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ARRT CT study materials
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ARRT CT practice questions

One question at a time. Build your ARRT CT understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

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Question 1Patient Care and Education

Before beginning a CT examination, the technologist should confirm the patient's identity by using which method?

  1. The written requisition alone
  2. The patient's date of birth only
  3. The patient's room number
  4. Two independent identifiers Correct answer.

Explanation

Patient safety standards require verification with at least two independent identifiers, such as full name plus date of birth or medical record number. The identifiers must be checked against the patient's wristband and the request. Location or a single identifier alone is not acceptable.

Question 2Patient Care and Education

Informed consent for a CT procedure involving intravenous contrast is obtained by:

  1. A qualified provider Correct answer.
  2. The scheduling clerk
  3. The patient's spouse
  4. The transport aide

Explanation

Consent for a procedure with contrast is a medical act that must be obtained by a provider qualified to explain the risks, benefits, and alternatives. Clerical, transport, and family members cannot obtain consent. The technologist may witness or verify that consent was documented.

Question 3Patient Care and Education

A patient of childbearing age is scheduled for CT of the abdomen and pelvis. The technologist's first step is to:

  1. Reduce the mAs by half
  2. Proceed without asking about pregnancy
  3. Apply a lead apron over the pelvis
  4. Ask whether she may be pregnant Correct answer.

Explanation

Screening for pregnancy by direct questioning is required before examinations that irradiate the abdomen or pelvis. If the answer is uncertain, the radiologist is consulted before proceeding. Shielding does not replace pregnancy screening.

Question 4Patient Care and Education

The single most effective routine practice for preventing transmission of infection from one patient to the next is:

  1. Wearing a lead apron
  2. Wiping the gantry with alcohol
  3. Changing gloves once per shift
  4. Performing hand hygiene Correct answer.

Explanation

Hand hygiene before and after every patient contact is the cornerstone of infection control. Gloves do not replace hand washing, and equipment cleaning is complementary rather than primary. Hand hygiene applies to all patients regardless of known infection status.

Question 5Patient Care and Education

Which history finding is most important to establish before administering intravenous iodinated contrast?

  1. History of hypertension
  2. Prior reaction to contrast Correct answer.
  3. Recent dental surgery
  4. Family history of diabetes

Explanation

A previous reaction to iodinated contrast is the strongest predictor of a repeat reaction and determines whether premedication or an alternative study is appropriate. Hypertension, family history, and recent dental work do not alter acute contrast risk. The history is documented before the injection begins.

Question 6Patient Care and Education

When teaching a patient to hold their breath for a chest CT, the technologist should:

  1. Ask the patient to breathe rapidly first
  2. Tell the patient to exhale fully and hold
  3. Scan while the patient breathes quietly
  4. Explain and demonstrate the hold Correct answer.

Explanation

Breath-hold instructions should be explained and demonstrated, then practiced before the scan so the patient knows what to expect. Chest CT is typically acquired at end-inspiration, not after full exhalation. Motion during acquisition degrades diagnostic quality.

Question 7Patient Care and Education

A patient who is deaf and uses sign language needs instructions for a CT examination. The best way to ensure understanding is to:

  1. Speak more loudly
  2. Use a qualified interpreter Correct answer.
  3. Proceed without instructions
  4. Ask a nearby patient to help

Explanation

Effective communication for a deaf patient requires a qualified sign language interpreter, in person or by video, to convey safety instructions accurately. Speaking louder does not help a patient who cannot hear. Other patients must never be used as interpreters because of privacy and accuracy concerns.

Question 8Patient Care and Education

Which action best promotes comfort and cooperation during a CT examination?

  1. Leaving the patient alone
  2. Keeping the room brightly lit
  3. Explaining sensations beforehand Correct answer.
  4. Rushing the instructions

Explanation

Describing what the patient will feel, such as warmth or a metallic taste from contrast, reduces anxiety and unexpected movement. Dimming lights, staying in contact, and allowing time for questions further improve cooperation. Rushed instructions increase misunderstanding and repeat scanning.

