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ADEX Dental Hygiene study materials
ADEX Dental Hygiene study resources

ADEX Dental Hygiene practice questions

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Question 1Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which dental hard tissue contains the highest proportion of mineral by weight?

  1. Cementum
  2. Enamel Correct answer.
  3. Alveolar bone
  4. Dentin

Explanation

Enamel is roughly 96% mineral by weight, making it the most highly mineralized tissue in the body; dentin is about 70% mineral, and cementum and bone about 65%. This high mineral content accounts for enamel's radiopacity and brittleness.

Question 2Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Under unstimulated (resting) conditions, which gland contributes the largest volume of whole saliva?

  1. Submandibular gland Correct answer.
  2. Sublingual gland
  3. Minor salivary glands
  4. Parotid gland

Explanation

The submandibular glands supply roughly 65–70% of unstimulated whole saliva, while the parotids contribute about 20% at rest. With strong stimulation the parotid contribution increases markedly.

Question 3Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which immunoglobulin is the predominant antibody class in human saliva?

  1. IgE
  2. IgG
  3. IgA Correct answer.
  4. IgM

Explanation

Secretory IgA, a dimer stabilized by J chain and secretory component, is produced by plasma cells associated with salivary glands and is the dominant immunoglobulin in whole saliva. It neutralizes bacteria and viruses at mucosal surfaces.

Question 4Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

General sensory innervation of the mandibular teeth is provided by which nerve?

  1. Facial nerve
  2. Hypoglossal nerve
  3. Glossopharyngeal nerve
  4. Trigeminal nerve (V3) Correct answer.

Explanation

The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve carries sensation from the mandibular teeth through the inferior alveolar nerve. The facial and glossopharyngeal nerves serve taste and other functions, and the hypoglossal nerve is motor to the tongue.

Question 5Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which cells are primarily responsible for resorbing bone during orthodontic tooth movement?

  1. Fibroblasts
  2. Osteocytes
  3. Osteoclasts Correct answer.
  4. Osteoblasts

Explanation

Osteoclasts are multinucleated cells of hematopoietic origin that resorb bone by secreting acid and proteolytic enzymes; they mediate the resorption seen on the compression side of a moving tooth. Osteoblasts and osteocytes have different roles in bone formation and maintenance.

Question 6Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which microorganism is considered a primary etiologic agent in the initiation of dental caries?

  1. Streptococcus mutans Correct answer.
  2. Veillonella parvula
  3. Candida albicans
  4. Porphyromonas gingivalis

Explanation

Streptococcus mutans adheres to the tooth surface, synthesizes glucans through glucosyltransferases, and is strongly acidogenic and aciduric, driving the initial carious lesion. The other organisms listed are not caries initiators.

Question 7Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which of the following is an ester-type local anesthetic?

  1. Benzocaine Correct answer.
  2. Mepivacaine
  3. Articaine
  4. Lidocaine

Explanation

Ester anesthetics such as benzocaine, procaine, and tetracaine are hydrolyzed by plasma pseudocholinesterase. Lidocaine, mepivacaine, and articaine are amides that undergo hepatic metabolism.

Question 8Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Normal arterial blood pH is maintained within which range?

  1. 7.50–7.60
  2. 7.35–7.45 Correct answer.
  3. 7.20–7.30
  4. 7.00–7.20

Explanation

Arterial pH is tightly regulated at 7.35–7.45 through combined respiratory control of carbon dioxide and renal control of bicarbonate. Values below 7.35 indicate acidemia and values above 7.45 indicate alkalemia.

Question 9Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which epithelial layer is nonkeratinized and attaches to the tooth surface by hemidesmosomes?

  1. Junctional epithelium Correct answer.
  2. Oral gingival epithelium
  3. Sulcular epithelium
  4. Reduced enamel epithelium

Explanation

Junctional epithelium is a nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium joined to the tooth by hemidesmosomes and an internal basal lamina; it forms the epithelial attachment and is the most permeable portion of the gingival epithelium. The sulcular epithelium lines the sulcus but does not attach to the tooth.

