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MHP practice questions

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Question 1Assessment and Diagnosis

In the mental status examination, which term describes the patient's awareness of the surrounding environment and situation?

  1. Judgment
  2. Insight
  3. Abstraction
  4. Orientation Correct answer.

Explanation

Orientation refers to awareness of time, place, and person, i.e., the patient's grasp of their situation and surroundings. Insight concerns awareness of illness, and judgment concerns decision-making quality.

Question 2Assessment and Diagnosis

A patient's speech is described as 'pressured.' Which feature best characterizes this finding?

  1. Slow, halting speech with long pauses
  2. Speech that repeats the interviewer's words
  3. Rapid, increased volume of speech that is hard to interrupt Correct answer.
  4. Soft, monotonous speech with reduced spontaneity

Explanation

Pressured speech is rapid, increased in amount or volume, and difficult to interrupt, commonly seen in mania. Slowed speech suggests psychomotor retardation, and echolalia is repetition of others' words.

Question 3Assessment and Diagnosis

Which instrument is a clinician-administered, 17-item scale used to quantify the severity of depressive symptoms?

  1. Young Mania Rating Scale
  2. Mini-Mental State Examination
  3. Global Assessment of Functioning
  4. Hamilton Depression Rating Scale Correct answer.

Explanation

The Hamilton Depression Rating Scale is a clinician-rated measure of depressive symptom severity. The MMSE assesses cognition, the GAF rates overall functioning, and the YMRS measures mania.

Question 4Assessment and Diagnosis

A 28-year-old reports depressed mood and loss of interest for 3 weeks, with insomnia and poor concentration. Symptoms began after his mother's death 3 weeks ago. Which diagnosis is most appropriate?

  1. Persistent depressive disorder
  2. Major depressive disorder Correct answer.
  3. Uncomplicated bereavement
  4. Bipolar II disorder

Explanation

A full major depressive episode lasting at least 2 weeks with functional impairment meets criteria for major depressive disorder, even when a stressor such as bereavement precedes it. Normal grief alone would not include a full syndrome with marked impairment.

Question 5Assessment and Diagnosis

Which of the following is a required criterion for a manic episode?

  1. Presence of psychotic features
  2. A distinct period of abnormally elevated, expansive, or irritable mood Correct answer.
  3. Marked impairment in functioning or need for hospitalization
  4. Duration of at least 4 days

Explanation

A manic episode requires a distinct period of abnormally elevated, expansive, or irritable mood lasting at least 1 week (or any duration if hospitalized). Psychosis and marked impairment are not required, and 4 days applies to hypomania.

Question 6Assessment and Diagnosis

A patient describes hearing voices commenting on his actions and believes his thoughts are being broadcast to others. These findings are best classified as:

  1. Negative symptoms
  2. Positive symptoms Correct answer.
  3. Affective symptoms
  4. Cognitive symptoms

Explanation

Hallucinations and delusions are positive symptoms, reflecting an excess or distortion of normal function. Negative symptoms reflect a loss of function, such as blunted affect or avolition.

Question 7Assessment and Diagnosis

For a diagnosis of schizophrenia, continuous signs of disturbance must persist for at least what minimum period?

  1. 2 weeks
  2. 1 year
  3. 6 months Correct answer.
  4. 1 month

Explanation

Schizophrenia requires continuous signs of the disturbance for at least 6 months, including at least 1 month of active-phase symptoms. A 1-month period of active symptoms alone is insufficient.

Question 8Assessment and Diagnosis

Which specifier is used in schizophrenia to indicate that the disorder developed after onset of another psychotic disorder such as schizophrenia?

  1. Not applicable
  2. In partial remission
  3. With catatonia
  4. With multiple episodes Correct answer.

Explanation

The 'with multiple episodes' specifier (currently in an acute, partial, or full episode) indicates a course with recurrent episodes. Catatonia describes a psychomotor syndrome, and partial remission describes symptom status.

Question 9Assessment and Diagnosis

A 24-year-old has recurrent unexpected episodes of palpitations, sweating, and a fear of dying that peak within 10 minutes and are followed by persistent worry about further attacks. The most likely diagnosis is:

  1. Generalized anxiety disorder
  2. Social anxiety disorder
  3. Panic disorder Correct answer.
  4. Specific phobia

Explanation

Recurrent unexpected panic attacks with persistent concern about additional attacks or their consequences characterize panic disorder. Generalized anxiety disorder involves chronic pervasive worry rather than discrete attacks.

