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OA Admission Exam practice questions

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Question 1Optometry and Ocular Disease

Which structure is primarily responsible for producing aqueous humor?

  1. Ciliary epithelium Correct answer.
  2. Corneal endothelium
  3. Trabecular meshwork
  4. Lens capsule

Explanation

Aqueous humor is actively secreted by the ciliary epithelium of the ciliary body into the posterior chamber. The corneal endothelium and trabecular meshwork handle outflow and deturgescence rather than production.

Question 2Optometry and Ocular Disease

A patient reports sudden painless loss of vision in one eye described as a 'curtain' descending over the field. Which condition is most consistent with this presentation?

  1. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment Correct answer.
  2. Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
  3. Branch retinal artery occlusion
  4. Central retinal vein occlusion

Explanation

A painless curtain or shadow over the visual field is the classic description of a rhegmatogenous retinal detachment as subretinal fluid separates the neurosensory retina. The other listed vascular and optic nerve conditions typically produce abrupt, more uniform field loss.

Question 3Optometry and Ocular Disease

What is the normal range of intraocular pressure in most healthy adults?

  1. 22 to 30 mmHg
  2. 10 to 21 mmHg Correct answer.
  3. 5 to 10 mmHg
  4. 30 to 40 mmHg

Explanation

The widely cited normal IOP range is approximately 10 to 21 mmHg, based on population distributions. Values above 21 mmHg are considered ocular hypertension and below 5 mmHg hypotony.

Question 4Optometry and Ocular Disease

Which corneal layer is primarily responsible for maintaining corneal deturgescence?

  1. Epithelium
  2. Endothelium Correct answer.
  3. Bowman layer
  4. Stroma

Explanation

The corneal endothelium uses Na+/K+-ATPase pumps and a leaky barrier to draw fluid out of the stroma, keeping the cornea clear. Loss of endothelial cells leads to stromal edema and haze.

Question 5Optometry and Ocular Disease

Which type of cataract is most strongly associated with aging and appears as a central opacity that worsens glare and near vision?

  1. Traumatic
  2. Nuclear sclerotic Correct answer.
  3. Posterior subcapsular
  4. Anterior polar

Explanation

Nuclear sclerotic cataract is the most common age-related type, producing central yellowing and increased refractive index that can cause a myopic shift and glare. Posterior subcapsular cataract is more associated with corticosteroids, diabetes, and radiation.

Question 6Optometry and Ocular Disease

A 6-year-old child is found to have 20/40 vision in one eye with a normal fundus and a 2-diopter hyperopic difference between eyes. Which condition should be suspected?

  1. Optic neuritis
  2. Strabismic amblyopia
  3. Anisometropic amblyopia Correct answer.
  4. Congenital glaucoma

Explanation

Unequal refractive error between eyes can cause anisometropic amblyopia because the more hyperopic eye receives a chronically defocused image. The normal fundus and absence of strabismus point away from other causes.

Question 7Optometry and Ocular Disease

Which test is used to assess for a relative afferent pupillary defect?

  1. Swinging flashlight test Correct answer.
  2. Cover test
  3. Schirmer test
  4. Worth 4-dot test

Explanation

The swinging flashlight test compares the pupillary response between eyes when light is alternated, revealing an asymmetric afferent pathway. A positive result indicates optic nerve or extensive retinal dysfunction.

Question 8Optometry and Ocular Disease

Which refractive error is corrected with a concave (minus) lens?

  1. Astigmatism only
  2. Myopia Correct answer.
  3. Hyperopia
  4. Presbyopia

Explanation

Myopia is corrected with diverging minus lenses that move the focal point back onto the retina. Hyperopia requires converging plus lenses.

Question 9Optometry and Ocular Disease

A patient with long-standing diabetes presents with sudden painless vision loss and extensive retinal hemorrhages in all quadrants with dilated tortuous veins. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. Central retinal vein occlusion Correct answer.
  2. Serous macular detachment
  3. Vitreous hemorrhage from a retinal tear
  4. Central retinal artery occlusion

Explanation

Central retinal vein occlusion produces the 'blood and thunder' fundus with diffuse hemorrhages, venous dilation, and tortuosity, often in patients with vascular risk factors. Central retinal artery occlusion instead shows a pale retina with a cherry-red spot.