Question 9Patient Care and Education

During an intravenous contrast injection, a patient reports burning at the cannula site and swelling appears around the vein. The technologist should:

  1. Continue at a slower rate
  2. Flush the line with saline
  3. Finish the scan then assess
  4. Stop the injection at once Correct answer.

Explanation

Pain with swelling during injection indicates extravasation, and the injection must be stopped immediately to limit the volume of contrast in the tissues. The technologist then assesses the site, elevates the limb, applies a cold compress, and documents and reports the event. Continuing the injection worsens tissue damage.

Question 10Patient Care and Education

Which laboratory result is most commonly reviewed before elective intravenous iodinated contrast administration?

  1. Serum potassium
  2. Serum creatinine Correct answer.
  3. Hemoglobin level
  4. Platelet count

Explanation

Serum creatinine is used to estimate glomerular filtration rate, which determines whether a patient is at increased risk for contrast-associated kidney injury. Potassium, hemoglobin, and platelets do not directly guide contrast decisions. Renal function is reviewed especially in patients with diabetes, hypertension, or known kidney disease.

Question 11Patient Care and Education

A patient who takes metformin is scheduled for an elective contrast-enhanced CT. Current guidance for a patient with reduced renal function generally supports:

  1. Withholding metformin after contrast Correct answer.
  2. Doubling the metformin dose
  3. No change in metformin dosing
  4. Stopping metformin one week before

Explanation

In at-risk patients, metformin is typically withheld at the time of contrast administration and resumed after renal function is rechecked, usually at 48 hours. This reduces the risk of lactic acidosis if kidney function declines. Metformin is not stopped a week in advance, and the dose is never increased.

Question 12Patient Care and Education

Which finding is the most concerning sign of a severe anaphylactoid reaction to iodinated contrast?

  1. Stridor with hypotension Correct answer.
  2. Mild nausea
  3. A metallic taste
  4. A transient warm flush

Explanation

Airway compromise with hypotension indicates a severe reaction requiring immediate epinephrine and emergency support. A metallic taste, flushing, and mild nausea are common, self-limited sensations after contrast injection. Treatment urgency escalates with respiratory and hemodynamic involvement.

Question 13Patient Care and Education

A patient becomes pale and diaphoretic with a falling heart rate immediately after intravenous cannulation. This presentation most suggests:

  1. Contrast extravasation
  2. Thyroid storm
  3. A vasovagal reaction Correct answer.
  4. An anaphylactoid reaction

Explanation

Pallor, diaphoresis, and bradycardia with hypotension after needle placement are characteristic of a vasovagal response. Anaphylaxis typically produces tachycardia, urticaria, and bronchospasm. Management includes lying the patient flat with the legs elevated and monitoring vital signs.

Question 14Patient Care and Education

For a contrast-enhanced CT performed with a power injector, the intravenous access should be:

  1. A 22-gauge foot cannula
  2. A 24-gauge hand cannula
  3. A 20-gauge antecubital cannula Correct answer.
  4. A butterfly in the wrist

Explanation

Power injection requires a short, large-bore cannula in a robust proximal vein, most often a 20-gauge or larger device in the antecubital fossa. Small-gauge or distal access increases the risk of extravasation and cannot tolerate high flow rates. Institutional policy specifies the minimum gauge and maximum pressure.

Question 15Patient Care and Education

Which approach best reduces anxiety in a young child undergoing a CT examination?

  1. Promise the child it cannot hurt
  2. Show the scanner and speak simply Correct answer.
  3. Give all instructions quickly
  4. Ask the parents to wait outside

Explanation

A brief tour of the equipment with short, concrete explanations gives the child a sense of control and reduces fear. A parent usually stays nearby for reassurance when permitted. Promises about pain and hurried instructions undermine trust and cooperation.