Question 10Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which principal fiber group of the periodontal ligament is the most numerous and resists intrusive (axial) forces?

  1. Apical group
  2. Horizontal group
  3. Oblique group Correct answer.
  4. Alveolar crest group

Explanation

Oblique fibers run between cementum and bone at an angle that converts axial occlusal force into tension on the ligament, and they form the largest principal fiber group. Alveolar crest, horizontal, and apical fibers resist tipping, horizontal, and extrusive forces respectively.

Question 11Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

The radiopaque lamina dura seen on a periapical radiograph corresponds to which structure?

  1. Enamel of the adjacent tooth
  2. Cortical bone of the mandibular canal
  3. Cancellous trabeculae of the alveolus
  4. The alveolar bone proper Correct answer.

Explanation

The lamina dura is the radiographic image of the alveolar bone proper, the thin compact plate lining the socket into which Sharpey's fibers insert. Its visibility depends on the thickness of that bony plate relative to the root.

Question 12Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

During the depolarization phase of a neuronal action potential, the membrane becomes most permeable to which ion?

  1. Sodium Correct answer.
  2. Calcium
  3. Potassium
  4. Chloride

Explanation

Depolarization results from opening of voltage-gated sodium channels and rapid sodium influx, which reverses the membrane potential. Repolarization follows as potassium channels open and potassium leaves the cell.

Question 13Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Epinephrine is included in local anesthetic cartridges primarily to accomplish which effect?

  1. Increase the pH of the solution
  2. Speed hepatic metabolism of the anesthetic
  3. Prolong anesthesia and reduce bleeding Correct answer.
  4. Prevent methemoglobinemia

Explanation

Epinephrine causes local vasoconstriction, slowing systemic absorption of the anesthetic so that duration is prolonged, toxicity is reduced, and surgical bleeding is minimized. It does not act on hepatic metabolism or on hemoglobin oxidation.

Question 14Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which organism is a member of the red complex and is strongly associated with chronic periodontitis?

  1. Actinomyces viscosus
  2. Veillonella parvula
  3. Porphyromonas gingivalis Correct answer.
  4. Streptococcus sanguinis

Explanation

The red complex consists of Porphyromonas gingivalis, Tannerella forsythia, and Treponema denticola, organisms associated with deep pockets and bleeding on probing in chronic periodontitis. Streptococcus sanguinis and Actinomyces viscosus are early plaque colonizers linked with periodontal health.

Question 15Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

A patient has recurrent, painful, shallow ulcers with a yellow-white center and erythematous halo on the buccal mucosa and floor of the mouth that heal in 7 to 14 days without scarring. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. Oral candidiasis
  2. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
  3. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis Correct answer.
  4. Oral lichen planus

Explanation

Minor recurrent aphthous ulcers arise on nonkeratinized mucosa, show a yellow-white center with a red halo, and resolve in one to two weeks without scarring. Herpetic lesions typically begin as clustered vesicles on keratinized mucosa.

Question 16Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

The parotid duct (Stensen's duct) opens into the vestibule adjacent to which tooth?

  1. Maxillary central incisor
  2. Mandibular second premolar
  3. Mandibular first molar
  4. Maxillary second molar Correct answer.

Explanation

Stensen's duct drains the parotid gland and opens at the parotid papilla on the buccal mucosa opposite the maxillary second molar. Wharton's duct from the submandibular gland opens at the sublingual caruncle.

Question 17Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which muscle of mastication retracts the mandible?

  1. Masseter
  2. Lateral pterygoid
  3. Temporalis Correct answer.
  4. Medial pterygoid

Explanation

The posterior, nearly horizontal fibers of the temporalis pull the mandible posteriorly after protrusion. The masseter and medial pterygoid elevate the mandible, and the lateral pterygoid protrudes and depresses it.

Question 18Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

The dental follicle (dental sac) gives rise to which of the following structures?

