Arab Board Ob/Gyn Final Written key terms

A package of interventions given just after birth of the baby to reduce postpartum haemorrhage: a prophylactic uterotonic drug, controlled cord traction, and uterine massage, with assessment of uterine tone and blood loss.

Continuous electronic recording of fetal heart rate and uterine contractions, displayed as two traces. It is interpreted for baseline rate, variability, accelerations and decelerations to classify the trace as normal, suspicious or pathological.

Failure of the shoulders to deliver spontaneously after the head, requiring manoeuvres such as McRoberts' position and suprapubic pressure. It is an obstetric emergency associated with brachial plexus injury and postpartum haemorrhage.

New hypertension after 20 weeks' gestation with proteinuria or other maternal organ dysfunction such as renal, hepatic, neurological or haematological involvement, or uteroplacental dysfunction. Delivery remains the definitive treatment.

A fetus that has not reached its growth potential, usually identified as estimated fetal weight below the 10th centile with abnormal Doppler or growth trajectory. It increases risks of stillbirth, hypoxia and neonatal morbidity.

Glucose intolerance first recognised during pregnancy. It is diagnosed by oral glucose tolerance testing and managed with diet, exercise and, if needed, insulin or metformin to reduce macrosomia and hypertensive complications.

A severe variant of pre-eclampsia characterised by haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes and low platelets. It can occur without marked hypertension and warrants urgent delivery and supportive care, including blood products when bleeding risk is high.

A complication of monochorionic twin pregnancy caused by unbalanced placental vascular anastomoses, producing polyhydramnios in the recipient and oligohydramnios in the donor. Fetoscopic laser ablation is the primary treatment in severe cases.

Maternal antibody response against fetal red blood cells, usually RhD, after sensitising events. It causes fetal anaemia and hydrops; prevention uses anti-D immunoglobulin, and treatment may require intrauterine transfusion.

Surgical and pathological classification of ovarian malignancy by extent of disease, using FIGO stages I to IV. Staging includes peritoneal washings, omentectomy, pelvic and para-aortic lymph node assessment and complete cytoreduction where feasible.

Pre-invasive squamous or glandular change of the cervix graded by severity. High-grade lesions are treated by excision or ablation, usually after colposcopy and biopsy, to prevent progression to cervical cancer.

Thickening of the endometrial lining from excess oestrogen relative to progesterone, with or without atypia. Atypia carries a substantial risk of progression to endometrial carcinoma and usually requires hysterectomy or close surveillance.

A glycoprotein antigen measured in serum, elevated in many epithelial ovarian cancers and in benign conditions such as endometriosis and pregnancy. It is useful for monitoring response and detecting recurrence, not for screening.

A common endocrine disorder diagnosed by oligo-ovulation, clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism and polycystic ovarian morphology, after excluding other causes. It causes infertility, menstrual irregularity and metabolic risk.

Use of gonadotrophins or anti-oestrogens to induce development of multiple ovarian follicles for assisted reproduction or ovulation induction. It requires monitoring for ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome and multiple pregnancy.

An iatrogenic complication of ovulation induction causing ovarian enlargement, capillary leak, ascites and haemoconcentration. Severe cases need hospital admission, fluid management, thromboprophylaxis and sometimes paracentesis.

Loss of ovarian function before age 40, causing amenorrhoea, elevated gonadotrophins and oestrogen deficiency. Hormone replacement is given until at least the normal age of menopause to protect bone and cardiovascular health.

Descent of the anterior vaginal wall, posterior vaginal wall, uterus or vaginal apex through the introitus due to failure of pelvic support. It is staged by the POP-Q system and treated with pessaries or reconstructive surgery.

Involuntary urine leakage on effort, sneezing or coughing. It results from urethral sphincter weakness or hypermobility and is managed with pelvic floor exercises, devices, bulking agents or midurethral sling surgery.

Laboratory assessment of bladder and urethral function using pressure catheters during filling and voiding. It distinguishes detrusor overactivity, urodynamic stress incontinence and voiding dysfunction when clinical assessment is inconclusive.

Endoscopic inspection of the uterine cavity through the cervix using a narrow camera, allowing diagnosis and treatment of polyps, fibroids, adhesions and abnormal bleeding. Distension media and fluid balance must be monitored.

A spring-loaded needle used to create pneumoperitoneum before trocar placement in laparoscopy. Correct technique and awareness of retroperitoneal vessels reduce risk of major vascular or bowel injury.

Presence of endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus, causing dysmenorrhoea, pelvic pain and infertility. Diagnosis is clinical or laparoscopic, and treatment includes analgesia, hormonal suppression and surgical excision.

A daily pill containing an oestrogen and a progestogen that prevents ovulation and thickens cervical mucus. It is highly effective when taken correctly; contraindications include migraine with aura and venous thromboembolism.

Methods used after unprotected intercourse to prevent pregnancy, including copper intrauterine devices and oral levonorgestrel or ulipristal acetate. The copper device is the most effective and can be inserted up to five days later.

Contraceptive methods requiring action less than once per cycle or less often, namely intrauterine devices and subdermal implants. They are highly effective, independent of user adherence and suitable for most women.

A sonographic measurement of fluid behind the fetal neck at 11 to 14 weeks, increased in chromosomal anomalies and cardiac defects. It contributes to combined first-trimester screening for aneuploidy.

Analysis of placental DNA in maternal blood to screen for trisomies 21, 18 and 13 with high sensitivity and specificity. It is a screening test, and diagnostic confirmation requires invasive sampling.

Prenatal diagnostic procedure that samples placental villi, usually transabdominally or transcervically, between 11 and 14 weeks. It provides rapid karyotype or molecular results and carries a small miscarriage risk.

Transabdominal aspiration of amniotic fluid, usually after 15 weeks, for fetal karyotype, molecular testing or infection studies. It carries a small procedure-related miscarriage risk and is used for diagnostic confirmation.

The measurement of the embryo or fetus from head to rump in early pregnancy, used to estimate gestational age. Between 7 and 13 weeks it is the most accurate single parameter for dating.

Life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by dysregulated host response to infection, with hypotension requiring vasopressors and raised lactate despite fluids. In obstetrics, uterine source control and prompt antibiotics are essential.

Blood loss of 500 mL or more after vaginal birth or 1000 mL after caesarean, or any loss causing haemodynamic compromise. Management follows a structured sequence of uterine massage, uterotonics, tranexamic acid and escalation.

A preplanned system for delivering balanced blood components rapidly in severe haemorrhage, with defined ratios of red cells, plasma and platelets plus cryoprecipitate. It aims to prevent dilutional coagulopathy and hypothermia.

A process of explaining a proposed intervention, its alternatives, benefits and material risks so that a competent patient can make a voluntary decision. It must be documented and is a legal and ethical requirement.

The reciprocal of the absolute risk reduction, showing how many patients must receive an intervention to prevent one additional adverse outcome. It communicates clinical benefit intuitively but depends on baseline risk.

An experiment allocating participants randomly to interventions, which minimises selection bias and supports causal inference. Blinding, allocation concealment and intention-to-treat analysis strengthen validity.

A quality improvement cycle comparing current practice with an agreed standard, then implementing change and re-auditing. It differs from research because it does not test new hypotheses.