Question 16Patient Care and Education

A patient under contact precautions for a resistant organism requires a CT scan. The technologist should:

  1. Refuse to scan the patient
  2. Wear gown and gloves, then clean the scanner Correct answer.
  3. Remove the gown in the hallway
  4. Scan with no precautions

Explanation

Contact precautions require a gown and gloves for room entry, removal of contaminated PPE before leaving, and disinfection of the scanner and surfaces the patient contacted. The study is performed because the examination is medically indicated. Refusal or omission of precautions is unacceptable.

Question 17Patient Care and Education

To reduce the risk of contrast-associated kidney injury in a high-risk patient, the technologist should ensure:

  1. A low-potassium diet
  2. Adequate hydration Correct answer.
  3. Twelve hours of fasting
  4. Rapid bolus injection

Explanation

Intravascular volume depletion is a modifiable risk factor, and hydration before and after contrast is the main supportive measure. Limiting contrast volume and reviewing nephrotoxic medications also help. Potassium restriction and prolonged fasting do not protect the kidneys.

Question 18Patient Care and Education

Which modification is most appropriate when positioning an older adult with fragile skin and limited mobility?

  1. Have the patient climb on alone
  2. Tape the arms tightly to the table
  3. Pad bony areas and move slowly Correct answer.
  4. Move quickly with thin padding

Explanation

Fragile skin and stiff joints make older patients prone to pressure injury and skin tears, so generous padding and slow, assisted transfers are used. The patient should never be hurried or left to transfer without help. Tape and tight straps can damage thin skin and should be avoided.

Question 19Patient Care and Education

A patient develops a few hives on the chest shortly after intravenous contrast administration but has normal breathing and blood pressure. The appropriate initial management is:

  1. Immediate discharge home
  2. Intramuscular epinephrine
  3. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
  4. Observation with an antihistamine Correct answer.

Explanation

Isolated mild urticaria is a mild reaction managed by observation and, if needed, an antihistamine, with monitoring for progression. Epinephrine and resuscitation are reserved for moderate to severe reactions with airway, respiratory, or hemodynamic involvement. The patient is not released until symptoms resolve and the radiologist approves.

Question 20Patient Care and Education

A patient scheduled for CT weighs approximately 200 kg. Which consideration is most important for safe scanning?

  1. Use smaller collimation
  2. Confirm the table weight limit Correct answer.
  3. Reduce contrast to 20 mL
  4. Increase the pitch

Explanation

Each CT table and its drive mechanism has a maximum patient weight, commonly in the range of 200 to 230 kg depending on the model, and exceeding it can damage the equipment or injure the patient. Scanning parameters and contrast dose are adjusted after weight capacity is verified. Underdosing contrast would reduce diagnostic quality.

Question 21Patient Care and Education

For an elective contrast-enhanced CT in a patient with a prior moderate reaction to iodinated contrast, standard premedication consists of:

  1. Antibiotic plus steroid
  2. Steroid plus antihistamine Correct answer.
  3. Antihistamine after the scan
  4. Saline plus mannitol

Explanation

A corticosteroid given over several hours before the study, often combined with an antihistamine such as diphenhydramine, is the standard prophylaxis regimen. Premedication reduces but does not eliminate the risk of breakthrough reactions. Antibiotics, mannitol, and post-scan antihistamines have no prophylactic role.

Question 22Patient Care and Education

Which item is essential on the emergency cart for managing a severe contrast reaction?

  1. Oral rehydration solution
  2. Epinephrine for injection Correct answer.
  3. A handheld spirometer
  4. Topical hydrocortisone

Explanation

Intramuscular or intravenous epinephrine is the first-line drug for anaphylaxis and must be immediately available in the CT suite. Oxygen, suction, airway equipment, and a defibrillator are also stocked. Oral and topical preparations are of no value in an acute severe reaction.