Question 10Optometry and Ocular Disease

Which organism is the most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis in adults?

  1. Staphylococcus aureus Correct answer.
  2. Chlamydia trachomatis
  3. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  4. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Explanation

Staphylococcus aureus is among the most frequently isolated organisms in adult bacterial conjunctivitis, along with Staphylococcus epidermidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae. Gonococcal and chlamydial conjunctivitis are less common but more serious.

Question 11Optometry and Ocular Disease

A patient with open-angle glaucoma has a target IOP of 15 mmHg but continues to show progressive visual field loss. Which additional factor should be evaluated as a modifiable risk factor?

  1. Lens color
  2. Blood pressure and ocular perfusion pressure Correct answer.
  3. Refractive error
  4. Pupil size

Explanation

Ocular perfusion pressure, influenced by blood pressure, is a recognized modifiable risk factor for glaucoma progression. Low perfusion pressure or nocturnal hypotension can contribute to progression despite controlled IOP.

Question 12Optometry and Ocular Disease

Which finding on fundus examination is characteristic of non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy?

  1. Dot-blot hemorrhages and hard exudates Correct answer.
  2. Cherry-red spot
  3. Retinal detachment
  4. Neovascularization of the disc

Explanation

Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy is characterized by microaneurysms, dot-blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, and cotton wool spots. Neovascularization marks progression to proliferative disease.

Question 13Optometry and Ocular Disease

A patient presents with a red, painful eye, photophobia, and a dendritic corneal lesion that stains with fluorescein. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

  1. Topical lubricant only
  2. Topical antiviral Correct answer.
  3. Topical corticosteroid
  4. Topical antibiotic

Explanation

A dendritic lesion indicates herpes simplex keratitis, which is treated with topical antiviral agents such as ganciclovir or trifluridine. Topical corticosteroids can worsen the infection and are contraindicated in active epithelial disease.

Question 14Optometry and Ocular Disease

Which type of glaucoma is associated with a shallow anterior chamber and sudden onset of severe pain, halos, and nausea?

  1. Pigmentary glaucoma
  2. Normal-tension glaucoma
  3. Primary open-angle glaucoma
  4. Acute angle-closure glaucoma Correct answer.

Explanation

Acute angle-closure glaucoma presents with a shallow anterior chamber, markedly elevated IOP, severe pain, halos, and systemic symptoms such as nausea. Immediate IOP-lowering treatment is required to prevent permanent optic nerve damage.

Question 15Optometry and Ocular Disease

Which layer of the tear film is produced primarily by the meibomian glands?

  1. Mucin layer
  2. Lipid layer Correct answer.
  3. Glycocalyx layer
  4. Aqueous layer

Explanation

Meibomian glands secrete the outer lipid layer that retards tear evaporation and stabilizes the tear film. The aqueous layer comes from the lacrimal glands and the mucin layer from conjunctival goblet cells.

Question 16Optometry and Ocular Disease

A patient with a history of blunt trauma presents with a teardrop-shaped pupil, decreased vision, and a dilated pupil that does not constrict to light. Which structure is most likely injured?

  1. Ciliary muscle
  2. Dilator pupillae
  3. Sphincter pupillae Correct answer.
  4. Trabecular meshwork

Explanation

Blunt trauma can rupture the iris sphincter, producing a dilated, irregular (teardrop) pupil with poor light response. The sphincter pupillae mediates constriction and is vulnerable to traumatic tears.

Question 17Optometry and Ocular Disease

Which visual field defect is most characteristic of a lesion at the optic chiasm?

  1. Altitudinal defect
  2. Homonymous hemianopia
  3. Central scotoma
  4. Bitemporal hemianopia Correct answer.

Explanation

The optic chiasm contains crossing nasal fibers, so a chiasmal lesion produces a bitemporal hemianopia. Post-chiasmal lesions produce homonymous defects.

Question 18Optometry and Ocular Disease

A 70-year-old patient reports gradual central vision loss and metamorphopsia, with drusen and pigmentary changes at the macula. Which condition is most likely?

