I85PREP
⌘ K
ATP Pilot study materials
ATP Pilot study resources

ATP Pilot practice questions

One question at a time. Build your ATP Pilot understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Preflight Preparation

A NOTAM that announces a temporary change to a published instrument approach procedure is issued as

  1. An FDC NOTAM Correct answer.
  2. A local NOTAM
  3. A military NOTAM
  4. A pointer NOTAM

Explanation

FDC NOTAMs are issued through the National Flight Data Center to carry regulatory and procedural information, including amendments to instrument approach procedures, airways, and other charted IFR data. They are the NOTAM type that changes the content of IFR charts.

Question 2Preflight Preparation

Which document must be displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance of an aircraft so that it is legible to passengers or crew?

  1. Operating limitations
  2. Airworthiness certificate Correct answer.
  3. Weight and balance record
  4. Registration certificate

Explanation

14 CFR 91.203(b) requires the airworthiness certificate to be displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance where passengers or crew can read it. The other required documents must be aboard but are not posted at the entrance.

Question 3Preflight Preparation

As density altitude increases, which statement is correct?

  1. True airspeed for a given indicated airspeed decreases
  2. Takeoff distance decreases and climb rate increases
  3. Takeoff distance grows and climb rate falls Correct answer.
  4. Engine power and lift both increase

Explanation

High density altitude means thinner air, which reduces engine power, propeller thrust, and wing lift, so takeoff and landing distances increase and climb performance deteriorates. True airspeed for a given indicated airspeed increases as air density decreases.

Question 4Preflight Preparation

In addition to fuel to the destination and required alternate, the minimum IFR fuel reserve is

  1. 45 minutes at normal cruising speed Correct answer.
  2. 30 minutes at normal cruising speed
  3. 45 minutes at maximum endurance speed
  4. 1 hour at normal cruising speed

Explanation

14 CFR 91.167 requires enough fuel to reach the first airport of intended landing, fly from there to the alternate, and then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. The reserve is measured at normal cruising speed, not at a holding or endurance speed.

Question 5Preflight Preparation

Before beginning a flight, the pilot in command must become familiar with

  1. the aircraft maintenance records for the past 12 months
  2. the destination airport's instrument approach charts
  3. all available information concerning that flight Correct answer.
  4. only the surface weather analysis for the route

Explanation

14 CFR 91.103 requires the pilot in command to become familiar with all available information concerning the flight, including weather, fuel requirements, alternatives, and known traffic delays. Reviewing a single product does not satisfy the requirement.

Question 6Preflight Preparation

An installed emergency locator transmitter must have been inspected

  1. within the preceding 100 hours of time in service
  2. within the preceding 12 calendar months Correct answer.
  3. only after any hard landing or gear collapse
  4. within the preceding 24 calendar months

Explanation

14 CFR 91.207(d) requires the ELT to be inspected within the preceding 12 calendar months for proper installation, battery condition, and the presence of required markings and placards. The requirement is calendar-based regardless of hours flown.

Question 7Preflight Preparation

For operations below 18,000 feet MSL, the altimeter should be set to

  1. the standard pressure of the departure airport
  2. 29.92 inches of mercury at all times
  3. the current setting of a nearby station Correct answer.
  4. the pressure altitude of the destination airport

Explanation

14 CFR 91.121 requires the altimeter to be set to the current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 nautical miles of the aircraft below 18,000 feet MSL. Standard pressure is used only at and above the transition altitude.

Question 8Preflight Preparation

An airplane is loaded with its center of gravity at the forward limit. Which change will move the center of gravity aft?

  1. Adding fuel to a forward fuselage tank
  2. Moving a fixed weight from the rear baggage area to a forward compartment
  3. Removing weight from the rear of the cabin
  4. Adding ballast in the aft baggage compartment Correct answer.

Explanation

The center of gravity moves toward any weight added and away from any weight removed. Adding weight behind the current center of gravity therefore shifts it aft.

