation policy
  4. A guarantee that no injury will occur during the test

Explanation

Valid informed consent requires disclosure of the purpose and procedures, the potential risks and expected benefits, alternatives, confidentiality protections, and the client's right to stop or withdraw at any time. It is a disclosure document, not a contract of payment or a warranty of safety.

Question 3Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

Which measurement best reflects a client's true resting heart rate?

  1. Taking the pulse within 5 seconds of finishing a step test
  2. Counting the carotid pulse for 10 seconds right after standing
  3. Reading the treadmill display during a warm-up walk
  4. Counting the radial pulse for a full 60 seconds after quiet rest Correct answer.

Explanation

Resting heart rate should be obtained after several minutes of quiet seated rest, and a full 60-second count reduces error. Short counts, especially after activity or posture change, are inflated by exercise, orthostatic response, or counting error.

Question 4Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

Which resting blood pressure reading falls within the normal category?

  1. 126/78 mm Hg
  2. 134/86 mm Hg
  3. 146/92 mm Hg
  4. 118/78 mm Hg Correct answer.

Explanation

Normal blood pressure is a systolic value below 120 mm Hg together with a diastolic value below 80 mm Hg. Readings from 120 to 129 systolic with diastolic under 80 are classified as elevated, and higher values fall into hypertension stages.

Question 5Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

A client who weighs 70 kg and stands 1.75 m tall has a body mass index closest to which value?

  1. 25.4
  2. 20.5
  3. 18.6
  4. 22.9 Correct answer.

Explanation

BMI equals body mass in kilograms divided by height in meters squared, so 70 divided by 3.06 equals approximately 22.9. This value falls within the normal range of 18.5 to 24.9.

Question 6Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

At what waist circumference does an adult man meet the ACSM obesity risk factor threshold?

  1. 102 cm (40 in) Correct answer.
  2. 88 cm (35 in)
  3. 94 cm (37 in)
  4. 112 cm (44 in)

Explanation

ACSM identifies a waist girth greater than 102 cm (40 in) in men and greater than 88 cm (35 in) in women as an obesity-related risk marker. The 88 cm value applies to women, not men.

Question 7Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

Using the age-predicted formula, what is the estimated maximal heart rate for a 40-year-old client?

  1. 170 bpm
  2. 180 bpm Correct answer.
  3. 160 bpm
  4. 175 bpm

Explanation

The common age-predicted estimate subtracts age from 220, giving 180 bpm for a 40-year-old. This value is a population average and carries a standard deviation of roughly 10 to 12 bpm for any individual.

Question 8Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

The sit-and-reach test is used primarily to assess which quality?

  1. Shoulder girdle range of motion and scapular stability
  2. Low back and hamstring flexibility Correct answer.
  3. Hip abductor strength
  4. Lumbar spine stability

Explanation

The sit-and-reach measures the combined extensibility of the hamstrings and the lower back as the client reaches forward from a seated position. Scores are also influenced by limb and trunk proportions, so it is a general rather than joint-specific measure.

Question 9Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

A client answers yes to a PAR-Q+ item about a diagnosed heart condition. What is the most appropriate next step?

  1. Complete the PAR-Q+ follow-up questions before proceeding Correct answer.
  2. Administer a maximal treadmill test to confirm exercise tolerance
  3. Exclude the client from all forms of structured exercise permanently
  4. Begin a low-intensity walking program and re-screen the client in one month

Explanation

A single yes response directs the client to the condition-specific follow-up questions, which determine whether medical clearance or supervised testing is required. Neither automatic exclusion nor unsupervised maximal testing is appropriate.

Question 10Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

An asymptomatic 52-year-old woman has a BMI of 31 and takes medication for hypertension. She reports no other risk factors. How many ACSM risk factors does she have?

  1. 3
  2. 2 Correct answer.
  3. 1
  4. 4

Explanation

The age risk factor begins at 55 for women, so age 52 does not count. Obesity (BMI of 30 or higher) and treated hypertension each count, giving a total of two risk factors.

Question 11Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

A client's lipid panel shows an HDL cholesterol of 68 mg/dL. How does this affect the ACSM risk factor count?