  1. The stellate reticulum and stratum intermedium
  2. Dentin and dental pulp
  3. Cementum and periodontal ligament Correct answer.
  4. Enamel and reduced enamel epithelium

Explanation

The dental follicle is the ectomesenchymal sac surrounding the enamel organ and dental papilla; its cells differentiate into cementoblasts, periodontal ligament fibroblasts, and osteoblasts of the alveolar bone proper. Enamel arises from the enamel organ, and dentin and pulp from the dental papilla.

Question 19Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which amide local anesthetic is associated with the greatest risk of methemoglobinemia?

  1. Prilocaine Correct answer.
  2. Bupivacaine
  3. Lidocaine
  4. Mepivacaine

Explanation

Prilocaine is metabolized to o-toluidine, which oxidizes hemoglobin to methemoglobin and can produce cyanosis at higher doses; topical benzocaine carries a similar risk. Lidocaine, mepivacaine, and bupivacaine do not cause clinically important methemoglobin formation.

Question 20Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

A patient with several days of persistent vomiting is most likely to develop which acid-base disturbance?

  1. Metabolic alkalosis Correct answer.
  2. Metabolic acidosis
  3. Respiratory alkalosis
  4. Respiratory acidosis

Explanation

Vomiting removes gastric hydrochloric acid and depletes extracellular fluid volume, so bicarbonate is retained and the kidneys increase hydrogen ion secretion, producing a hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis. Respiratory disturbances alter carbon dioxide rather than bicarbonate.

Question 21Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which organism typically forms molar-tooth colonies in culture and is the most common cause of cervicofacial actinomycosis?

  1. Streptococcus pyogenes
  2. Actinomyces israelii Correct answer.
  3. Staphylococcus aureus
  4. Fusobacterium nucleatum

Explanation

Actinomyces israelii is a gram-positive, filamentous, anaerobic rod that forms molar-tooth colonies and produces the sulfur granules characteristic of cervicofacial actinomycosis. The other organisms do not show this colony morphology or granule formation.

Question 22Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which hormone lowers serum calcium by inhibiting osteoclast activity and increasing renal calcium excretion?

  1. Calcitonin Correct answer.
  2. Calcitriol
  3. Growth hormone
  4. Parathyroid hormone

Explanation

Calcitonin, secreted by thyroid parafollicular C cells, lowers serum calcium by inhibiting osteoclasts and promoting renal calcium loss. Parathyroid hormone and calcitriol act in the opposite direction to raise serum calcium.

Question 23Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which immunoglobulin is the first to be produced in a primary humoral immune response?

  1. IgA
  2. IgG
  3. IgE
  4. IgM Correct answer.

Explanation

Naive B cells initially secrete IgM, and only after antigen-driven help and class switching do they produce IgG, IgA, or IgE. IgM is therefore the earliest antibody of a primary response.

Question 24Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which cells synthesize and secrete the organic matrix of dentin?

  1. Fibroblasts
  2. Cementoblasts
  3. Ameloblasts
  4. Odontoblasts Correct answer.

Explanation

Odontoblasts are columnar cells lining the pulp periphery that secrete predentin, which subsequently mineralizes into dentin. Ameloblasts, cementoblasts, and fibroblasts form enamel, cementum, and collagen fibers respectively.

Question 25Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

A patient stabilized on warfarin requires a course of metronidazole. Which outcome is of greatest concern?

  1. Enhanced anticoagulation and bleeding risk Correct answer.
  2. Faster renal clearance of warfarin
  3. No interaction because metronidazole is not protein bound
  4. Reduced anticoagulant effect requiring a higher dose

Explanation

Metronidazole inhibits the cytochrome P450 enzymes that metabolize warfarin, so anticoagulant effect and bleeding risk increase when the drugs are combined. Dose reduction and closer INR monitoring are typically required.

Question 26Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which major salivary gland is composed almost entirely of serous acini?