Question 9Preflight Preparation

An aircraft used to carry persons for hire must have had a 100-hour inspection within the preceding

  1. 100 hours of pilot flight time
  2. 100 hours of time in service Correct answer.
  3. 50 hours of time in service
  4. 12 calendar months

Explanation

14 CFR 91.409(b) prohibits flying an aircraft with persons aboard for hire, or giving flight instruction for compensation, unless a 100-hour inspection was completed within the preceding 100 hours of time in service. An annual inspection satisfies the calendar requirement but the 100-hour interval still applies to these operations.

Question 10Preflight Preparation

When an item of equipment is deferred under an approved Minimum Equipment List, the aircraft may be

  1. issued a new airworthiness certificate
  2. operated within the MEL's conditions and limits Correct answer.
  3. ferried only under a special flight permit issued by the FAA
  4. grounded until the item is repaired

Explanation

An approved MEL authorizes operation with specific inoperative equipment as long as every applicable maintenance procedure, operational procedure, and limitation in the MEL is met. The deferral is what keeps the aircraft legal without immediate repair.

Question 11Preflight Preparation

Compliance with an Airworthiness Directive that applies to a particular aircraft is

  1. recommended but optional for part 91 operators
  2. mandatory as specified in the directive Correct answer.
  3. required only when the aircraft is flown for hire
  4. satisfied automatically by any annual inspection

Explanation

Airworthiness Directives are issued under 14 CFR part 39 and are mandatory for every affected aircraft regardless of the kind of operation. The aircraft is not airworthy until the directive is complied with in the stated time or condition.

Question 12Preflight Preparation

For a destination airport to be used without listing an alternate, its forecast ceiling and visibility from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA must be at least

  1. 2,000 feet and 3 miles Correct answer.
  2. 2,000 feet and 2 miles
  3. 1,000 feet and 2 miles
  4. 1,500 feet and 3 miles

Explanation

The familiar 1-2-3 rule allows dispatch to a destination without an alternate only when the forecast, for 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA, shows a ceiling of at least 2,000 feet and visibility of at least 3 statute miles. If the forecast is worse, an alternate must be listed and must meet its own alternate minimums.

Question 13Preflight Preparation

In an unpressurized airplane, at what altitude must the flight crew use supplemental oxygen continuously?

  1. 12,500 feet MSL
  2. 15,000 feet MSL
  3. 18,000 feet MSL
  4. 14,000 feet MSL Correct answer.

Explanation

14 CFR 91.211 requires the crew of an unpressurized aircraft to use supplemental oxygen continuously above 14,000 feet MSL. Between 12,500 and 14,000 feet MSL, oxygen is required for the crew only when that altitude band is occupied for more than 30 minutes.

Question 14Preflight Preparation

For IFR operations, the aircraft's VOR receiver must have been checked within the preceding

  1. 24 calendar months
  2. 12 calendar months
  3. 30 days Correct answer.
  4. 10 days

Explanation

14 CFR 91.171 requires a VOR receiver check within the preceding 30 days before IFR flight, and the check must be recorded with the date, place, bearing error, and signature. The permitted error is plus or minus 6 degrees for a ground check and plus or minus 4 degrees for an airborne check.

Question 15Preflight Preparation

A Part 91 flight departs from an airport that has no published takeoff minimums. What minimum visibility applies?

  1. The minimums published for the destination approach
  2. One mile visibility and a 500-foot ceiling
  3. A 200-foot ceiling and one-half statute mile visibility
  4. None are specified for Part 91 operations Correct answer.

Explanation

Part 91 does not prescribe takeoff minimums for civil aircraft, so the pilot judges whether obstacle clearance and safe handling are possible. Any minimums published for a specific airport still apply, and the pilot must be able to comply with them.

Question 16Preflight Preparation

An aircraft's main tires are inflated to 36 psi. On a runway covered with standing water, dynamic hydroplaning can begin at a groundspeed of approximately

  1. 54 knots Correct answer.
  2. 36 knots
  3. 72 knots
  4. 18 knots

Explanation

A standard rule of thumb gives dynamic hydroplaning speed as 9 times the square root of the tire inflation pressure in psi. For 36 psi the square root is 6, so hydroplaning can begin near 54 knots.