Question 23Patient Care and Education

A breastfeeding mother asks whether she must stop nursing after receiving intravenous iodinated contrast. The correct advice is to:

  1. Pump and discard for 48 hours
  2. Stop nursing for two weeks
  3. Switch permanently to formula
  4. Continue breastfeeding normally Correct answer.

Explanation

The amount of iodinated contrast that reaches breast milk is very small and is poorly absorbed by the infant's gastrointestinal tract, so experts do not recommend interrupting breastfeeding. Temporary pumping and discarding is unnecessary. The mother may nurse without alteration of her routine.

Question 24Patient Care and Education

A pregnant patient asks about fetal risk from a medically necessary CT scan. The most appropriate response is to:

  1. Consult the radiologist about risk and benefit Correct answer.
  2. State that CT must never be done in pregnancy
  3. State that there is no fetal risk at any dose
  4. Offer pregnancy termination immediately

Explanation

Fetal risk depends on dose, gestational age, and the portion of the body irradiated, and the decision is made case by case by the radiologist with the referring clinician. At diagnostic doses, the absolute risk is very small, but the study should still be justified and optimized. Technologists do not counsel definitively on termination or absolute safety.

Question 25Patient Care and Education

Two hours after a contrast extravasation, a patient reports worsening pain, numbness, and a tense, swollen forearm. The technologist should:

  1. Arrange urgent medical evaluation Correct answer.
  2. Apply heat and reassure
  3. Schedule a repeat scan next week
  4. Massage the site firmly

Explanation

Progressive pain, numbness, and tense swelling suggest increasing compartment pressure, which requires prompt surgical or medical assessment. The limb should be elevated and monitored; heat, massage, and delay can worsen tissue injury. The event and follow-up are documented and reported.

Question 26Patient Care and Education

Before beginning a CT examination, the technologist confirms the patient's identity using which of the following?

  1. The name written on the patient's belongings bag
  2. The appointment slot on the scanner's printed daily schedule
  3. Full name and date of birth matched to the wristband Correct answer.
  4. The room number and time printed on the transport slip

Explanation

Accreditation standards require at least two patient identifiers, typically name plus date of birth or medical record number, verified verbally and against the identification band. Scheduling documents and personal belongings are not reliable identifiers.

Question 27Patient Care and Education

Who is responsible for obtaining informed consent for an elective contrast-enhanced CT?

  1. The referring physician who ordered the study
  2. The nurse who starts the intravenous line
  3. The radiologist supervising the examination Correct answer.
  4. The CT technologist assigned to the examination

Explanation

Informed consent is a physician responsibility; the radiologist responsible for the study discusses risks, benefits, and alternatives with the patient. Technologists and nurses may witness the signature but do not obtain consent.

Question 28Patient Care and Education

Before a CT examination of the abdomen and pelvis, which patient should be asked whether pregnancy is possible?

  1. Only patients younger than 18 years
  2. Every patient who is of childbearing age Correct answer.
  3. Only patients scheduled to receive intravenous contrast
  4. Only patients who mention a missed period

Explanation

Pregnancy status is screened for all patients of childbearing potential because the fetus is sensitive to ionizing radiation regardless of whether contrast is used. Relying on the patient to volunteer the information misses many at-risk individuals.

Question 29Patient Care and Education

A patient who speaks and reads little English arrives for a CT examination. Which approach best ensures the patient understands the instructions?

  1. Use a qualified medical interpreter Correct answer.
  2. Speak slowly and loudly while using hand gestures
  3. Ask an adult family member to translate the instructions
  4. Give the patient a printed English instruction sheet to read

Explanation

Accurate communication about radiation, contrast, and breath-holding requires a qualified medical interpreter, in person or by telephone. Untrained interpreters and written English materials risk misunderstanding and confidentiality problems.

Question 30Patient Care and Education

A patient is instructed to drink oral contrast before an abdominal CT. Which instruction is correct?