  1. It has no effect on the risk factor count
  2. It adds one positive risk factor because HDL is above 60
  3. It subtracts one risk factor from the total Correct answer.
  4. It automatically places the client in the high-risk category

Explanation

An HDL of 60 mg/dL or higher is designated a negative risk factor in the ACSM model and subtracts one from the positive risk factor total. It is protective, not harmful, and does not by itself change disease status.

Question 12Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

One MET is equivalent to which rate of oxygen consumption?

  1. 4.0 mL/kg/min
  2. 3.5 mL/kg/min Correct answer.
  3. 2.5 mL/kg/min
  4. 3.0 mL/kg/min

Explanation

One MET represents resting metabolic rate and is defined as 3.5 mL of oxygen per kilogram of body mass per minute. It is the reference value used to express exercise intensity as a multiple of resting metabolism.

Question 13Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

A 30-year-old client has a resting heart rate of 60 bpm. Using the heart rate reserve method, what is the target heart rate at 60% intensity?

  1. 114 bpm
  2. 164 bpm
  3. 130 bpm
  4. 138 bpm Correct answer.

Explanation

Heart rate reserve equals age-predicted maximum (190) minus resting heart rate (60), which is 130. The target is 60% of 130 plus the resting value, giving 138 bpm.

Question 14Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

The 1-minute push-up test is most appropriate for assessing which fitness component?

  1. Upper-body flexibility
  2. Maximal upper-body strength
  3. Anaerobic power
  4. Muscular endurance Correct answer.

Explanation

The push-up test counts repetitions performed against a submaximal load, which reflects the ability to sustain repeated contractions over time. Maximal strength requires a one-repetition maximum or similar test with heavy resistance.

Question 15Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

Which practice improves the accuracy of skinfold measurement?

  1. Taking each site only once to avoid irritating the skin
  2. Pinching the skin and muscle together and holding for several seconds
  3. Measuring all sites on the right side of the body Correct answer.
  4. Measuring immediately after the client completes a vigorous workout

Explanation

Standardization includes using the right side of the body, taking duplicate or triplicate readings per site, and grasping skin and subcutaneous fat without including muscle. Measurements should be taken at rest, not after exercise that shifts fluid.

Question 16Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

Which factor is most likely to distort a bioelectrical impedance body composition reading?

  1. Recent exercise and hydration status Correct answer.
  2. The client's chronological age
  3. The type of floor surface in the testing room
  4. The client's measured standing height

Explanation

Bioelectrical impedance estimates body water and fat from the resistance to a small current, so hydration, recent exercise, food intake, and skin temperature all shift the result. Standard pretest conditions control these variables.

Question 17Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

In a submaximal YMCA cycle ergometer test, how is VO2max estimated?

  1. From the respiratory exchange ratio recorded at the point of exhaustion
  2. From the peak blood lactate concentration measured at each submaximal stage
  3. By extrapolating the heart rate-workload line to age-predicted maximum heart rate Correct answer.
  4. From the total time the client can pedal at a fixed workload

Explanation

Steady-state heart rates at several submaximal workloads define a line that is extended to the estimated maximal heart rate. The oxygen consumption corresponding to that point is the predicted VO2max.

Question 18Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

The YMCA 3-minute step test uses which bench height and stepping cadence?

  1. 30 cm (12 in) at 30 steps per minute
  2. 40 cm (16 in) at 24 steps per minute
  3. 30 cm (12 in) at 24 steps per minute Correct answer.
  4. 20 cm (8 in) at 20 steps per minute

Explanation

The protocol uses a 12-inch (30 cm) bench with a four-count cadence producing 24 steps per minute for three minutes. Recovery heart rate is then counted and used to estimate cardiorespiratory fitness.

Question 19Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

The Rockport 1-mile walk test estimates cardiorespiratory fitness from which set of variables?

  1. Age, body fat percentage, and stepping cadence
  2. Walk time, distance covered, and resting blood pressure
  3. Heart rate during walking and respiratory rate
  4. Walk time, post-exercise HR, age, weight, and sex Correct answer.