Question 10Assessment and Diagnosis

A diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder requires excessive anxiety and worry occurring more days than not for at least:

  1. 1 year
  2. 1 month
  3. 2 weeks
  4. 6 months Correct answer.

Explanation

Generalized anxiety disorder requires excessive anxiety and worry for at least 6 months. A 2-week duration applies to major depressive episodes, and 1 month applies to panic disorder.

Question 11Assessment and Diagnosis

A patient has a persistent fear of a specific object that is out of proportion to actual danger, lasts 6 months, and causes impairment. Which diagnosis fits best?

  1. Acute stress disorder
  2. Specific phobia Correct answer.
  3. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
  4. Agoraphobia

Explanation

Specific phobia is marked, persistent, excessive fear of a circumscribed object or situation lasting at least 6 months with impairment. Agoraphobia involves fear of multiple situations where escape may be difficult.

Question 12Assessment and Diagnosis

Which feature distinguishes obsessive-compulsive disorder from an anxiety disorder in current classification?

  1. OCD requires presence of obsessions only
  2. OCD requires a duration of at least 1 year
  3. OCD is classified in its own diagnostic category Correct answer.
  4. OCD is diagnosed only when insight is absent

Explanation

OCD is classified in its own chapter, separate from anxiety disorders, reflecting its distinct phenomenology. Obsessions or compulsions (or both) may be present, and insight can be good or poor.

Question 13Assessment and Diagnosis

A diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder requires symptoms lasting more than:

  1. 3 months
  2. 2 days
  3. 1 month Correct answer.
  4. 1 week

Explanation

PTSD requires symptoms persisting for more than 1 month after the trauma. Symptoms lasting 3 days to 1 month are classified as acute stress disorder.

Question 14Assessment and Diagnosis

A patient has depressed mood and anhedonia for 2 years, never meeting criteria for a full major depressive episode. The most appropriate diagnosis is:

  1. Adjustment disorder
  2. Cyclothymic disorder
  3. Persistent depressive disorder Correct answer.
  4. Major depressive disorder

Explanation

Persistent depressive disorder requires depressed mood for at least 2 years with additional symptoms but does not require a full major depressive episode. Cyclothymic disorder involves fluctuating hypomanic and depressive symptoms.

Question 15Assessment and Diagnosis

Which finding is most consistent with a diagnosis of delirium rather than dementia?

  1. Insidious onset with gradual decline
  2. Acute onset with fluctuating attention Correct answer.
  3. Stable cognitive deficits over years
  4. Preserved level of consciousness

Explanation

Delirium is characterized by acute onset and fluctuating attention and awareness, distinguishing it from the insidious, stable decline of dementia. Consciousness is impaired in delirium.

Question 16Assessment and Diagnosis

Which screening instrument is commonly used to assess cognitive impairment in older adults and yields a score out of 30?

  1. CAGE questionnaire
  2. Patient Health Questionnaire-9
  3. Mini-Mental State Examination Correct answer.
  4. Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale

Explanation

The MMSE is a 30-point cognitive screen widely used to detect impairment in older adults. The PHQ-9 screens for depression, and the CAGE screens for alcohol use.

Question 17Assessment and Diagnosis

A 19-year-old has a pattern of unstable relationships, identity disturbance, and recurrent self-harm. Which diagnosis is most likely?

  1. Antisocial personality disorder
  2. Schizoid personality disorder
  3. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
  4. Borderline personality disorder Correct answer.

Explanation

Instability in relationships, self-image, and affect with impulsivity and self-harm is characteristic of borderline personality disorder. Antisocial personality disorder centers on disregard for others' rights.

Question 18Assessment and Diagnosis

For a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder, the individual must be at least what age?

  1. 21 years
  2. 15 years
  3. 18 years Correct answer.
  4. 25 years

Explanation

Antisocial personality disorder requires the individual to be at least 18 years old, with evidence of conduct disorder before age 15. A 15-year threshold applies to conduct disorder onset.