  1. Retinitis pigmentosa
  2. Vitreomacular traction
  3. Age-related macular degeneration Correct answer.
  4. Open-angle glaucoma

Explanation

Drusen with pigmentary mottling and metamorphopsia in an older patient indicate age-related macular degeneration. The dry form shows drusen and atrophy, while the wet form adds choroidal neovascularization.

Question 19Optometry and Ocular Disease

Which medication class is most likely to cause a bilateral, symmetric, visually insignificant pigmentary retinopathy?

  1. Alpha agonists
  2. Beta-blockers
  3. Prostaglandin analogs
  4. Chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine Correct answer.

Explanation

Chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine can produce a dose-related bull's-eye maculopathy and pigmentary retinopathy. Regular screening with visual fields and OCT is recommended for long-term users.

Question 20Optometry and Ocular Disease

A patient with a painful red eye has a hypopyon and a corneal infiltrate with overlying epithelial defect. What is the most urgent management step?

  1. Apply a pressure patch
  2. Obtain corneal scrapings and start broad-spectrum topical antibiotics Correct answer.
  3. Schedule a routine follow-up in one week
  4. Prescribe topical steroids

Explanation

A hypopyon with a corneal infiltrate suggests bacterial keratitis, which requires urgent corneal scrapings for culture and prompt broad-spectrum topical antibiotic therapy. Delay risks corneal perforation and vision loss.

Question 21Optometry and Ocular Disease

Which phenomenon explains the increased myopic shift seen in a patient with a nuclear sclerotic cataract?

  1. Thinning of the corneal stroma
  2. Weakening of the ciliary muscle
  3. Elongation of the axial length
  4. Increased refractive index of the lens nucleus Correct answer.

Explanation

Nuclear sclerosis increases the refractive index of the lens nucleus, producing a myopic shift that can temporarily improve near vision. This change is sometimes described as 'second sight.'

Question 22Optometry and Ocular Disease

A patient with Graves' disease presents with lid retraction, proptosis, and restricted upgaze. Which finding on imaging is most characteristic?

  1. Extraocular muscle enlargement sparing the tendons Correct answer.
  2. Optic nerve glioma
  3. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
  4. Orbital lymphoma

Explanation

Thyroid eye disease typically causes enlargement of the extraocular muscles with sparing of the tendinous insertions, often involving the inferior and medial recti first. This helps distinguish it from myositis and other orbital processes.

Question 23Optometry and Ocular Disease

A patient presents with transient monocular visual loss lasting minutes, described as a 'curtain' over one eye, and has carotid bruits. What is the most likely mechanism?

  1. Vitreous hemorrhage
  2. Embolic ischemia of the retinal circulation Correct answer.
  3. Optic disc drusen
  4. Acute angle closure

Explanation

Amaurosis fugax reflects transient retinal ischemia, often from emboli originating from carotid atherosclerotic plaque. Carotid bruits support an embolic or hemodynamic mechanism requiring urgent vascular evaluation.

Question 24Optometry and Ocular Disease

Which mechanism best explains the elevated intraocular pressure in pigmentary glaucoma?

  1. Reduced scleral venous outflow
  2. Obstruction of the trabecular meshwork by dispersed pigment Correct answer.
  3. Increased aqueous production by the ciliary body
  4. Closure of the anterior chamber angle by the iris

Explanation

Pigment released from the iris pigment epithelium, often during exercise or pupillary movement, deposits in the trabecular meshwork and impairs outflow. This produces elevated IOP in predisposed, often myopic, patients.

Question 25Optometry and Ocular Disease

A patient with a history of herpes zoster ophthalmicus develops a deep corneal ulcer with hypopyon and a positive corneal sensation deficit. Which complication is most likely?

  1. Pterygium
  2. Neurotrophic keratopathy Correct answer.
  3. Episcleritis
  4. Anterior uveitis

Explanation

Herpes zoster ophthalmicus can damage the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, leading to neurotrophic keratopathy with reduced corneal sensation and poor epithelial healing. This can progress to ulceration and perforation.

Question 26Optometry and Ocular Disease

Which structure produces the aqueous humor that fills the anterior chamber?