Question 17Preflight Preparation

An AIRMET Zulu advises the pilot of

  1. moderate turbulence and low-level wind shear
  2. severe icing and embedded thunderstorms
  3. moderate icing and freezing levels Correct answer.
  4. mountain obscuration and IFR conditions

Explanation

AIRMETs alert pilots to conditions of concern to light aircraft. Zulu covers moderate icing and freezing level data, Tango covers turbulence and low-level wind shear, and Sierra covers IFR conditions and mountain obscuration.

Question 18Preflight Preparation

Which combination of conditions produces the greatest increase in takeoff ground roll?

  1. A headwind, a low temperature, and a downhill runway
  2. A tailwind, a high temperature, and an upsloping runway Correct answer.
  3. A headwind, a high pressure, and a level runway
  4. A tailwind, a low temperature, and a downslope

Explanation

Ground roll grows with a tailwind, high temperature, and an upslope, because each either reduces acceleration or adds distance required to reach flying speed. A headwind, cold temperature, or downhill slope all shorten the roll.

Question 19Preflight Preparation

An airplane has an empty weight of 2,000 pounds at a moment of 160,000 pound-inches. It is loaded with 400 pounds of fuel at 90 inches and 200 pounds of baggage at 110 inches. The resulting center of gravity is approximately

  1. 82.6 inches
  2. 85.4 inches
  3. 83.1 inches
  4. 83.8 inches Correct answer.

Explanation

Total weight is 2,600 pounds and total moment is 160,000 plus 36,000 plus 22,000, or 218,000 pound-inches. Dividing moment by weight gives 218,000 divided by 2,600, approximately 83.8 inches.

Question 20Preflight Preparation

An airport at 4,000 feet elevation reports an altimeter of 29.92 and a temperature of 30 degrees Celsius. Using 120 feet per degree Celsius above standard temperature, the approximate density altitude is

  1. 7,900 feet
  2. 5,200 feet
  3. 4,000 feet
  4. 6,800 feet Correct answer.

Explanation

With 29.92 set, pressure altitude equals the 4,000-foot elevation. Standard temperature at that altitude is about 7 degrees Celsius, so the air is roughly 23 degrees warmer than standard; 23 times 120 equals 2,760 feet, giving a density altitude near 6,800 feet.

Question 21Preflight Preparation

When the air temperature is significantly colder than standard, an aircraft flown at a constant indicated altitude over high terrain has

  1. no change in true altitude, because the altimeter is pressure-based
  2. a true altitude lower than indicated, reducing obstacle clearance Correct answer.
  3. a true altitude equal to indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard pressure
  4. a true altitude higher than indicated, so obstacle clearance is greater

Explanation

In colder-than-standard air the pressure surfaces are compressed toward the ground, so the aircraft is lower than the altimeter shows. Cold temperature altitude corrections must be applied, especially for approach minimums and terrain clearance in mountainous areas.

Question 22Preflight Preparation

The wind is reported as 030 degrees at 18 knots and the runway in use is 360 degrees. What is the headwind component?

  1. 13 knots
  2. 16 knots Correct answer.
  3. 9 knots
  4. 18 knots

Explanation

The wind is 30 degrees off the runway heading, so the headwind component is 18 times the cosine of 30 degrees, about 15.6 knots, or roughly 16 knots. The crosswind component is 18 times the sine of 30 degrees, or 9 knots.

Question 23Preflight Preparation

A light aircraft departs behind a heavy jet. To minimize wake turbulence exposure during takeoff, the pilot should plan to

  1. lift off after the heavy jet's rotation point and stay below its flight path
  2. lift off before the heavy jet's rotation point and climb above its path Correct answer.
  3. lift off at the same point as the heavy jet and climb at a shallower angle
  4. wait 30 seconds and then follow the same flight path

Explanation

Wingtip vortices are generated at the heavy jet's rotation point and sink below its flight path, so lifting off before that point and climbing above the path keeps the lighter aircraft clear. A time delay alone does not guarantee avoidance.

Question 24Preflight Procedures

Which documents must be on board the aircraft for every flight?

  1. Pilot logbook, medical certificate, and aircraft flight manual
  2. Registration, airworthiness certificate, and operating limitations Correct answer.
  3. Insurance policy, airworthiness certificate, and maintenance logs
  4. Bill of sale, engine logbook, and weight and balance report

Explanation

The aircraft must carry its registration, airworthiness certificate, operating limitations (including required placards and markings), and current weight and balance data. A radio station license is required only for flight outside the United States.

