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ARRT RRA study materials
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ARRT RRA practice questions

One question at a time. Build your ARRT RRA understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

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Question 1Patient Assessment and Management

A patient scheduled for a contrast-enhanced CT reports a prior reaction to iodinated contrast that included hives and wheezing. Which action is most appropriate before the study proceeds?

  1. Reduce the contrast volume by half and monitor the patient during injection
  2. Proceed with the scan because prior hives do not predict a repeat reaction
  3. Cancel all future contrast studies permanently and document the patient as allergic
  4. Notify the supervising radiologist so premedication or an alternative study can be considered Correct answer.

Explanation

A prior reaction with urticaria plus respiratory symptoms indicates a hypersensitivity response that warrants radiologist review, since premedication or a non-iodinated alternative may be indicated. Technologists do not independently decide to modify or proceed against such a history.

Question 2Patient Assessment and Management

Which vital sign value in an adult is generally considered a medical emergency requiring immediate attention?

  1. Oxygen saturation of 94% on room air
  2. Heart rate of 88 beats per minute
  3. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
  4. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute Correct answer.

Explanation

A respiratory rate above roughly 20 breaths per minute in a resting adult signals tachypnea and possible respiratory compromise. The other values fall within commonly accepted adult reference ranges.

Question 3Patient Assessment and Management

A patient arrives for an outpatient examination and states she is 22 weeks pregnant. Which approach best reflects appropriate practice?

  1. Perform the examination without modification because fetal risk is negligible at 22 weeks
  2. Consult the radiologist and referring provider to confirm medical necessity and optimize the protocol Correct answer.
  3. Ask the patient to sign a waiver and proceed with the original protocol
  4. Refuse to perform any imaging until after delivery

Explanation

Pregnancy does not automatically preclude imaging, but the examination should be justified and the protocol adjusted to minimize fetal dose. This decision involves the radiologist and referring clinician, not the technologist alone.

Question 4Patient Assessment and Management

Which finding should prompt the technologist to withhold an oral contrast agent?

  1. A tattoo near the imaging area
  2. Suspected bowel obstruction Correct answer.
  3. Mild claustrophobia
  4. A history of well-controlled asthma

Explanation

Oral contrast is generally avoided when bowel obstruction or perforation is suspected because it can worsen the condition or delay definitive management. The other items do not contraindicate oral contrast.

Question 5Patient Assessment and Management

During a procedure a patient suddenly becomes pale, diaphoretic, and unresponsive. What is the technologist's first priority?

  1. Call for emergency assistance and begin the facility's emergency response protocol Correct answer.
  2. Complete the remaining images quickly before leaving the room
  3. Lower the table and wait to see if the patient recovers spontaneously
  4. Document the event and continue after the patient responds

Explanation

Loss of consciousness with signs of shock requires immediate activation of the emergency response system and initiation of basic life support measures. Imaging is abandoned until the patient is stabilized.

Question 6Patient Assessment and Management

Which patient instruction is most important before a study that uses intravenous contrast?

  1. Avoid drinking fluids for 12 hours before the study
  2. Report any warmth, metallic taste, or itching during the injection Correct answer.
  3. Hold your breath for the entire examination
  4. Remove all jewelry only after the injection

Explanation

Patients should be told to report symptoms such as flushing, metallic taste, itching, or difficulty breathing so the injection can be stopped and reactions managed early. These sensations may herald a contrast reaction.

Question 7Patient Assessment and Management

A patient with a documented latex allergy is scheduled for a procedure. Which action best reduces risk?

  1. Ask the patient to bring her own non-latex supplies
  2. Double-glove with standard latex gloves
  3. Proceed normally because latex allergy only matters in surgery
  4. Use latex-free gloves, tourniquets, and supplies for the encounter Correct answer.

Explanation

Latex precautions require substituting latex-free gloves and equipment throughout the patient's care area. This prevents contact and airborne exposure to latex proteins.

Question 8Patient Assessment and Management

Which statement correctly describes informed consent for an imaging procedure?

  1. Consent is unnecessary for any examination using contrast
  2. Consent obtained by the technologist replaces the need for provider discussion
  3. A signature alone is sufficient regardless of whether the patient understood
  4. The patient must receive an explanation of risks, benefits, and alternatives before agreeing Correct answer.

Explanation

Informed consent requires that the patient understand the nature of the procedure, its risks and benefits, and available alternatives before agreeing. A signature without understanding does not constitute valid consent.