Explanation

The Rockport equation uses the 1-mile walk time, the heart rate at the end of the walk, and the client's age, body mass, and sex to predict VO2max. Walk time and heart rate must both be recorded accurately.

Question 20Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

The talk test is used to estimate which exercise threshold?

  1. The point where heart rate plateaus despite increasing workload
  2. The lactate threshold at 90% of VO2max
  3. The anaerobic capacity ceiling
  4. The ventilatory threshold, where speech becomes difficult Correct answer.

Explanation

The talk test tracks the intensity at which speech becomes strained, which corresponds closely to the ventilatory threshold. It provides a practical, equipment-free marker of the transition from moderate to vigorous intensity.

Question 21Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

During a submaximal test a client reaches a steady-state oxygen consumption of 28 mL/kg/min. Approximately how many METs is this?

  1. 5.6 METs
  2. 8.0 METs Correct answer.
  3. 7.0 METs
  4. 9.8 METs

Explanation

METs are calculated by dividing oxygen consumption in mL/kg/min by 3.5, so 28 divided by 3.5 equals 8.0 METs. This places the effort in the vigorous intensity range.

Question 22Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

A screening tool correctly flags 90 of 100 people who have a condition and correctly clears 80 of 100 people who do not. What is the tool's specificity?

  1. 0.90
  2. 0.47
  3. 0.80 Correct answer.
  4. 0.53

Explanation

Specificity is true negatives divided by all people without the condition, which is 80 divided by 100, or 0.80. Sensitivity would instead be the 90 true positives divided by 100, or 0.90.

Question 23Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

A fitness director wants to know whether a new 1-mile walk equation produces VO2max values that closely match laboratory treadmill results. Which measurement property is being evaluated?

  1. Internal consistency
  2. Objectivity
  3. Criterion validity Correct answer.
  4. Test-retest reliability

Explanation

Criterion validity describes how well a test agrees with an established gold-standard measure of the same construct. Here the laboratory treadmill value serves as the criterion against which the field equation is judged.

Question 24Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

A client is anxious during a submaximal cycle test and shows an unusually high heart rate at every workload. How does this most likely affect the estimated VO2max?

  1. It makes the estimate invalid and the test must be discarded
  2. It underestimates VO2max Correct answer.
  3. It has no effect because the test is submaximal
  4. It overestimates VO2max

Explanation

The prediction extends the heart rate-oxygen consumption line to an age-predicted maximum heart rate. If heart rate is elevated for reasons unrelated to oxygen demand, maximum heart rate appears to occur at a lower oxygen consumption, so VO2max is underestimated.

Question 25Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

Which sequence of assessments is most appropriate within a single testing session?

  1. Body composition, flexibility, muscular endurance, cardiorespiratory endurance Correct answer.
  2. Muscular strength, cardiorespiratory endurance, flexibility, body composition
  3. Cardiorespiratory endurance, muscular endurance, flexibility, body composition
  4. Flexibility, cardiorespiratory endurance, body composition, muscular strength

Explanation

Resting and anthropometric measures are taken first, followed by flexibility and then muscular assessments, with cardiorespiratory testing reserved for last. This order prevents fatigue and elevated heart rate from contaminating the earlier measurements.

Question 26Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

What is the primary purpose of obtaining a signed informed consent before fitness testing?

  1. To certify that the client has no cardiovascular or metabolic disease
  2. To transfer all legal responsibility for injury from the fitness professional to the client
  3. To confirm the client understands the risks, benefits, and right to stop testing Correct answer.
  4. To serve as a substitute for physician clearance when risk factors are present

Explanation

Informed consent is an educational and legal document that discloses the purpose, procedures, risks, benefits, alternatives, and the voluntary nature of participation, including the right to withdraw at any time. It documents understanding; it does not diagnose, waive liability, or replace medical clearance.

Question 27Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

A goniometer is used during the fitness assessment to measure which variable?