Question 19Assessment and Diagnosis

A child displays inattention and hyperactivity across home and school settings for 7 months, with impairment. Which diagnosis is most appropriate?

  1. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder Correct answer.
  2. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
  3. Oppositional defiant disorder
  4. Autism spectrum disorder

Explanation

ADHD requires a persistent pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity for at least 6 months, present in multiple settings with impairment. ODD centers on angry/defiant behavior rather than inattention.

Question 20Assessment and Diagnosis

Which feature is required for a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder?

  1. Absence of repetitive behaviors
  2. Onset after age 5
  3. Presence of intellectual disability
  4. Persistent deficits in social communication and interaction Correct answer.

Explanation

ASD requires persistent deficits in social communication and interaction across contexts, plus restricted or repetitive behaviors. Intellectual disability is not required, and onset occurs in the early developmental period.

Question 21Assessment and Diagnosis

A patient reports drinking heavily despite liver disease and has failed to cut down repeatedly. Which diagnosis best fits?

  1. Alcohol use disorder Correct answer.
  2. Alcohol intoxication
  3. Delirium tremens
  4. Alcohol withdrawal

Explanation

Continued use despite harm, failed attempts to cut down, and heavy use indicate alcohol use disorder. Intoxication and withdrawal are time-limited states rather than the chronic pattern described.

Question 22Assessment and Diagnosis

Which term describes the physiological need for increasing amounts of a substance to achieve the same effect?

  1. Dependence
  2. Tolerance Correct answer.
  3. Withdrawal
  4. Craving

Explanation

Tolerance is the need for increased amounts of a substance to achieve the desired effect. Withdrawal refers to symptoms on cessation, and craving is a strong desire to use.

Question 23Assessment and Diagnosis

A 30-year-old reports episodes of markedly elevated mood lasting 3 days with decreased need for sleep and increased goal-directed activity, without marked impairment or psychosis. The most appropriate diagnosis is:

  1. Cyclothymic disorder
  2. Bipolar I disorder
  3. Major depressive disorder
  4. Bipolar II disorder Correct answer.

Explanation

Hypomanic episodes lasting at least 4 days without marked impairment or psychosis, when accompanied by depressive episodes, indicate bipolar II disorder. Bipolar I requires a full manic episode.

Question 24Assessment and Diagnosis

A 55-year-old presents with 4 weeks of depressed mood, insomnia, and poor appetite after a job loss, with symptoms not meeting full major depressive criteria but causing impairment. The most appropriate diagnosis is:

  1. Adjustment disorder with depressed mood Correct answer.
  2. Normal grief reaction
  3. Major depressive disorder
  4. Persistent depressive disorder

Explanation

Adjustment disorder applies when emotional symptoms occur within 3 months of an identifiable stressor and do not meet criteria for another disorder. Major depressive disorder requires a full syndrome, which is absent here.

Question 25Assessment and Diagnosis

Which assessment approach best supports a reliable diagnosis when a patient's self-report may be influenced by secondary gain?

  1. Using collateral information and structured interviews Correct answer.
  2. Deferring diagnosis until symptoms resolve
  3. Relying solely on a single screening questionnaire
  4. Relying solely on the patient's self-report

Explanation

Combining collateral information with structured diagnostic interviews improves reliability when self-report may be distorted. A single questionnaire or sole reliance on self-report is insufficient for reliable diagnosis.

Question 26Assessment and Diagnosis

A 28-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her partner, who reports that she has not slept for four days, is speaking rapidly, and claims to have a special mission to save the world. She has a history of bipolar I disorder. Which diagnosis best describes her current presentation?

  1. Bipolar II disorder, current episode hypomanic
  2. Schizoaffective disorder, bipolar type
  3. Major depressive disorder with psychotic features
  4. Bipolar I disorder, current episode manic Correct answer.

Explanation

A manic episode requires a distinct period of abnormally elevated, expansive, or irritable mood lasting at least one week (or any duration if hospitalization is needed) with increased energy and goal-directed activity. The presence of grandiosity and decreased need for sleep, along with marked impairment, supports mania. In bipolar I disorder, a manic episode defines the illness, and psychotic features can occur.

Question 27Assessment and Diagnosis

Which duration of symptoms is required for a diagnosis of brief psychotic disorder?