Question 9Patient Assessment and Management

A patient's chart lists a creatinine of 2.4 mg/dL. Which concern is most relevant if iodinated contrast is planned?

  1. Need to delay the study until the value falls below 0.5 mg/dL
  2. Increased risk of contrast-induced nephropathy Correct answer.
  3. Increased risk of claustrophobia during the scan
  4. Need to increase the contrast dose to compensate

Explanation

Elevated creatinine suggests reduced renal function, which raises the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy. The radiologist may adjust the plan based on renal function and the necessity of the study.

Question 10Patient Assessment and Management

During an intravenous contrast injection the patient reports a metallic taste and a feeling of warmth. What is the most appropriate response?

  1. Reassure the patient and continue monitoring, as these are common expected sensations Correct answer.
  2. Increase the injection rate to finish more quickly
  3. Assume anaphylaxis is beginning and administer epinephrine
  4. Stop the injection permanently and call a code

Explanation

A metallic taste and transient warmth are common, expected sensations during iodinated contrast injection and usually resolve quickly. Continued observation is appropriate while watching for more serious signs.

Question 11Patient Assessment and Management

A patient with a pacemaker is scheduled for an MRI. What is the most appropriate initial step?

  1. Verify the device is MRI-conditional and follow the manufacturer's conditions Correct answer.
  2. Remove the pacemaker before entering the scanner room
  3. Perform the study at a lower field strength without further checks
  4. Proceed because all modern pacemakers are MRI safe

Explanation

Only MRI-conditional devices may be scanned, and only when the manufacturer's specified conditions are met. Device identity and conditions must be verified before the patient enters the magnet room.

Question 12Patient Assessment and Management

An inpatient is confused and agitated and cannot remain still for a CT examination. Which action is most appropriate?

  1. Assess for causes such as pain or anxiety and involve the care team before considering sedation Correct answer.
  2. Cancel the study and document that the patient is uncooperative
  3. Increase the scan speed and accept severe motion artifact
  4. Physically restrain the patient without an order and proceed

Explanation

Agitation should first be assessed for reversible causes, and any sedation or restraint requires appropriate orders and monitoring. The care team should be involved in this decision.

Question 13Patient Assessment and Management

Which patient is at highest risk for a hypersensitive reaction to iodinated contrast?

  1. A patient with a history of a broken arm
  2. A patient with hypertension
  3. A patient with a prior moderate reaction to iodinated contrast Correct answer.
  4. A patient taking a statin medication

Explanation

A previous moderate or severe reaction to iodinated contrast is the strongest predictor of a repeat reaction. Premedication or an alternative agent is often considered in such patients.

Question 14Patient Assessment and Management

A patient receiving intravenous contrast begins to wheeze and develops facial swelling. What is the priority action?

  1. Stop the injection and initiate emergency treatment per protocol Correct answer.
  2. Document the finding and reassess after the study ends
  3. Give the patient water to drink and continue the scan
  4. Continue the injection while observing for further symptoms

Explanation

Wheezing with facial swelling suggests anaphylaxis, requiring the injection to stop and immediate emergency management. Rapid recognition and treatment are critical in anaphylaxis.

Question 15Patient Assessment and Management

Which instruction should be given to a patient taking metformin who will receive iodinated contrast?

  1. Stop metformin permanently after the study
  2. No special consideration is needed under any circumstances
  3. Follow the facility's policy, which may include holding metformin and checking renal function Correct answer.
  4. Double the metformin dose to offset contrast effects

Explanation

Guidelines generally advise holding metformin after iodinated contrast in patients with reduced renal function and resuming after renal function is confirmed, following facility policy. This reduces the risk of lactic acidosis.

Question 16Patient Assessment and Management

A patient is anxious and reports a feeling of tightness in the chest before the examination begins. What should the technologist do first?

  1. Tell the patient it is only anxiety and begin the scan
  2. Administer oxygen without an order and proceed
  3. Stop and assess the patient, obtaining vital signs and notifying the appropriate clinician Correct answer.
  4. Ignore the complaint because it preceded any contrast

Explanation

Chest tightness may indicate a cardiac or respiratory problem and must be assessed before proceeding. Vital signs and clinician notification are appropriate first steps.

Question 17Patient Assessment and Management

Which practice best prevents patient misidentification before an imaging procedure?

  1. Relying on the room assignment number
  2. Using at least two patient identifiers and matching them to the order Correct answer.
  3. Calling the patient by name from the waiting room and proceeding
  4. Confirming identity only if the patient looks unfamiliar

Explanation

At least two identifiers, such as name and date of birth, should be verified against the order before the procedure. This reduces wrong-patient errors.