  1. Sublingual gland
  2. Parotid gland Correct answer.
  3. Minor palatal glands
  4. Submandibular gland

Explanation

The parotid is a purely serous gland, so its secretion is watery and rich in amylase. The submandibular gland is mixed but predominantly serous, while the sublingual and most minor glands secrete mainly mucus.

Question 27Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is carried by which nerve?

  1. Glossopharyngeal nerve
  2. Trigeminal nerve
  3. Facial nerve Correct answer.
  4. Hypoglossal nerve

Explanation

Taste buds of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are innervated by the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve, which travels with the lingual nerve. The glossopharyngeal nerve supplies taste to the posterior third, and the hypoglossal nerve is purely motor.

Question 28Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which mineralized tissue covers the anatomic root of a fully formed tooth?

  1. Alveolar bone
  2. Enamel
  3. Dentin
  4. Cementum Correct answer.

Explanation

Cementum is the avascular mineralized tissue that covers the root surface and anchors the periodontal ligament fibers. Enamel is limited to the crown, and dentin lies beneath both enamel and cementum.

Question 29Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Deficiency of which vitamin impairs hydroxylation of proline and lysine, producing fragile collagen and bleeding gingiva?

  1. Vitamin D
  2. Vitamin A
  3. Vitamin B12
  4. Vitamin C Correct answer.

Explanation

Vitamin C is a cofactor for prolyl and lysyl hydroxylase, enzymes required for stable collagen triple helices. Without it, collagen is weak, capillaries become fragile, and the gingiva bleeds and ulcerates in scurvy.

Question 30Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which class of antihypertensive drug is most strongly associated with gingival overgrowth?

  1. ACE inhibitors
  2. Beta-adrenergic blockers
  3. Thiazide diuretics
  4. Calcium channel blockers Correct answer.

Explanation

Calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine are classic causes of drug-influenced gingival enlargement, along with phenytoin and cyclosporine. The enlargement is dose-related and reflects fibroblast proliferation with reduced collagen breakdown.

Question 31Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which bone cell is multinucleated, arises from the monocyte-macrophage lineage, and resorbs mineralized matrix?

  1. Osteoblast
  2. Fibroblast
  3. Osteocyte
  4. Osteoclast Correct answer.

Explanation

Osteoclasts form by fusion of monocyte-macrophage precursors and resorb bone using a ruffled border and proton pumps. Osteoblasts are of mesenchymal origin and deposit matrix, while osteocytes are mature osteoblasts housed in lacunae.

Question 32Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

An inhaled-corticosteroid user develops white, wipeable plaques on the buccal mucosa and dorsal tongue. Which organism is the most likely cause?

  1. Streptococcus mutans
  2. Actinomyces israelii
  3. Candida albicans Correct answer.
  4. Herpes simplex virus

Explanation

Inhaled corticosteroids suppress local immunity and raise salivary glucose, favoring overgrowth of Candida albicans, which produces pseudomembranous candidiasis. The plaques rub off leaving an erythematous base, and pseudohyphae are seen on KOH preparation.

Question 33Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which lesion is the most common benign neoplasm of the salivary glands?

  1. Oncocytoma
  2. Pleomorphic adenoma Correct answer.
  3. Warthin tumor
  4. Basal cell adenoma

Explanation

Pleomorphic adenoma is the most frequent salivary gland tumor, most often arising in the parotid, and it contains both epithelial and myxochondroid elements. It requires excision with margin because recurrence is common and malignant transformation is possible.

Question 34Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which collagen type is the principal structural component of basement membranes?

  1. Type I
  2. Type II
  3. Type IV Correct answer.
  4. Type III

Explanation

Type IV collagen forms a nonfibrillar network in the lamina densa of basement membranes, where it supports epithelial attachment. Type I predominates in bone, dentin, and mature scar, type II in cartilage, and type III in reticular fibers.

Question 35Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Aspirin produces its prolonged antiplatelet effect by irreversible inhibition of which enzyme?