  1. Lens capsule
  2. Ciliary epithelium Correct answer.
  3. Trabecular meshwork
  4. Corneal endothelium

Explanation

Aqueous humor is actively secreted by the ciliary epithelium of the ciliary body into the posterior chamber, then flows through the pupil into the anterior chamber. The trabecular meshwork and corneal endothelium are involved in outflow and do not produce aqueous.

Question 27Optometry and Ocular Disease

Which type of lens is used to correct hyperopia?

  1. Cylindrical lens
  2. Concave lens
  3. Convex lens Correct answer.
  4. Planar lens

Explanation

Hyperopia is corrected with a converging (plus) lens, which is convex and adds power to bring the focal point forward onto the retina. Concave lenses diverge light and are used for myopia.

Question 28Optometry and Ocular Disease

Which extraocular muscle is responsible for elevation of the eye in adduction?

  1. Inferior oblique Correct answer.
  2. Superior rectus
  3. Superior oblique
  4. Inferior rectus

Explanation

The inferior oblique has its primary action as elevation, and because of its oblique angle of insertion its elevating effect is greatest when the eye is adducted. The vertical recti elevate or depress best in abduction.

Question 29Optometry and Ocular Disease

Which cells of the retina are the primary photoreceptors responsible for vision in dim light?

  1. Bipolar cells
  2. Ganglion cells
  3. Cone photoreceptors
  4. Rod photoreceptors Correct answer.

Explanation

Rods are highly sensitive to low light levels and mediate scotopic (night) vision, while cones function best in bright light and provide color and high acuity. Bipolar and ganglion cells are downstream relay neurons, not photoreceptors.

Question 30Optometry and Ocular Disease

A patient reports that a straight edge such as a doorframe appears bent and wavy when viewed with one eye. Which condition does this symptom most suggest?

  1. Macular edema Correct answer.
  2. Vitreous hemorrhage
  3. Cataract
  4. Optic neuritis

Explanation

Metamorphopsia reflects distortion of the retinal architecture, most often from fluid accumulation in the macula such as macular edema or a serous detachment. Cataract and vitreous hemorrhage cause blurring or floaters but not localized image distortion.

Question 31Optometry and Ocular Disease

A patient's pupils constrict when a light is shone in the right eye but neither pupil constricts when the light is swung to the left eye. What does this indicate?

  1. Right oculomotor nerve palsy
  2. Bilateral Horner syndrome
  3. Left optic nerve dysfunction Correct answer.
  4. Left oculomotor nerve palsy

Explanation

A relative afferent pupillary defect occurs when the affected eye sends a weaker light signal to the brain, so the swinging flashlight test shows dilation rather than constriction when light moves to that eye. The defect localizes to the afferent pathway, here the left optic nerve.

Question 32Optometry and Ocular Disease

A patient with treated open-angle glaucoma has intraocular pressure consistently at goal but shows continued visual field progression. Which additional risk factor most strongly predicts this progression?

  1. Corneal thickness
  2. Iris color
  3. Older age Correct answer.
  4. Refractive error

Explanation

Increasing age is a well-established independent risk factor for glaucomatous progression even when intraocular pressure is controlled. Iris color and refractive error are not established predictors of progression in the same way.

Question 33Optometry and Ocular Disease

Which clinical finding best distinguishes bacterial keratitis from a sterile corneal abrasion?

  1. Watery discharge
  2. Corneal infiltrate with overlying epithelial defect Correct answer.
  3. Foreign body sensation
  4. Photophobia

Explanation

Bacterial keratitis produces a focal stromal infiltrate beneath an epithelial defect, often with surrounding inflammation. A simple abrasion shows an epithelial defect without a dense underlying infiltrate.

Question 34Optometry and Ocular Disease

A patient with a long history of poorly controlled diabetes has neovascularization of the optic disc on examination. What is the most appropriate management?

  1. Patching the affected eye
  2. Panretinal photocoagulation Correct answer.
  3. Observation with annual follow-up
  4. Topical corticosteroid drops

Explanation

Proliferative diabetic retinopathy with high-risk neovascularization is treated with panretinal photocoagulation to reduce retinal ischemia and induce regression of new vessels. Observation alone risks vitreous hemorrhage and tractional detachment.

Question 35Optometry and Ocular Disease

A patient is diagnosed with primary open-angle glaucoma. Which finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?