  1. Maximal force produced during a single lift
  2. Arterial blood pressure during quiet rest
  3. Joint range of motion at a specific articulation Correct answer.
  4. Subcutaneous fat thickness at selected body sites

Explanation

A goniometer measures the angle of a joint, allowing the tester to quantify range of motion before and after an intervention. Skinfold calipers, dynamometers, and sphygmomanometers serve the other listed functions.

Question 28Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

Which resting blood pressure reading meets the ACSM threshold for the hypertension risk factor in an adult?

  1. 124/78 mm Hg
  2. 132/84 mm Hg Correct answer.
  3. 126/70 mm Hg
  4. 118/74 mm Hg

Explanation

The hypertension risk factor is present when systolic pressure is 130 mm Hg or higher, or diastolic pressure is 80 mm Hg or higher, confirmed on at least two occasions, or when the client takes antihypertensive medication. Only the 132/84 reading crosses one of those cut points.

Question 29Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

At what body mass index value does an adult client meet the ACSM threshold for the obesity risk factor?

  1. 30.0 kg/m² or higher Correct answer.
  2. 25.0 kg/m² or higher
  3. 27.5 kg/m² or higher
  4. 18.5 kg/m² or higher

Explanation

Obesity is counted as a risk factor at a BMI of 30 kg/m² or greater, or at a waist girth above 102 cm in men and 88 cm in women. The 25.0 value marks the boundary of overweight rather than obesity.

Question 30Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

When heart rate is counted manually at the radial artery to establish resting heart rate, which procedure gives the most accurate value?

  1. Count for 10 seconds and add 100 to the result
  2. Count the beats for 6 seconds after exercise and multiply the total by ten
  3. Count for 15 seconds and multiply by three
  4. Count for a full 60 seconds, or count for 30 seconds and double the result Correct answer.

Explanation

Longer counting periods reduce the error introduced by a single missed or added beat, so a 60-second count or a 30-second count doubled is preferred for resting values. Very short counts multiply any small miscount into a large error.

Question 31Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

The Borg rating of perceived exertion scale most commonly used during fitness assessments ranges from which values?

  1. 1 to 100
  2. 6 to 20 Correct answer.
  3. 0 to 10
  4. 1 to 5

Explanation

The original Borg scale runs from 6 to 20, with the numbers roughly corresponding to heart rates of 60 to 200 beats per minute when multiplied by ten. The 0-to-10 version is a category-ratio scale used for other purposes.

Question 32Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

Which technique is considered a laboratory criterion, or reference, method for measuring body composition?

  1. Bioelectrical impedance analysis
  2. Circumference measurement
  3. Near-infrared interactance
  4. Hydrostatic (underwater) weighing Correct answer.

Explanation

Hydrostatic weighing applies Archimedes' principle to derive body density and is treated as a criterion method against which field techniques are validated. The other methods are practical field estimates with larger error.

Question 33Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

Client assessment records may be released to a third party only when which condition is met?

  1. A family member asks for the file in person at the facility
  2. The client signs a written release or disclosure is legally required Correct answer.
  3. The fitness professional believes the third party has a legitimate interest
  4. The client has finished the full battery of assessments

Explanation

Health and fitness records are confidential and are shared only with the client's written authorization or when the law compels disclosure. Curiosity, family relationships, and completion of testing do not create a right of access.

Question 34Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

According to ACSM, age counts as a positive risk factor beginning at which point?

  1. All adults 50 years or older
  2. Men 40 years or older and women 50 years or older
  3. Men 55 years or older and women 45 years or older
  4. Men 45 years or older and women 55 years or older Correct answer.

Explanation

Age is recorded as a risk factor for men at 45 years and older and for women at 55 years and older. The sex-specific cut points reflect differences in the typical age of onset of cardiovascular disease.

Question 35Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

Which situation counts as a positive family history risk factor for a client?

  1. A father who had a myocardial infarction at age 52 Correct answer.
  2. A mother who developed type 2 diabetes at age 60
  3. A sister who was diagnosed with hypertension at age 50
  4. A grandfather who had a stroke at age 70

Explanation

The family history risk factor requires a myocardial infarction, coronary revascularization, or sudden death before age 55 in a father or other male first-degree relative, or before age 65 in a mother or other female first-degree relative. A father with an infarction at 52 meets that definition.