Question 25Preflight Procedures

For a daytime VFR flight, the fuel aboard at takeoff must allow flight to the first point of intended landing plus how much reserve at normal cruising speed?

  1. 30 minutes Correct answer.
  2. 60 minutes
  3. 15 minutes
  4. 45 minutes

Explanation

Day VFR planning requires enough fuel to reach the first point of intended landing and then fly for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. At night the reserve increases to 45 minutes, so the applicable reserve depends on the time of flight.

Question 26Preflight Procedures

In the IMSAFE personal readiness checklist, which item is assessed by the letter F?

  1. Familiarity with the route
  2. Fatigue Correct answer.
  3. Fuel state
  4. Forecast weather

Explanation

IMSAFE stands for Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, and Emotion. The F addresses fatigue, a self-imposed condition that degrades judgment and reaction time much like alcohol.

Question 27Preflight Procedures

During the preflight inspection, fuel is drained from the sumps primarily to detect what?

  1. Water and sediment Correct answer.
  2. Octane rating
  3. Viscosity grade
  4. Additive concentration

Explanation

Water and sediment are heavier than avgas and settle at the low points of the fuel system, where the sump drains are located. Contamination found during sampling can cause power loss shortly after takeoff if it is not removed.

Question 28Preflight Procedures

Under the general preflight action rule, what must a pilot do before every flight?

  1. Review all available information concerning the flight Correct answer.
  2. Request a clearance from the tower
  3. Obtain an outlook weather briefing
  4. File an IFR flight plan with ATC

Explanation

The regulation requires the pilot in command to become familiar with all available information concerning the flight before departure. That includes weather, fuel requirements, alternatives, and known traffic delays, whether or not a flight plan is filed.

Question 29Preflight Procedures

On a hot, humid day, density altitude will be:

  1. Lower than pressure altitude
  2. Higher than pressure altitude Correct answer.
  3. Equal to pressure altitude
  4. Unaffected by humidity

Explanation

Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature, and humid air is less dense than dry air at the same temperature. High temperature and high moisture both raise density altitude above the pressure altitude.

Question 30Preflight Procedures

Which type of weather briefing is most appropriate when the proposed departure time is more than six hours away?

  1. Abbreviated
  2. Standard
  3. Outlook Correct answer.
  4. Inflight

Explanation

An outlook briefing is intended for departures six or more hours in the future and gives a preview of forecast conditions. It should be followed by a standard or abbreviated briefing closer to departure time.

Question 31Preflight Procedures

Which NOTAM type is issued to announce a temporary change to a published instrument approach procedure?

  1. FDC NOTAM Correct answer.
  2. Military NOTAM
  3. NOTAM D
  4. NOTAM C

Explanation

FDC NOTAMs carry regulatory and procedural information, including amendments to instrument approach procedures and airway structures. Other NOTAM types address aerodrome conditions, cancellations, or military activities.

Question 32Preflight Procedures

Loading an aircraft so that its center of gravity falls aft of the aft limit will:

  1. Improve stall recovery but increase fuel consumption
  2. Have no effect on handling if gross weight is within limits
  3. Reduce longitudinal stability and make stall recovery more difficult Correct answer.
  4. Increase longitudinal stability and shorten the takeoff roll

Explanation

An aft center of gravity reduces the restoring moment of the tail, decreasing static longitudinal stability. The aircraft becomes more pitch-sensitive and may be difficult to recover from a stall or spin.

Question 33Preflight Procedures

Takeoff charts are normally based on a paved, level, dry runway. Compared with a paved surface, a dry unpaved runway will generally:

  1. Increase the takeoff ground roll Correct answer.
  2. Have no effect on the takeoff ground roll
  3. Reduce the climb gradient only
  4. Decrease the takeoff ground roll

Explanation

Soft or rough surfaces absorb energy and increase rolling friction, so the aircraft accelerates more slowly and uses more runway. Chart values must be adjusted with the surface-condition notes before takeoff.