  1. Open anterior chamber angle on gonioscopy Correct answer.
  2. Corneal edema with halos around lights
  3. Sudden severe pain with mid-dilated fixed pupil
  4. Shallow anterior chamber with iris bombe

Explanation

Primary open-angle glaucoma is defined by an open, normal-appearing angle on gonioscopy together with optic nerve damage and visual field loss. Shallow angles and acute pain with a fixed pupil describe angle-closure disease.

Question 36Optometry and Ocular Disease

A patient with a history of recurrent uveitis develops a constricted pupil that is bound to the lens by inflammatory adhesions. What is this finding called?

  1. Posterior synechia Correct answer.
  2. Ectropion uveae
  3. Corectopia
  4. Iridodialysis

Explanation

Posterior synechiae form when the inflamed iris adheres to the anterior lens capsule, producing a fixed irregular pupil. Iridodialysis is a tear at the iris root, and ectropion uveae is eversion of the iris pigment epithelium.

Question 37Optometry and Ocular Disease

A patient presents with a sudden onset of floaters, flashes of light, and a curtain across the visual field. Which diagnosis is most likely?

  1. Central retinal vein occlusion
  2. Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
  3. Optic neuritis
  4. Retinal detachment Correct answer.

Explanation

Photopsia, new floaters, and a visual field curtain are classic for rhegmatogenous retinal detachment, often preceded by a posterior vitreous detachment. The other conditions produce different patterns of vision loss without a curtain-like field defect.

Question 38Optometry and Ocular Disease

A patient has a lesion affecting the temporal lobe of the optic radiation on one side. Which visual field defect would be expected?

  1. Bitemporal hemianopia
  2. Homonymous quadrantanopia Correct answer.
  3. Enlarged blind spot
  4. Central scotoma

Explanation

The temporal lobe of the optic radiation carries fibers from the superior retina of the contralateral visual field, so a lesion produces a homonymous superior quadrantanopia. Bitemporal defects arise from chiasmal lesions, and central scotomas are more typical of optic nerve or macular disease.

Question 39Optometry and Ocular Disease

A patient with a history of herpes zoster ophthalmicus develops a deep corneal ulcer with a hypopyon and a positive corneal culture. Which management is most appropriate?

  1. Oral acyclovir alone
  2. Topical antibiotic therapy guided by culture Correct answer.
  3. Observation with lubricants
  4. Topical corticosteroid alone

Explanation

A hypopyon with a positive corneal culture indicates microbial keratitis, most often bacterial, and requires culture-directed topical antibiotic therapy. Antiviral therapy alone does not treat bacterial superinfection, and corticosteroids without antimicrobial cover risk worsening infection.

Question 40Optometry and Ocular Disease

A patient with a known allergy to topical beta-blockers is prescribed a medication for glaucoma. Which adverse effect should be monitored with a topical alpha-2 agonist?

  1. Nephrotoxicity
  2. Bronchospasm
  3. Systemic hypertension
  4. Allergic conjunctivitis Correct answer.

Explanation

Topical alpha-2 agonists such as brimonidine commonly cause allergic conjunctivitis and ocular irritation, which may limit long-term use. Bronchospasm is associated with beta-blockers, not alpha-2 agonists.

Question 41Ocular Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Which class of drug lowers intraocular pressure primarily by reducing aqueous humor production at the ciliary epithelium through beta-adrenergic blockade?

  1. Pilocarpine
  2. Timolol Correct answer.
  3. Brimonidine
  4. Latanoprost

Explanation

Beta-blockers such as timolol reduce aqueous humor formation by blocking beta receptors on the ciliary epithelium. They do not affect outflow facility appreciably. This makes them a first-line option for many patients with open-angle glaucoma.

Question 42Ocular Pharmacology and Therapeutics

A patient using latanoprost develops increased iris pigmentation and lengthened eyelashes. These effects are best attributed to which mechanism?

  1. Muscarinic receptor antagonism
  2. Alpha-1 receptor blockade
  3. Carbonic anhydrase inhibition
  4. Prostaglandin F2-alpha receptor agonism Correct answer.

Explanation

Prostaglandin analogs act on FP receptors to increase uveoscleral outflow and are associated with iris darkening and eyelash growth. These are well-recognized class effects. They are cosmetic and generally reversible except for iris pigmentation.