  1. Cyclooxygenase Correct answer.
  2. Phospholipase A2
  3. ADP receptor
  4. Lipoxygenase

Explanation

Aspirin acetylates cyclooxygenase in platelets, blocking thromboxane A2 production for the life of the platelet, since platelets cannot synthesize new enzyme. This effect persists roughly 7 to 10 days, matching platelet turnover.

Question 36Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Which component provides most of the buffering capacity of whole saliva?

  1. Amylase
  2. Bicarbonate Correct answer.
  3. Lysozyme
  4. Mucin glycoproteins

Explanation

Saliva is buffered mainly by the bicarbonate-carbonic acid system, and bicarbonate concentration rises sharply with flow rate, so stimulated saliva buffers acid far better than resting saliva. Phosphate and protein buffers contribute comparatively little.

Question 37Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Allergic contact stomatitis to a dental metal such as nickel is mediated by which mechanism?

  1. Immune complex deposition
  2. IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity
  3. Antibody-dependent cytotoxicity
  4. Delayed T-cell hypersensitivity Correct answer.

Explanation

Contact allergy is a type IV reaction in which metal haptens are presented to sensitized T lymphocytes, producing a response that peaks 48 to 72 hours after exposure. It is antibody-independent, so immediate skin or serologic testing for IgE is not diagnostic.

Question 38Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Local anesthetic deposited into an acutely inflamed, acidic periodontal abscess is less effective primarily because:

  1. Less drug is present as the uncharged base Correct answer.
  2. More drug binds to interstitial plasma proteins
  3. Tissue blood flow is markedly increased
  4. The resting membrane potential is hyperpolarized

Explanation

Local anesthetics must cross the axonal membrane in their uncharged base form to reach the internal channel binding site. In acidic inflamed tissue, the equilibrium shifts toward the protonated cation, so less drug penetrates the nerve, and reduced perfusion further limits delivery.

Question 39Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Discoloration of developing teeth after tetracycline administration is best explained by which property of the drug?

  1. Binds covalently to amelogenin
  2. Stimulates melanin deposition in dentin
  3. Chelates calcium in hydroxyapatite Correct answer.
  4. Accumulates in odontoblast lysosomes

Explanation

Tetracyclines chelate calcium ions and are incorporated into mineralizing enamel, dentin, and bone as a fluorescent complex. Exposure during calcification leaves a yellow-brown to gray band whose shade depends on the timing and duration of therapy.

Question 40Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology)

Lipopolysaccharide from gram-negative periodontal pathogens is detected by which host receptor?

  1. Complement receptor 3
  2. Mannose receptor
  3. Toll-like receptor 2
  4. Toll-like receptor 4 Correct answer.

Explanation

LPS is recognized by the TLR4/MD-2 complex, triggering NF-kB signaling and release of proinflammatory cytokines that drive periodontal tissue destruction. TLR2 instead recognizes lipoteichoic acid, lipoproteins, and other gram-positive components.

Question 41Periodontal Disease and Periodontal Therapy

What is the primary etiologic factor in gingivitis?

  1. Dental plaque biofilm Correct answer.
  2. Materia alba
  3. Food impaction
  4. Supragingival calculus

Explanation

Gingivitis is an inflammatory response to the organized bacterial biofilm that accumulates on tooth surfaces and at the gingival margin. Calculus and other deposits are retentive factors that help biofilm accumulate, but they are not the primary cause.

Question 42Periodontal Disease and Periodontal Therapy

Periodontitis is best defined as which of the following?

  1. Gingival enlargement caused by systemic medications
  2. Infection confined to the alveolar mucosa
  3. Reversible inflammation limited to the gingival margin
  4. Irreversible destruction with clinical attachment loss Correct answer.

Explanation

Periodontitis involves irreversible destruction of the periodontal attachment apparatus, including the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone. Clinical attachment loss is the defining measurable feature that distinguishes it from gingivitis.

Question 43Periodontal Disease and Periodontal Therapy

Probing depth is measured from which landmark to which landmark?