Question 18Patient Assessment and Management

A patient is scheduled for an MRI and reports working with metal grinding without eye protection. What is the appropriate action?

  1. Ask the patient to sign a waiver and scan immediately
  2. Proceed because eye injuries are rare
  3. Increase the field strength to shorten the examination
  4. Screen for metallic foreign bodies and arrange orbit radiographs or screening per policy before scanning Correct answer.

Explanation

A history of metal exposure without eye protection raises concern for intraocular metallic foreign bodies, which can move in the magnetic field. Screening imaging or evaluation per policy is required before MRI.

Question 19Patient Assessment and Management

Which action best supports a patient's dignity and comfort during an invasive or lengthy procedure?

  1. Allowing multiple observers without the patient's knowledge
  2. Leaving the door open for easy monitoring
  3. Providing appropriate draping and privacy while explaining each step Correct answer.
  4. Limiting communication to reduce procedure time

Explanation

Draping, privacy, and clear communication respect the patient's dignity and reduce anxiety. These practices are fundamental to patient-centered care.

Question 20Patient Assessment and Management

A patient who received iodinated contrast 30 minutes ago now reports hives and itching without respiratory symptoms. What is the most appropriate response?

  1. Discharge the patient immediately without further assessment
  2. Ignore the symptoms because they are not respiratory
  3. Give the patient a second full dose of contrast
  4. Notify the radiologist and prepare to treat the reaction while monitoring the patient Correct answer.

Explanation

Urticaria after contrast indicates a hypersensitivity reaction that should be reported and treated, with continued monitoring for progression. Even mild reactions can evolve.

Question 21Patient Assessment and Management

A patient is unable to give a history because of altered mental status and no family member is present. What is the best approach to obtain necessary information?

  1. Delay all care indefinitely until family arrives
  2. Review the medical record and contact the care team or authorized representative Correct answer.
  3. Proceed without any history and accept the risk
  4. Ask another patient in the waiting room for information

Explanation

When the patient cannot provide history, the medical record and the care team or authorized representative are appropriate sources. Care should not be delayed unnecessarily nor provided without essential information.

Question 22Patient Assessment and Management

A patient with severe asthma and a prior contrast reaction needs an urgent contrast-enhanced study. Which plan best reflects appropriate risk management?

  1. Consult the radiologist about premedication and the most appropriate contrast agent before proceeding Correct answer.
  2. Proceed with the standard protocol without modification
  3. Cancel the study because the risk is always unacceptable
  4. Substitute a non-contrast study without informing the ordering provider

Explanation

Patients with asthma and prior reactions have elevated risk, so the radiologist may recommend premedication or an alternative agent based on urgency and benefit. The decision balances diagnostic necessity against risk.

Question 23Patient Assessment and Management

A patient scheduled for a barium study reports a recent history of severe constipation and possible obstruction. Why is this clinically important?

  1. Barium causes immediate anaphylaxis in most patients
  2. Barium can harden and worsen obstruction or impaction Correct answer.
  3. Barium is absorbed systemically and causes nephrotoxicity
  4. Barium interferes with pacemaker function

Explanation

Barium sulfate is not absorbed and can inspissate in the bowel, potentially worsening obstruction or causing impaction. Water-soluble contrast is often preferred when obstruction is suspected.

Question 24Patient Assessment and Management

A patient with a documented anaphylactic reaction to shellfish arrives for an iodine-based contrast study. How should the technologist interpret this history?

  1. Proceed without mention because shellfish allergy is irrelevant to all contrast
  2. Report it to the radiologist, recognizing that shellfish allergy is not a proven predictor of contrast reaction Correct answer.
  3. Assume the patient is allergic to iodine and refuse the study
  4. Administer a test dose of contrast to check for reaction

Explanation

Shellfish allergy is not a reliable predictor of iodinated contrast reaction, but any allergy history should be reported so the radiologist can assess risk. The decision to proceed rests with the radiologist.

Question 25Patient Assessment and Management

During a study a patient becomes unresponsive and is not breathing normally. Which sequence best reflects current basic life support priorities?

  1. Give oral fluids and monitor for improvement
  2. Wait for the radiologist to arrive before starting compressions
  3. Activate emergency response, check for a pulse, and begin CPR and AED use as indicated Correct answer.
  4. Complete the imaging series before assisting

Explanation

For an unresponsive patient who is not breathing normally, the priority is activating the emergency response system, checking for a pulse, and starting CPR with AED use as indicated. Early compressions and defibrillation improve survival.