Question 36Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

A client reports that he stopped smoking eight months ago. How should his smoking status be recorded for risk factor counting?

  1. As a current smoker, because any history of smoking is counted
  2. As a current smoker until a full year of abstinence is reached
  3. As a former smoker, so the smoking risk factor is not counted Correct answer.
  4. As a former smoker only if he used nicotine replacement therapy

Explanation

The smoking risk factor applies to current smokers and to those who quit within the previous six months. Because this client has been abstinent for eight months, he is classified as a former smoker and the factor is not counted.

Question 37Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

Which client best fits the ACSM definition of a sedentary lifestyle?

  1. One who cycles for 40 minutes on four days each week
  2. One who has performed no purposeful exercise in the past four months Correct answer.
  3. One who walks briskly for 45 minutes on five days each week
  4. One who swims laps for 30 minutes on three days each week

Explanation

A sedentary lifestyle is defined as not participating in at least 30 minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity on at least three days per week for at least three months. Three consecutive months of inactivity clearly satisfies that definition.

Question 38Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

A fasting blood glucose value in which range identifies prediabetes as an ACSM risk factor?

  1. 70 to 99 mg/dL
  2. 140 to 199 mg/dL
  3. 126 to 139 mg/dL
  4. 100 to 125 mg/dL Correct answer.

Explanation

Impaired fasting glucose from 100 to 125 mg/dL defines prediabetes for risk factor purposes. A fasting value of 126 mg/dL or higher falls in the diabetes range, while 70 to 99 mg/dL is normal.

Question 39Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

Which lipid finding counts toward the dyslipidemia risk factor?

  1. A total cholesterol of 185 mg/dL
  2. An LDL cholesterol of 145 mg/dL Correct answer.
  3. A triglyceride level of 120 mg/dL
  4. An HDL cholesterol of 55 mg/dL

Explanation

Dyslipidemia is counted when LDL cholesterol is 130 mg/dL or higher, HDL cholesterol is below 40 mg/dL, or the client takes lipid-lowering medication. An LDL of 145 mg/dL exceeds the cut point, while the other values are within desirable ranges.

Question 40Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

Which finding is an absolute contraindication to exercise testing?

  1. A history of well-controlled asthma
  2. A body mass index of 33 kg/m²
  3. An acute myocardial infarction two days ago Correct answer.
  4. A resting blood pressure of 138/86 mm Hg

Explanation

Recent acute myocardial infarction, along with conditions such as unstable angina, uncontrolled arrhythmia, and acute myocarditis, prohibits testing until the client is stabilized and cleared. The other findings are risk factors or chronic conditions that can be managed rather than absolute bars to testing.

Question 41Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

To obtain an accurate blood pressure reading, the client's arm should be positioned how?

  1. Raised to shoulder height with the elbow fully extended
  2. Held above the level of the head with the palm turned upward
  3. Left unsupported at the client's side during cuff inflation
  4. Supported at heart level with the cuff on the bare upper arm Correct answer.

Explanation

The arm must be supported at heart level with the cuff wrapped around the bare upper arm so the bladder sits over the brachial artery. Arm position above or below heart level shifts the measured pressure, and an unsupported arm invites muscle tension and error.

Question 42Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

Before a client attempts a true one-repetition maximum, the fitness professional should do what?

  1. Eliminate rest between attempts so the muscles stay warm
  2. Lead several progressive warm-up sets with light to moderate loads Correct answer.
  3. Limit preparation to static stretching of the target muscles
  4. Start directly at the estimated maximum to limit fatigue

Explanation

A one-repetition maximum is approached through a series of warm-up sets with progressively heavier loads and adequate rest, which prepares the tissue and improves the accuracy of the result. Moving straight to a maximal load or omitting recovery raises injury risk and produces unreliable values.

Question 43Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

The overhead squat assessment is used primarily to evaluate which quality?