  1. Cementoenamel junction to the pocket base
  2. Gingival margin to the pocket base Correct answer.
  3. Cementoenamel junction to the alveolar crest
  4. Gingival margin to the mucogingival junction

Explanation

Probing depth is the distance from the free gingival margin to the base of the sulcus or pocket. Clinical attachment level uses the cementoenamel junction as its coronal reference instead.

Question 44Periodontal Disease and Periodontal Therapy

Clinical attachment level is calculated as probing depth plus which measurement?

  1. The depth of the furcation involvement
  2. Gingival recession measured from the CEJ Correct answer.
  3. The distance from the CEJ to the alveolar crest
  4. The width of keratinized gingiva

Explanation

When the gingival margin is apical to the cementoenamel junction, CAL equals probing depth plus the recession measured from the CEJ to the margin. This adjustment accounts for loss of attachment that probing depth alone can underestimate.

Question 45Periodontal Disease and Periodontal Therapy

Which mouthrinse is considered the gold standard for chemical plaque control?

  1. Essential oil mouthrinse
  2. Sodium fluoride 0.2% rinse
  3. Chlorhexidine gluconate 0.12% Correct answer.
  4. Cetylpyridinium chloride 0.05%

Explanation

Chlorhexidine gluconate has broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity and strong substantivity, binding to oral surfaces and releasing over time. It remains the reference agent against which other antiplaque rinses are compared.

Question 46Periodontal Disease and Periodontal Therapy

Supragingival calculus is located where in relation to the gingival margin?

  1. On the root surface after attachment loss
  2. Apical to the gingival margin within the pocket
  3. Coronal to the gingival margin Correct answer.
  4. Within the alveolar bone proper

Explanation

Supragingival calculus forms coronal to the gingival margin and is visible on the clinical crowns. Subgingival calculus forms apical to the margin within periodontal pockets.

Question 47Periodontal Disease and Periodontal Therapy

Bleeding on probing is primarily a clinical sign of which condition?

  1. Gingival inflammation Correct answer.
  2. Attached gingiva width
  3. Tooth mobility
  4. Alveolar bone loss

Explanation

Bleeding on probing reflects vascular dilation and increased permeability associated with gingival inflammation. It is a useful indicator of active inflammation, although it does not by itself quantify attachment loss.

Question 48Periodontal Disease and Periodontal Therapy

What is the typical recall interval for periodontal maintenance after active periodontal therapy?

  1. Every 2 weeks
  2. Every 12 months
  3. Every 3 months Correct answer.
  4. Every 6 months

Explanation

Patients with a history of periodontitis are generally maintained at 3-month intervals, especially when risk factors or residual pockets are present. This interval is based on the time needed for biofilm to reestablish and for clinical re-evaluation.

Question 49Periodontal Disease and Periodontal Therapy

Cigarette smoking affects periodontal disease primarily by which mechanism?

  1. Increasing supragingival calculus formation only
  2. Eliminating pathogenic bacteria from pockets
  3. Increasing salivary flow and neutralizing acids
  4. Reducing gingival blood flow and masking inflammation Correct answer.

Explanation

Smoking causes vasoconstriction and impairs neutrophil function, which can reduce bleeding on probing and mask clinical signs of inflammation. Despite these muted signs, smokers have increased risk and faster progression of periodontal destruction.

Question 50Periodontal Disease and Periodontal Therapy

Which statement best describes the relationship between diabetes and periodontitis?

  1. Periodontitis causes diabetes only in type 1 disease
  2. Diabetes protects against periodontal bone loss
  3. Diabetes and periodontitis are bidirectionally linked Correct answer.
  4. Periodontitis has no effect on glycemic control

Explanation

Diabetes increases susceptibility to periodontitis, and periodontal inflammation can worsen glycemic control. Treatment of periodontal infection has been associated with improved metabolic outcomes, supporting a bidirectional relationship.