Question 26Patient Assessment and Management

A patient arrives for an outpatient CT scan and states that she is 8 weeks pregnant. What is the most appropriate initial action?

  1. Proceed with the scan as ordered without notifying anyone.
  2. Reschedule the patient for the next available appointment without further discussion.
  3. Notify the radiologist and referring physician before proceeding. Correct answer.
  4. Perform the scan but shield the abdomen with a lead apron.

Explanation

When a patient is or may be pregnant, the technologist must inform the radiologist and the referring physician so that the risks and benefits of the examination can be weighed and the protocol adjusted if needed. The decision to proceed, modify, or postpone the study is made by the supervising physician in consultation with the patient.

Question 27Patient Assessment and Management

Which patient would be scheduled for an MRI only after careful screening for implanted devices and foreign metallic objects?

  1. A patient who weighs 350 pounds.
  2. A patient who is claustrophobic.
  3. A patient with a documented allergy to shellfish.
  4. A patient who has a cochlear implant. Correct answer.

Explanation

The strong magnetic field of an MRI can displace or heat implanted metallic devices, so patients with cochlear implants, pacemakers, aneurysm clips, and similar devices require thorough screening and often cannot be scanned safely. Claustrophobia and weight affect comfort and table limits but are not magnetic safety issues.

Question 28Patient Assessment and Management

A patient is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision and is unable to provide a medical history. Which source is most appropriate for obtaining the information needed before imaging?

  1. The patient's primary care physician's office, which is closed.
  2. The patient's spouse, who arrives 30 minutes later.
  3. Emergency medical services personnel and the patient's belongings. Correct answer.
  4. The patient's employer, who is listed on a business card.

Explanation

When a patient cannot give a history, the technologist should obtain information from available sources such as EMS providers, family members, and the patient's belongings (e.g., medication lists, identification cards). EMS personnel are present at the time of arrival and can provide immediate, relevant information.

Question 29Patient Assessment and Management

Which action best protects the patient's privacy during an imaging procedure?

  1. Leaving the patient's chart open on a desk in the hallway.
  2. Discussing the patient's condition in a public waiting area.
  3. Posting the patient's name and examination on a whiteboard at the front desk.
  4. Closing the door or drawing a curtain during the examination. Correct answer.

Explanation

Privacy is protected by limiting visual and auditory access to the patient and their information, such as closing doors, drawing curtains, and keeping records secure. Public discussion and visible identifiers expose protected health information.

Question 30Patient Assessment and Management

A patient reports that she takes warfarin daily. Which laboratory value is most important to review before an invasive procedure?

  1. Hemoglobin A1c
  2. International normalized ratio (INR) Correct answer.
  3. Serum potassium
  4. White blood cell count

Explanation

Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and the INR reflects its effect on clotting. An elevated INR increases the risk of bleeding during invasive procedures, so it must be reviewed and communicated to the physician.

Question 31Patient Assessment and Management

A patient is scheduled for a procedure that requires conscious sedation. Which assessment is essential before sedation is administered?

  1. Recording of the patient's preferred sleeping position.
  2. Review of the patient's airway and fasting status. Correct answer.
  3. Assessment of the patient's favorite foods.
  4. Measurement of the patient's shoe size.

Explanation

Before conscious sedation, the technologist and physician must assess the airway and confirm that the patient has fasted to reduce the risk of aspiration. Other assessments such as vital signs and allergies are also important, but airway and fasting status are directly related to sedation safety.

Question 32Patient Assessment and Management

A technologist notices that a patient's intravenous line is infusing slowly and the site is swollen and cool to the touch. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Stop the infusion and assess the site for infiltration. Correct answer.
  2. Apply warm compresses and continue the infusion.
  3. Ignore the finding because swelling is expected.
  4. Increase the infusion rate to clear the line.

Explanation

Swelling and coolness at an IV site suggest infiltration, in which fluid enters surrounding tissue. The infusion should be stopped and the site assessed; continuing or increasing the rate would worsen the infiltration.

Question 33Patient Assessment and Management

Which instruction should be given to a patient who is scheduled for a study requiring an enema?

  1. Expect the urge to defecate and use the toilet as needed. Correct answer.
  2. Avoid drinking fluids for 24 hours after the enema.
  3. Hold the enema for at least one hour before expelling.
  4. Perform vigorous exercise immediately after the enema.

Explanation

An enema distends the bowel and stimulates the urge to defecate. The patient should be told to expect this and to use the toilet as needed, which also helps clear the bowel for the examination.