Question 34Preflight Procedures

When an item of equipment is deferred under an approved minimum equipment list, the pilot must:

  1. Obtain a special flight permit before departure
  2. Note the discrepancy and depart with no further action
  3. Verify the applicable conditions and limitations are met Correct answer.
  4. Have the item repaired within ten hours of flight time

Explanation

A minimum equipment list permits flight with specific items inoperative only when the stated conditions, limitations, and procedures for that entry are met. Failing to meet those conditions makes the aircraft unairworthy for the flight.

Question 35Preflight Procedures

How does a pilot verify that an airworthiness directive requiring action at a specific total time in service has been complied with?

  1. By checking the aircraft maintenance records Correct answer.
  2. By checking the aircraft registration certificate
  3. By checking the airworthiness certificate
  4. By checking the pilot's operating handbook

Explanation

Airworthiness directive compliance is documented in the aircraft maintenance records, which show the date, total time, and method of compliance. The directive itself applies to the aircraft regardless of what the flight manual or certificates show.

Question 36Preflight Procedures

A runway is reported to have poor braking action. What should the pilot expect?

  1. Longer landing distance and degraded directional control Correct answer.
  2. No change in landing distance with antiskid operating
  3. Satisfactory performance if the runway is long
  4. Normal stopping performance when reverse thrust is used

Explanation

Poor braking action means the coefficient of friction is significantly reduced, which lengthens the landing roll and hampers directional control. Antiskid and reverse thrust cannot restore the friction the tires do not have.

Question 37Preflight Procedures

A METAR reports the wind as 24015G25KT. How should this be interpreted?

  1. Wind from 240 degrees magnetic at 15 knots, gusting 25
  2. Wind from 024 degrees true at 15 knots, gusting 25
  3. Wind from 240 degrees true at 15 knots, gusting 25 Correct answer.
  4. Wind from 240 degrees true at 25 knots, gusting 15

Explanation

In a METAR the wind direction is given in degrees true, the first two digits after the direction give the mean speed, and the digits after G give the gust. The direction is converted to magnetic only for use with runway headings.

Question 38Preflight Procedures

Freezing rain or freezing drizzle is forecast along the planned route. What is the most significant preflight concern?

  1. Carburetor icing at reduced power settings
  2. Improved climb performance from colder air
  3. Reduced visibility from precipitation
  4. Rapid structural icing on the airframe and tailplane Correct answer.

Explanation

Freezing precipitation indicates supercooled large droplets that freeze on impact and can build thick ice on unprotected surfaces in a short time. The tailplane is especially vulnerable because ice there may not be visible from the cockpit.

Question 39Preflight Procedures

In an unpressurized aircraft, at what cabin pressure altitude must the required flight crew use supplemental oxygen continuously?

  1. 13,000 feet
  2. 12,500 feet
  3. 10,000 feet
  4. 14,000 feet Correct answer.

Explanation

Crew members must use supplemental oxygen continuously at cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet. Between 12,500 and 14,000 feet the requirement applies only after 30 minutes at that altitude.

Question 40Preflight Procedures

How must cargo be secured before flight?

  1. So it is placed only in the aft cabin area
  2. So it cannot shift and does not interfere with aircraft control Correct answer.
  3. So it is listed on the filed flight plan
  4. So it is loaded within ten pounds of the aft CG limit

Explanation

All cargo must be restrained so that it cannot move during flight and cannot interfere with the controls or with access to emergency exits. A shifting load can also move the center of gravity outside limits.

Question 41Preflight Procedures

Flying from an area of high pressure into an area of low pressure without resetting the altimeter will cause the aircraft to be:

  1. At the indicated altitude only above 18,000 feet
  2. At the indicated altitude
  3. Lower than the indicated altitude Correct answer.
  4. Higher than the indicated altitude

Explanation

A given indicated altitude corresponds to a lower true altitude when the pressure setting is too high for the local area. The memory aid is high to low, look out below, meaning the aircraft is lower than the altimeter shows.

Question 42Preflight Procedures

A tailwind during the takeoff climb affects obstacle clearance in which way?