Question 43Ocular Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Which topical agent is a direct-acting parasympathomimetic used to constrict the pupil and increase trabecular outflow?

  1. Atropine
  2. Pilocarpine Correct answer.
  3. Cyclopentolate
  4. Phenylephrine

Explanation

Pilocarpine directly stimulates muscarinic receptors, causing ciliary muscle contraction that opens the trabecular meshwork and produces miosis. It is a direct cholinergic agonist. Atropine and cyclopentolate are antimuscarinics with opposite effects.

Question 44Ocular Pharmacology and Therapeutics

A patient on topical timolol reports wheezing and increased shortness of breath. Which property best explains this adverse effect?

  1. Beta-2 receptor blockade in the airways Correct answer.
  2. Alpha-1 receptor agonism
  3. Muscarinic receptor stimulation
  4. Direct histamine release from mast cells

Explanation

Timolol is a nonselective beta-blocker, so it can block beta-2 receptors in bronchial smooth muscle and precipitate bronchospasm. This is why beta-blockers are avoided in patients with reactive airway disease. Systemic absorption through the nasolacrimal duct contributes to these effects.

Question 45Ocular Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Which topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is commonly used as adjunctive therapy in glaucoma?

  1. Dichlorphenamide
  2. Acetazolamide
  3. Methazolamide
  4. Dorzolamide Correct answer.

Explanation

Dorzolamide is a topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor formulated for ophthalmic use. Acetazolamide, methazolamide, and dichlorphenamide are systemic agents. Topical formulations reduce aqueous secretion while limiting systemic side effects.

Question 46Ocular Pharmacology and Therapeutics

A patient with a history of sulfonamide allergy is being considered for dorzolamide. What is the most appropriate clinical concern?

  1. It causes predictable mydriasis requiring reversal
  2. It is contraindicated in all patients with hypertension
  3. Cross-reactivity risk because it is a sulfonamide derivative Correct answer.
  4. It reliably precipitates angle-closure glaucoma

Explanation

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are sulfonamide derivatives, so patients with sulfonamide hypersensitivity may be at risk of cross-reactivity. Topical dorzolamide carries a lower systemic load but the caution still applies. Clinicians should weigh this against alternative agents.

Question 47Ocular Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Which drug is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used topically to lower intraocular pressure?

  1. Tropicamide
  2. Naphazoline
  3. Apraclonidine Correct answer.
  4. Phenylephrine

Explanation

Apraclonidine and brimonidine are alpha-2 agonists that reduce aqueous production and increase uveoscleral outflow. Naphazoline and phenylephrine are alpha-1 agonists used for vasoconstriction and mydriasis. Alpha-2 selectivity is key to the ocular hypotensive effect.

Question 48Ocular Pharmacology and Therapeutics

A child requires a cycloplegic refraction. Which agent provides the most complete and prolonged cycloplegia?

  1. Tropicamide
  2. Phenylephrine
  3. Atropine Correct answer.
  4. Cyclopentolate

Explanation

Atropine produces the most profound and longest-lasting cycloplegia, lasting up to 1 to 2 weeks. It is used when full paralysis of accommodation is essential, such as in some pediatric refractions. Tropicamide and cyclopentolate are shorter-acting alternatives.

Question 49Ocular Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Which agent is preferred to reverse a pharmacologically dilated pupil in the setting of acute angle-closure risk?

  1. Homatropine
  2. Atropine
  3. Pilocarpine Correct answer.
  4. Cyclopentolate

Explanation

Pilocarpine, a cholinergic agonist, constricts the pupil and can help reverse mydriasis once the iris sphincter is responsive. It is used to lower intraocular pressure by improving outflow. Antimuscarinics such as atropine would worsen the dilation.

Question 50Ocular Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Which topical anesthetic is commonly used for tonometry and minor ocular procedures and carries a risk of corneal epithelial toxicity with repeated use?

  1. Timolol
  2. Latanoprost
  3. Brimonidine
  4. Proparacaine Correct answer.

Explanation

Proparacaine is a short-acting topical ester anesthetic used for diagnostic and minor procedures. Frequent use can cause corneal epithelial toxicity and delay healing. It is not a therapeutic glaucoma medication.