Question 34Patient Assessment and Management

A patient with a history of heart failure is scheduled for a procedure with iodinated contrast. Which pre-procedure assessment is most relevant?

  1. Use of hearing aids.
  2. Recent weight gain and shortness of breath. Correct answer.
  3. Family history of diabetes.
  4. Dietary preference for low-sodium foods.

Explanation

Iodinated contrast can cause fluid shifts and worsen heart failure, so signs of volume overload such as recent weight gain and shortness of breath should be assessed and reported. These findings may lead to premedication or a change in protocol.

Question 35Patient Assessment and Management

A patient is taking an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor and is scheduled for a contrast-enhanced study. Why is this medication history important?

  1. ACE inhibitors prevent the kidneys from excreting contrast.
  2. ACE inhibitors interact with gadolinium.
  3. ACE inhibitors cause immediate anaphylaxis to contrast.
  4. ACE inhibitors increase the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy. Correct answer.

Explanation

ACE inhibitors can impair renal perfusion and have been associated with an increased risk of contrast-induced nephropathy, especially in patients with underlying kidney disease. The physician may adjust medications or hydration before the study.

Question 36Patient Assessment and Management

A patient is scheduled for a barium enema and reports a history of severe constipation. Which action is most appropriate?

  1. Proceed with the study as ordered.
  2. Notify the radiologist before the study. Correct answer.
  3. Cancel the study and send the patient home.
  4. Administer a laxative without consulting the physician.

Explanation

Severe constipation increases the risk of barium impaction and obstruction, so the radiologist should be informed before the study. The physician may order a water-soluble contrast agent or a different preparation.

Question 37Patient Assessment and Management

A patient with a known seizure disorder is scheduled for an imaging procedure. Which precaution is most appropriate?

  1. Ensure that suction and oxygen are available. Correct answer.
  2. Restrain the patient's limbs during the procedure.
  3. Keep the room dim and minimize noise.
  4. Withhold the patient's antiseizure medication.

Explanation

Patients with seizure disorders may have a seizure during a procedure, so emergency equipment such as suction and oxygen should be readily available. Maintaining a calm environment is helpful but does not replace preparation for a seizure.

Question 38Patient Assessment and Management

A patient is scheduled for an MRI and has a tattoo on the arm. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Proceed with the MRI without concern.
  2. Apply a heating pad to the tattoo before the scan.
  3. Ask the patient about any discomfort during the scan. Correct answer.
  4. Cancel the MRI permanently.

Explanation

Some tattoo inks contain metallic particles that can heat or cause irritation during an MRI. The patient should be instructed to report any warmth, tingling, or discomfort during the scan so the examination can be stopped if needed.

Question 39Patient Assessment and Management

A patient arrives for an imaging procedure with an order for a medication that the technologist is not familiar with. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Verify the order with the prescribing physician. Correct answer.
  2. Withhold the medication and document the refusal.
  3. Administer the medication as ordered.
  4. Ask a colleague to administer the medication.

Explanation

When an order is unclear or unfamiliar, the technologist should verify it with the prescribing physician before administration. This prevents medication errors and ensures patient safety.

Question 40Patient Assessment and Management

A patient is scheduled for a procedure that requires a clear liquid diet before the examination. Which item is allowed on a clear liquid diet?

  1. Milk
  2. Black coffee Correct answer.
  3. Orange juice with pulp
  4. Cream of chicken soup

Explanation

A clear liquid diet includes liquids that are transparent and leave no residue, such as water, clear broth, black coffee, and plain tea. Milk, pulp-containing juices, and creamy soups are not clear liquids.

Question 41Patient Assessment and Management

A patient is unable to lie flat because of shortness of breath. Which action is most appropriate for an abdominal CT?

  1. Perform the study with the patient standing.
  2. Force the patient to lie flat.
  3. Cancel the study and send the patient home.
  4. Raise the head of the table and consult the radiologist. Correct answer.

Explanation

Patients who cannot tolerate lying flat may be positioned with the head elevated, and the radiologist should be consulted to determine whether the study can be performed safely in that position. Forcing the patient flat could worsen respiratory distress.

Question 42Patient Assessment and Management

A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is scheduled for a procedure requiring sedation. Which precaution is most important?

  1. Monitor oxygen saturation closely. Correct answer.
  2. Administer a cough suppressant.
  3. Encourage the patient to breathe rapidly.
  4. Place the patient in a prone position.