  1. Skip the contrast if nausea develops and proceed to the scan
  2. Drink the entire volume as quickly as possible on arrival
  3. Finish the full volume within the time specified before the scan Correct answer.
  4. Drink half the volume and discard the remainder

Explanation

Oral contrast must be ingested over a prescribed interval so it reaches and opacifies the bowel by the time of scanning. Drinking it all at once on arrival or taking only part of the volume results in inadequate opacification.

Question 31Patient Care and Education

A patient who uses a walker arrives for a CT scan. Which action best reduces the risk of a fall during transfer to the table?

  1. Let the patient climb onto the table alone to preserve independence
  2. Place the walker in the hallway so it does not block the scanner
  3. Raise the table to full height before the patient sits down
  4. Use a gait belt and keep the table at its lowest height during transfer Correct answer.

Explanation

Fall prevention relies on assisted transfer with a gait belt, a locked table at its lowest position, and the mobility aid kept within reach. Independent transfer and a raised table height both increase fall risk.

Question 32Patient Care and Education

A parent asks to remain in the scan room to keep a young child calm during a CT examination. The technologist should:

  1. Allow the parent to stay without providing any radiation protection
  2. Allow the parent to stay, provide a lead apron, and explain the small exposure Correct answer.
  3. Refuse the request, because only the patient may be in the scan room
  4. Ask the parent to leave and request sedation for the child instead

Explanation

A parent who assists cooperation may remain in the scan room; the technologist should explain the small scattered exposure and offer a lead apron. Sedation is not the first option when a cooperative adult can help the child stay still.

Question 33Patient Care and Education

Which accommodation is most helpful for a claustrophobic adult who wishes to attempt the scan without sedation?

  1. Place the patient prone on the table for the examination
  2. Ask the patient to keep both arms raised above the head
  3. Scan the patient feet first so the head remains near the bore opening Correct answer.
  4. Reduce the prescribed scan coverage to shorten the examination

Explanation

Feet-first positioning keeps the patient's head near the entrance of the gantry rather than deep inside the bore, which reduces the sense of confinement. The prescribed coverage is set by the radiologist and must not be reduced for anxiety.

Question 34Patient Care and Education

A patient receives moderate sedation for a CT examination. Which monitoring is required during the procedure?

  1. Visual observation from the control room window
  2. Blood pressure measurement every 30 minutes only
  3. Pulse oximetry recorded only at the start and end of the scan
  4. Continuous pulse oximetry plus periodic blood pressure and heart rate Correct answer.

Explanation

Sedated patients require continuous oxygenation monitoring with regularly documented blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory status. Intermittent or remote observation can miss hypoxemia and hypoventilation.

Question 35Patient Care and Education

Which dietary instruction is given to a patient scheduled for a CT examination with moderate sedation?

  1. Only clear liquids are restricted, with no limit on solids
  2. No dietary restriction is needed when sedation is used
  3. A light breakfast is acceptable on the morning of the scan
  4. Solid food is withheld for the fasting interval set by facility policy Correct answer.

Explanation

Fasting before sedation reduces the risk of aspiration if the patient's airway reflexes are impaired. Policies typically restrict solids for a longer interval and clear liquids for a shorter one, and both categories are limited.

Question 36Patient Care and Education

A patient reports a severe allergy to latex. Which preparation is appropriate before the CT examination?

  1. Place the patient in a private waiting area and scan without other changes
  2. Stock the room with latex-free gloves, tubing, and blood pressure cuffs Correct answer.
  3. Proceed as usual and treat any reaction if it occurs
  4. Ask the patient to bring their own gloves for staff to wear

Explanation

Latex avoidance requires removing latex-containing items from the patient's environment, including gloves, tourniquets, tubing, and blood pressure cuffs. Staff must use facility-supplied latex-free equipment rather than waiting for a reaction.