  1. Aerobic capacity during a sustained effort
  2. Dynamic mobility and stability along the kinetic chain Correct answer.
  3. Resting muscle tone in the shoulder girdle
  4. Maximal lower-body strength through a full repetition

Explanation

The overhead squat is a movement screen that reveals dynamic flexibility, core stability, and neuromuscular control by observing compensations as the client squats with arms overhead. It is not a strength, endurance, or aerobic test.

Question 44Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

A client says she knows she should start exercising and intends to begin within the next two months, but she has not taken any action yet. Which stage of change does this describe?

  1. Precontemplation
  2. Preparation
  3. Action
  4. Contemplation Correct answer.

Explanation

Contemplation describes a person who intends to become active within the next six months but has not yet begun. Preparation requires an intention to act within about 30 days plus some initial steps, and precontemplation means no intention at all.

Question 45Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

In a SOAP note, the client's own report of symptoms and exercise history belongs in which section?

  1. Plan
  2. Objective
  3. Assessment
  4. Subjective Correct answer.

Explanation

The subjective section captures information the client reports, including symptoms, complaints, and personal history. Objective data are the measurable findings, the assessment is the professional's interpretation, and the plan outlines next steps.

Question 46Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

A 50-year-old asymptomatic woman has a BMI of 31 kg/m² and a sedentary lifestyle. She reports no other risk factors and no known disease. What is her ACSM risk classification?

  1. Moderate risk, because she has two or more risk factors Correct answer.
  2. Low risk, because she has no symptoms or diagnosed disease
  3. Low risk, because her age does not count as a risk factor
  4. High risk, because obesity outweighs the other findings

Explanation

Obesity and a sedentary lifestyle give her two risk factors, and two or more factors without disease or symptoms defines moderate risk. Low risk requires no more than one risk factor, and high risk requires known disease or symptoms.

Question 47Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

A client takes a beta-blocker. During a submaximal cycle test his heart rate stays far below the value predicted for each workload. How should the fitness professional interpret this?

  1. His high level of aerobic fitness explains the low heart rate at each workload
  2. He is not trying hard enough and the resistance should be increased sharply
  3. The drug blunts heart rate, so heart-rate targets underestimate intensity Correct answer.
  4. The test protocol was applied incorrectly and must be repeated from the start

Explanation

Beta-blockers reduce both resting and exercise heart rate, so heart-rate-based estimates of oxygen cost and target intensity become unreliable and tend to underestimate the true workload. Perceived exertion or workload-based methods are preferable for these clients.

Question 48Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

A muscular 24-year-old resistance-trained man has a BMI of 29 kg/m². What is the most defensible interpretation?

  1. His BMI reading confirms an excess of body fat and an elevated metabolic risk
  2. BMI cannot separate fat from lean mass, so measure body composition Correct answer.
  3. BMI is invalid for all clients under 30 years of age
  4. He is obese and should be counseled to lose weight

Explanation

Body mass index uses only height and weight, so a heavily muscled client can score in the overweight or obese range without excess fat. When the classification conflicts with the client's appearance or training history, a direct body composition measure resolves the question.

Question 49Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

Which goal statement from an initial consultation is written in measurable, time-bound form?

  1. I will walk 30 minutes on five days a week for eight weeks Correct answer.
  2. I would like to feel healthier overall and have noticeably more daily energy
  3. I want to get into better shape over the next few months
  4. I plan to exercise more regularly than I did last year

Explanation

A well-formed goal specifies a behavior, a measurable amount, and a deadline, which allows progress to be tracked objectively. The other statements express intentions or feelings that cannot be verified or counted.

Question 50Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

During the initial interview a client becomes quiet when asked about past exercise attempts. Which response is most consistent with effective interviewing?

  1. Suggest a complete workout plan so the client has something concrete to discuss
  2. Move on to the next item on the intake form to save time
  3. Reflect what she just said and ask an open-ended follow-up question Correct answer.
  4. Explain why exercise adherence is usually poor in people with her background

Explanation

Reflective listening paired with open-ended questions invites the client to elaborate and builds the rapport needed for an accurate history. Rushing ahead, prescribing prematurely, or labeling the client shuts down disclosure.