  1. It decreases the climb gradient over the ground Correct answer.
  2. It has no effect on obstacle clearance
  3. It increases the climb gradient over the ground
  4. It increases the rate of climb in feet per minute

Explanation

A tailwind reduces groundspeed relative to airspeed, so the aircraft covers less ground per unit of altitude gained. The result is a shallower flight path over the ground and reduced obstacle clearance for the same air gradient.

Question 43Preflight Procedures

Compared with a dry day at the same pressure altitude and temperature, high humidity will cause the aircraft to:

  1. Require a shorter takeoff roll because the air is thinner
  2. Develop less power and require a longer takeoff roll Correct answer.
  3. Develop more lift because moist air is denser
  4. Experience no change because humidity is not part of density altitude

Explanation

Water vapor is lighter than the dry air it displaces, so humid air is less dense at the same temperature and pressure. The thinner air reduces both engine power and propeller thrust, lengthening the takeoff roll.

Question 44Preflight Procedures

Which combination of conditions produces the greatest takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle?

  1. Low density altitude, headwind, level runway, dry pavement
  2. Cold temperature, headwind, level runway, wet pavement
  3. Sea level pressure altitude, no wind, downsloping runway
  4. High density altitude, tailwind, upsloping runway, wet grass Correct answer.

Explanation

Takeoff distance grows with high density altitude, tailwind, upslope, and surface contamination, and these penalties compound. The other combinations include at least one factor, such as a headwind or downslope, that reduces the distance.

Question 45Preflight Procedures

Besides trip fuel, what should a complete fuel plan include?

  1. Trip fuel only, with no additional reserves
  2. Only the fuel needed to reach the destination
  3. Only the fuel carried in the auxiliary tanks
  4. Taxi, contingency, alternate, and final reserve fuel Correct answer.

Explanation

A complete plan accounts for taxi fuel, trip fuel, contingency fuel for unforeseen delays, alternate fuel when an alternate is required, and final reserve fuel. Each element is computed separately and then compared with the usable fuel aboard.

Question 46Preflight Procedures

Which items must be covered in the passenger briefing before takeoff?

  1. The pilot's total and recent flight time
  2. The planned route and en route weather
  3. The aircraft empty weight and CG location
  4. Seat belt use, smoking rules, and exit locations Correct answer.

Explanation

Passengers must be briefed on how to fasten and unfasten seat belts, when smoking is prohibited, and the location and use of emergency exits. The briefing may be given orally or by an approved briefing card.

Question 47Takeoff and Departure Phase

In a transport-category jet, what does V1 represent?

  1. The speed used for retracting the takeoff flaps
  2. The minimum speed for directional control in the air
  3. The takeoff decision speed for an engine failure Correct answer.
  4. The speed at which the pilot must rotate the airplane

Explanation

V1 is the takeoff decision speed. An engine failure before V1 normally leads to a rejected takeoff, while an engine failure after V1 normally leads to continuing the takeoff. It is not a rotation, climb, or flap-retraction speed.

Question 48Takeoff and Departure Phase

What does the symbol Vr denote in takeoff performance?

  1. The takeoff safety speed
  2. The minimum control speed on the ground
  3. The rotation speed Correct answer.
  4. The maximum brake energy speed

Explanation

Vr is the speed at which the pilot initiates rotation to the takeoff attitude. It is scheduled so that the airplane reaches V2 by 35 feet above the runway. Vmcg and V2 are different certification speeds.

Question 49Takeoff and Departure Phase

What does V2 represent for a multi-engine airplane?

  1. The decision speed for an engine failure
  2. The minimum control speed in the air
  3. The takeoff safety speed Correct answer.
  4. The speed at which the aircraft lifts off

Explanation

V2 is the takeoff safety speed that must be maintained with one engine inoperative and is used to show the required climb gradient. Liftoff speed is not V2, and V2 is normally reached by 35 feet above the runway.

Question 50Takeoff and Departure Phase

Takeoff distance available (TODA) is composed of which elements?

  1. Takeoff run available plus any clearway Correct answer.
  2. Takeoff run available plus any stopway and clearway
  3. Runway plus stopway plus clearway
  4. Runway plus taxiway

Explanation

TODA is the takeoff run available plus the length of any clearway, with the clearway limited to 1.5 times the takeoff run available. A stopway is added to the accelerate-stop distance available instead.