Question 37Patient Care and Education

A patient with right-arm lymphedema after axillary lymph node surgery needs power-injected intravenous contrast. Access should be obtained:

  1. In either arm, because lymphedema does not affect injection
  2. In the unaffected left arm, in a vein suitable for power injection Correct answer.
  3. In a right forearm vein, with the tourniquet applied tightly
  4. In the right hand, using a small gauge catheter

Explanation

An arm with lymphedema or compromised lymphatic drainage has reduced venous return and a higher risk of extravasation and infection, so the unaffected limb is used. The site must also meet the gauge and pressure requirements of a power injector.

Question 38Patient Care and Education

A patient with an implanted cardiac pacemaker arrives for a CT examination of the chest. Which statement is correct?

  1. CT is generally safe; identify and document the device Correct answer.
  2. The scan may proceed without noting the device in the record
  3. CT is contraindicated for any patient with an implanted pacemaker
  4. The device must be reprogrammed before the scan is started

Explanation

CT does not use a strong magnetic field, so an implanted pacemaker is not a contraindication; the device should still be identified and documented for the patient record. Device reprogramming is an MRI consideration, not a routine CT step.

Question 39Patient Care and Education

During an intravenous contrast injection, a patient reports a warm flush and a metallic taste. The technologist should:

  1. Reassure the patient that these sensations are expected Correct answer.
  2. Stop the injection immediately and remove the cannula
  3. Call for emergency assistance and begin oxygen therapy
  4. Reduce the flow rate and restart the injection slowly

Explanation

A transient warm flush, metallic taste, and a sensation of urination are common and benign effects of iodinated contrast. The study can continue while the technologist provides brief reassurance.

Question 40Patient Care and Education

A patient who is blind is being positioned for a CT scan. Which approach best supports communication?

  1. Describe each step aloud and guide the patient's hand to the table Correct answer.
  2. Guide the hand to the table edge and leave the room
  3. Ask the escort to position the patient without any explanation
  4. Speak in a raised voice while moving the patient into position

Explanation

A patient who cannot see needs verbal description of each step and physical guidance to orient to the table and gantry. Speaking loudly does not improve understanding for someone with vision loss.

Question 41Patient Care and Education

Which instruction is appropriate when discharging a patient after a contrast-enhanced CT?

  1. Restrict fluid intake for 24 hours after the examination
  2. Return only if a rash appears within the first 24 hours
  3. Expect hives and treat them with an antihistamine at home
  4. Seek care promptly for hives, swelling, or difficulty breathing Correct answer.

Explanation

Delayed contrast reactions can occur hours after the injection, so patients are told to seek care for hives, swelling, wheezing, or breathing difficulty. Oral fluids are generally encouraged rather than restricted.

Question 42Patient Care and Education

A patient with a tracheostomy is scheduled for a CT examination of the chest. Which preparation is most important?

  1. Ask the patient to hold their breath for the entire examination
  2. Have suction and airway equipment available in the scan room Correct answer.
  3. Remove the tracheostomy tube before the patient enters the room
  4. Position the patient prone to protect the airway during scanning

Explanation

Patients with a tracheostomy are at risk for mucus plugging and airway obstruction, so suction and airway supplies must be immediately available. The tube is left in place and the patient is positioned supine for scanning.

Question 43Patient Care and Education

Before using an implanted venous access port for power-injected contrast, the technologist must confirm that:

  1. the port and needle are rated for the injection pressure Correct answer.
  2. the patient has no history of contrast allergy
  3. the port was placed more than one year ago
  4. the port is located on the side of the dominant hand

Explanation

Power injection through a port requires a device and needle approved for the flow rate and pressure used; non-power ports can rupture. The date of placement and the side of the body do not establish pressure tolerance.