Explanation

Patients with COPD have limited respiratory reserve and are at increased risk of hypoxemia during sedation, so oxygen saturation should be monitored closely. Rapid breathing, cough suppression, and prone positioning are not appropriate routine precautions.

Question 43Patient Assessment and Management

A patient is scheduled for a study that requires an oral contrast agent. The patient reports a history of a severe allergic reaction to latex. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Proceed with the study using latex gloves.
  2. Use latex-free gloves and equipment. Correct answer.
  3. Administer an antihistamine before the study.
  4. Cancel the study permanently.

Explanation

For a patient with latex allergy, all latex-containing products should be avoided and latex-free gloves and equipment used. Proceeding with latex gloves could trigger a reaction.

Question 44Patient Assessment and Management

A patient is scheduled for an MRI and has a history of a metallic foreign body in the eye from a work injury. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Ask the patient to remove the foreign body.
  2. Proceed with the MRI if the patient has no symptoms.
  3. Perform the MRI with a reduced magnetic field.
  4. Obtain a radiograph of the orbits before the MRI. Correct answer.

Explanation

A metallic foreign body in or near the eye can move or heat during an MRI and cause serious injury. A radiograph of the orbits should be obtained to confirm the presence and location of metal before scanning.

Question 45Patient Assessment and Management

A patient is scheduled for a procedure that requires a signed consent form. The patient states that she does not understand the procedure. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Proceed with the procedure without consent.
  2. Notify the physician to provide further explanation. Correct answer.
  3. Ask the patient to sign the form anyway.
  4. Explain the procedure yourself in detail.

Explanation

Informed consent requires that the patient understand the procedure, risks, and alternatives. If the patient does not understand, the physician should provide further explanation before consent is obtained.

Question 46Patient Assessment and Management

A patient with a history of diabetes is scheduled for a procedure requiring fasting. Which instruction is most important?

  1. Skip all diabetes medications on the day of the procedure.
  2. Monitor blood glucose and follow the physician's instructions. Correct answer.
  3. Drink only sugary beverages during fasting.
  4. Eat a large meal before fasting begins.

Explanation

Patients with diabetes are at risk of hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia during fasting, so blood glucose should be monitored and medication adjustments should follow the physician's instructions. Self-adjusting medications can be dangerous.

Question 47Patient Assessment and Management

A patient is scheduled for a contrast-enhanced study and has a history of asthma. Which premedication regimen is commonly used to reduce the risk of a contrast reaction?

  1. An antibiotic and an antiviral.
  2. A corticosteroid and an antihistamine. Correct answer.
  3. An anticoagulant and an antiplatelet agent.
  4. A diuretic and a beta blocker.

Explanation

For patients at increased risk of contrast reactions, premedication with a corticosteroid and an antihistamine is commonly used to reduce the likelihood and severity of a reaction. Antibiotics, diuretics, and anticoagulants do not prevent contrast reactions.

Question 48Patient Assessment and Management

A patient with a known allergy to iodinated contrast requires an urgent contrast-enhanced CT. Which action is most appropriate?

  1. Proceed with the study using the same contrast agent.
  2. Administer the contrast despite the allergy.
  3. Consult the radiologist about premedication or an alternative study. Correct answer.
  4. Cancel the study and send the patient home.

Explanation

When a patient has a documented contrast allergy, the radiologist should be consulted to determine whether premedication, a different contrast agent, or an alternative imaging study is appropriate. Proceeding without modification risks a severe reaction.

Question 49Patient Assessment and Management

A patient is receiving gadolinium-based contrast for an MRI and develops a mild rash and itching. What is the most appropriate initial action?

  1. Continue the injection and document the reaction.
  2. Administer epinephrine immediately.
  3. Ignore the symptoms because they are mild.
  4. Stop the injection and assess the patient's airway and vital signs. Correct answer.

Explanation

Any suspected contrast reaction should prompt stopping the injection and assessing the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation. Mild symptoms may progress, and epinephrine is reserved for severe reactions.

Question 50Patient Assessment and Management

A patient with a history of a severe anaphylactic reaction to iodinated contrast is scheduled for a study that could be performed with or without contrast. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Administer contrast and monitor closely.
  2. Cancel the study permanently.
  3. Perform the study with contrast without precautions.
  4. Discuss with the radiologist whether the study can be done without contrast. Correct answer.

Explanation

For a patient with a severe anaphylactic reaction to contrast, the radiologist should be consulted to determine whether the study can be performed without contrast or with alternative imaging. This avoids unnecessary risk.