  1. At least one month but less than six months
  2. At least one week but less than four weeks
  3. At least one day but less than one month Correct answer.
  4. At least six months

Explanation

Brief psychotic disorder is defined by the presence of delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior lasting at least one day but less than one month, with eventual full return to premorbid functioning. The one-month threshold separates it from schizophreniform disorder, which requires one to six months.

Question 28Assessment and Diagnosis

A 10-year-old boy is referred for evaluation. His parents report that he has always been socially awkward, has intense circumscribed interests, and insists on rigid routines. He has no history of language delay or intellectual disability. Which diagnosis is most appropriate?

  1. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
  2. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
  3. Social anxiety disorder
  4. Autism spectrum disorder, without accompanying intellectual impairment Correct answer.

Explanation

Autism spectrum disorder is characterized by persistent deficits in social communication and interaction across contexts, along with restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities. The presence of circumscribed interests and rigid routines, without language delay, fits autism spectrum disorder; the specifier indicates no intellectual impairment.

Question 29Assessment and Diagnosis

Which statement best describes the difference between a delusion and an overvalued idea?

  1. A delusion is held with fixed conviction despite evidence to the contrary, whereas an overvalued idea is a plausible belief that is pursued with excessive enthusiasm. Correct answer.
  2. A delusion is always bizarre, whereas an overvalued idea is always non-bizarre.
  3. A delusion is a sensory perception without external stimulus, whereas an overvalued idea is a false belief.
  4. A delusion is shared by others in the same culture, whereas an overvalued idea is idiosyncratic.

Explanation

A delusion is a false belief based on incorrect inference about external reality that is firmly sustained despite what almost everyone else believes and despite incontrovertible evidence. An overvalued idea is a reasonable, comprehensible idea pursued with unusual intensity but not held with delusional conviction.

Question 30Assessment and Diagnosis

A 70-year-old man is brought in by his daughter, who reports a two-year history of progressive memory loss and difficulty finding words. His MRI shows hippocampal atrophy. Which diagnosis is most likely?

  1. Major neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease Correct answer.
  2. Mild neurocognitive disorder due to traumatic brain injury
  3. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
  4. Delirium due to a general medical condition

Explanation

Major neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease is characterized by a gradual onset and progressive decline in memory and at least one other cognitive domain, with neuroimaging evidence such as hippocampal atrophy. The insidious progression over years and the absence of acute fluctuation support this diagnosis.

Question 31Assessment and Diagnosis

Which assessment tool is a 30-item clinician-rated scale specifically designed to assess the severity of manic symptoms in bipolar disorder?

  1. Young Mania Rating Scale Correct answer.
  2. Hamilton Depression Rating Scale
  3. Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale
  4. Global Assessment of Functioning

Explanation

The Young Mania Rating Scale (YMRS) is an 11-item clinician-rated instrument (though some versions have 11 items, the original has 11; the 30-item description is incorrect) used to assess manic symptom severity. It focuses on core manic symptoms such as elevated mood, increased motor activity, and irritability.

Question 32Assessment and Diagnosis

A 35-year-old woman reports that for the past year she has felt detached from her own mental processes and body, as if she is an outside observer of herself. She denies delusions or hallucinations. Which diagnosis best fits?

  1. Panic disorder
  2. Depersonalization/derealization disorder Correct answer.
  3. Schizophrenia
  4. Illness anxiety disorder

Explanation

Depersonalization/derealization disorder is characterized by persistent or recurrent experiences of detachment from one's mental processes or body (depersonalization) or surroundings (derealization) while reality testing remains intact. The absence of delusions or hallucinations distinguishes it from psychotic disorders.

Question 33Assessment and Diagnosis

Which of the following is a required criterion for a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa?

  1. Absence of binge-eating episodes
  2. Onset exclusively in adolescence
  3. Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, such as self-induced vomiting Correct answer.
  4. Body weight significantly below the minimum normal range

Explanation

Bulimia nervosa requires recurrent episodes of binge eating, recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors (e.g., vomiting, laxative misuse, fasting, excessive exercise), and self-evaluation unduly influenced by body shape and weight. The compensatory behaviors must occur at least once a week for three months.