Question 44Patient Care and Education

A patient scheduled for a CT examination of the head is wearing hairpins, a necklace, and a hearing aid. The technologist should:

  1. Tape the items firmly to the patient's head to prevent motion
  2. Leave all items in place, because they do not affect image quality
  3. Remove the metal and hearing aid and ask about implants Correct answer.
  4. Remove only the necklace, because it is closest to the skull

Explanation

Metal on or near the head produces streak artifact that can obscure brain tissue, so hairpins, jewelry, and hearing aids are removed before scanning. Asking about other implants is part of the same safety and artifact check.

Question 45Patient Care and Education

A patient reports a shellfish allergy and is scheduled for a contrast-enhanced CT. How should this history be interpreted?

  1. Shellfish allergy guarantees a severe reaction to iodinated contrast
  2. Shellfish allergy is an absolute contraindication to iodinated contrast
  3. Shellfish allergy does not predict a reaction to iodinated contrast Correct answer.
  4. Shellfish allergy requires premedication before every contrast study

Explanation

Shellfish allergy is a reaction to shellfish proteins, not to iodine, and it has not been shown to raise the risk of reaction to iodinated contrast. The history is still documented, but premedication is based on a prior reaction to contrast rather than on food allergy.

Question 46Patient Care and Education

A patient who receives maintenance hemodialysis needs an urgent contrast-enhanced CT. Which coordination is most appropriate?

  1. Give half the usual contrast dose and keep the usual dialysis time
  2. Cancel the examination because contrast is contraindicated in dialysis patients
  3. Delay dialysis for one week to allow the contrast to clear
  4. Arrange dialysis within the patient's planned schedule after the scan Correct answer.

Explanation

In patients with little or no renal function, contrast clearance depends on dialysis, so the study is coordinated with the dialysis team to fit the existing schedule. Emergent dialysis is generally not required for a single contrast dose.

Question 47Patient Care and Education

A patient with severe claustrophobia cannot remain still for the CT despite coaching and feet-first positioning. The most appropriate next step is to:

  1. repeat the coaching until the patient completes the scan
  2. physically restrain the patient for the duration of the scan
  3. perform the scan despite motion and accept the degraded images
  4. consult the radiologist about sedation or anesthesia assistance Correct answer.

Explanation

When non-pharmacologic measures fail, the radiologist should be consulted so sedation or anesthesia support can be arranged. Restraint and continued repetition are not acceptable substitutes for adequate anxiolysis.

Question 48Patient Care and Education

An adult with cognitive impairment arrives alone for an elective CT and cannot provide consent. No health care agent can be reached. The technologist should:

  1. Proceed, because an elective CT does not require consent
  2. Scan the patient because the referring physician ordered the study
  3. Ask a coworker to sign the consent form as a witness
  4. Postpone the elective study until a lawful surrogate can consent Correct answer.

Explanation

Elective contrast and radiation exposure require valid consent, which must come from the patient or a legally authorized surrogate. A coworker cannot consent, and a physician order is not a substitute for consent.

Question 49Patient Care and Education

Which precaution is most important when a neonate undergoes a CT examination?

  1. Restrict oral intake for 6 hours before the scan
  2. Keep the infant warm with blankets and minimize time in the cool room Correct answer.
  3. Increase the room temperature to 30 degrees Celsius (86 F)
  4. Position the infant in a prone position for the entire study

Explanation

Neonates lose body heat rapidly and are at risk of hypothermia in a cool scan room, so warming with blankets and an efficient examination are priorities. Fasting and prone positioning are not required for a non-sedated neonatal CT.

Question 50Patient Care and Education

A patient with well-controlled asthma is scheduled for a contrast-enhanced CT. Which action is appropriate?

  1. Premedicate with corticosteroids regardless of prior reactions
  2. Cancel the study, because asthma is a contraindication to contrast
  3. Document the asthma history and proceed if the patient is stable Correct answer.
  4. Withhold the patient's bronchodilator until after the scan

Explanation

Well-controlled asthma is not a contraindication to iodinated contrast; the history is documented and the patient is assessed for stability. Premedication is reserved for patients with a documented prior reaction to contrast, not for asthma alone.