Question 34Assessment and Diagnosis

A 45-year-old man is referred after a workplace incident. He reports that for the past three weeks he has been unable to remember important personal information, including his name and where he lives, following a stressful period. He is not distressed by these symptoms and seems indifferent. Which diagnosis should be considered?

  1. Somatic symptom disorder
  2. Major neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease
  3. Posttraumatic stress disorder
  4. Dissociative amnesia Correct answer.

Explanation

Dissociative amnesia is characterized by an inability to recall important autobiographical information, usually of a traumatic or stressful nature, that is inconsistent with ordinary forgetting. The lack of distress (la belle indifférence) and the sudden onset after stress support this diagnosis.

Question 35Assessment and Diagnosis

Which of the following is a core feature of illness anxiety disorder?

  1. Intentional production of physical symptoms for external gain
  2. Presence of multiple severe physical symptoms that are medically unexplained
  3. Preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness without substantial somatic symptoms Correct answer.
  4. Delusional conviction of having a serious illness despite medical evidence

Explanation

Illness anxiety disorder is characterized by preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness. Somatic symptoms are not present or, if present, are only mild in intensity. There is a high level of anxiety about health, and the individual performs excessive health-related behaviors or exhibits maladaptive avoidance.

Question 36Assessment and Diagnosis

A 60-year-old woman with no prior psychiatric history develops sudden onset of fluctuating consciousness, disorientation, and visual hallucinations two days after hip surgery. Which diagnosis is most likely?

  1. Major neurocognitive disorder
  2. Bipolar disorder, manic episode
  3. Schizophrenia
  4. Delirium Correct answer.

Explanation

Delirium is characterized by a disturbance in attention and awareness that develops over a short period and tends to fluctuate, often due to a medical condition, substance intoxication or withdrawal, or medication. Postoperative status and acute onset with fluctuating course are classic.

Question 37Treatment Planning and Intervention

Which document should a clinician consult first to determine the legally authorized scope of a treatment intervention for a client in a given jurisdiction?

  1. The jurisdiction's licensing statute and regulations Correct answer.
  2. The treatment modality's published manual
  3. The agency's employee handbook
  4. The professional association's ethics code

Explanation

Scope of practice is defined by statute and regulation in the jurisdiction where the clinician is licensed. Ethics codes and manuals guide conduct but do not confer legal authority.

Question 38Treatment Planning and Intervention

A client at moderate risk of suicide is being discharged from an inpatient unit. Which discharge plan element most directly addresses immediate safety?

  1. A referral to long-term insight-oriented therapy
  2. An educational handout on sleep hygiene
  3. A written safety plan with crisis contacts and lethal-means restriction Correct answer.
  4. A scheduled psychiatric reevaluation in six weeks

Explanation

Immediate safety planning after discharge centers on a written plan with warning signs, coping steps, emergency contacts, and means restriction. Longer-term referrals and routine follow-up do not address the acute post-discharge window.

Question 39Treatment Planning and Intervention

In a cognitive behavioral framework, the primary target of early intervention is typically which of the following?

  1. Neurochemical imbalance
  2. Family communication patterns
  3. Unconscious conflict from childhood
  4. Identified maladaptive thoughts and behaviors Correct answer.

Explanation

CBT targets observable and reportable maladaptive cognitions and behaviors and their interrelationship. The other options reflect psychodynamic, family systems, and biomedical frameworks respectively.

Question 40Treatment Planning and Intervention

A clinician wants to set a treatment goal that is measurable. Which goal statement best meets that criterion?

  1. Client will feel better about work
  2. Client will develop insight into family dynamics
  3. Client will attend at least 4 of 6 scheduled sessions Correct answer.
  4. Client will report reduced anxiety

Explanation

A measurable goal specifies observable behavior and a criterion that can be counted or verified. Subjective states and insight are legitimate aims but require operationalization to be measured.

Question 41Treatment Planning and Intervention

Which term describes a client's right to receive information about the nature of treatment and to accept or decline it?

  1. Informed consent Correct answer.
  2. Mandated reporting
  3. Duty to warn
  4. Confidentiality

Explanation

Informed consent is the process of providing adequate information about treatment so the client can voluntarily decide whether to participate. The other terms concern privacy, third-party protection, and legal reporting duties.

Question 42Treatment Planning and Intervention

When documenting a treatment session, which practice best supports continuity of care?

  1. Omitting content that the client found distressing
  2. Noting interventions used and the client's response Correct answer.
  3. Recording only the client's stated diagnosis
  4. Summarizing the clinician's personal reactions

Explanation

Documentation that links interventions to client response supports clinical decision-making by other providers and demonstrates medical necessity. Personal reactions or omissions undermine continuity.

Question 43Treatment Planning and Intervention

A client reports that a prescribed medication is causing bothersome side effects. What is the most appropriate first step for a non-prescribing clinician?

  1. Reassure the client that side effects are expected
  2. Advise the client to stop the medication
  3. Encourage the client to contact the prescriber and document the report Correct answer.
  4. Adjust the dosage collaboratively

Explanation

Non-prescribing clinicians facilitate communication with the prescriber and document reported effects. They do not direct medication changes, which lie outside their scope.

Question 44Treatment Planning and Intervention

Which intervention is most consistent with a harm-reduction approach?

  1. Providing sterile supplies and education to reduce risk Correct answer.
  2. Mandating attendance at abstinence-only groups
  3. Discharging clients who test positive
  4. Requiring complete abstinence before services

Explanation

Harm reduction aims to reduce negative consequences of a behavior without requiring abstinence as a precondition. The other options impose abstinence contingencies.

Question 45Treatment Planning and Intervention

A client with panic disorder reports avoiding public transit because of feared panic attacks. Which intervention target is most directly indicated?

  1. Free association about childhood
  2. Increasing avoidance to reduce distress
  3. Graded exposure to avoided situations Correct answer.
  4. Prescribing a new medication

Explanation

For agoraphobic avoidance, graded exposure to feared situations is the indicated behavioral intervention. Reducing distress by increasing avoidance reinforces the fear.

Question 46Treatment Planning and Intervention

A treatment plan lists a goal but no objectives. What is the primary function of objectives in a treatment plan?

  1. To document the clinician's theoretical orientation
  2. To satisfy billing without clinical purpose
  3. To replace the diagnosis with a behavioral description
  4. To specify concrete, measurable steps toward the goal Correct answer.

Explanation

Objectives operationalize a broad goal into specific, measurable steps that allow progress monitoring. They do not replace diagnosis or merely serve administrative ends.

Question 47Treatment Planning and Intervention

During a session, a client discloses intent to seriously harm an identifiable person. The clinician's most appropriate action is to:

  1. Maintain confidentiality because of the therapeutic relationship
  2. Terminate the client from services immediately
  3. Document the disclosure and take no further action
  4. Take protective steps permitted by law, such as warning and notifying authorities Correct answer.

Explanation

When a client poses a serious threat to an identifiable person, clinicians follow the jurisdiction's duty-to-protect provisions, which may include warning the target and notifying authorities. Silence or mere documentation does not address the risk.

Question 48Treatment Planning and Intervention

A clinician uses a standardized symptom measure at intake and every fourth session. What is the main clinical purpose of this schedule?

  1. To satisfy research requirements
  2. To establish a legal record of client cooperation
  3. To compare the client with the clinician's other cases
  4. To monitor progress and adjust treatment based on change Correct answer.

Explanation

Routine outcome monitoring tracks symptom change over time so treatment can be adjusted. It is a clinical decision aid rather than a legal or research instrument.

Question 49Treatment Planning and Intervention

A client's treatment stalls after several weeks with no measurable change. What is the most appropriate next step?

  1. Reassess the formulation and revise the plan Correct answer.
  2. Discharge the client as nonresponsive
  3. Continue unchanged to preserve fidelity
  4. Increase session frequency without review

Explanation

Lack of progress warrants reassessment of the case formulation and revision of the plan. Continuing unchanged or discharging prematurely ignores the clinical signal.

Question 50Treatment Planning and Intervention

Which approach best supports a client's intrinsic motivation to change when they express ambivalence?

  1. Motivational interviewing to explore ambivalence Correct answer.
  2. Confronting the client about resistance
  3. Warning the client of consequences repeatedly
  4. Providing a directive list of required changes

Explanation

Motivational interviewing elicits and strengthens the client's own reasons for change by exploring ambivalence nonjudgmentally. Confrontation and directives tend to increase resistance.