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CPL Flight Planning practice questions

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Question 1Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

In an aviation routine weather report (METAR), what does the term 'BECMG' indicate?

  1. A temporary fluctuation lasting less than one hour
  2. A forecast that has been cancelled by the issuing office
  3. A gradual change in conditions expected within a stated period Correct answer.
  4. An immediate and permanent change already occurring

Explanation

BECMG signals a gradual, sustained change of one or more elements, occurring within the time period given in the report. The new conditions are expected to persist once established, unlike a temporary fluctuation.

Question 2Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

A TAF for an aerodrome states 'TEMPO 1200/1400 3000 SHRA'. How should a pilot interpret this?

  1. Showers will begin at 1200 and end at 1400 UTC with visibility improving
  2. Showers are forecast to occur at 3000 feet above ground between 1200 and 1400 UTC
  3. Showers reducing visibility to 3000 m are expected intermittently between 1200 and 1400 UTC Correct answer.
  4. Visibility will remain at 3000 m for the whole forecast period

Explanation

TEMPO indicates temporary, intermittent fluctuations that may occur at any time within the stated window, each lasting less than an hour. The group 3000 is visibility in metres, and SHRA denotes showers of rain.

Question 3Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

What is the primary purpose of calculating a point of no return (PNR) during pre-flight planning?

  1. To identify the furthest point from which a return to the departure aerodrome is still possible Correct answer.
  2. To establish the point of equal time between two alternate aerodromes
  3. To determine the point where fuel reserves become legally insufficient
  4. To mark the position where the aircraft must contact air traffic control

Explanation

The PNR is the furthest point along track from which the aircraft can return to the departure aerodrome with the fuel available. It is calculated from fuel endurance, outbound groundspeed and return groundspeed.

Question 4Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

An aircraft has a safe endurance of 5 hours. Outbound groundspeed is 180 kt and return groundspeed is 220 kt. What is the distance to the point of no return from the departure aerodrome?

  1. 550 NM
  2. 495 NM
  3. 500 NM
  4. 450 NM Correct answer.

Explanation

Distance to PNR equals endurance multiplied by outbound groundspeed multiplied by return groundspeed, divided by the sum of the two groundspeeds. Here that is 5 x 180 x 220 / 400, giving 450 NM.

Question 5Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

What does a QNH of 1013 hPa represent when set on the altimeter subscale?

  1. The altimeter reads height above the aerodrome of departure
  2. The altimeter reads true altitude corrected for temperature error
  3. The altimeter reads pressure altitude referenced to the standard datum
  4. The altimeter reads elevation above mean sea level at the aircraft's position Correct answer.

Explanation

QNH is the pressure setting that makes the altimeter indicate elevation above mean sea level when the aircraft is on the ground at that location. In flight it provides approximate altitude above mean sea level.

Question 6Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

When flying in the Southern Hemisphere, how does a low-pressure system affect wind circulation?

  1. Air flows anticlockwise around the low, converging and rising
  2. Air flows anticlockwise around the low, diverging and sinking
  3. Air flows clockwise around the low, diverging and sinking
  4. Air flows clockwise around the low, converging and rising Correct answer.

Explanation

In the Southern Hemisphere the Coriolis force deflects moving air to the left, producing clockwise circulation around a low. Surface friction causes inflow toward the centre, where air converges and rises.

Question 7Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

A pilot plans a flight at 9500 ft where the forecast temperature is ISA minus 15 degrees Celsius. How does this temperature affect the true altitude compared with the indicated altitude?

  1. True altitude cannot be affected by temperature
  2. True altitude equals indicated altitude
  3. True altitude is lower than indicated altitude Correct answer.
  4. True altitude is higher than indicated altitude

Explanation

Cold air is denser, so pressure levels are compressed toward the surface and the aircraft is lower than the altimeter suggests. When the temperature is below ISA at the flight level, true altitude is less than indicated altitude.

Question 8Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

What is the significance of the 'freezing level' when planning a flight through cloud?

  1. It is the altitude above which carburettor icing cannot occur
  2. It is the level at which supercooled water droplets begin to evaporate
  3. It is the maximum altitude at which the aircraft may operate in cloud
  4. It is the altitude at which air temperature reaches zero degrees Celsius, indicating icing risk Correct answer.

Explanation

The freezing level marks where the ambient temperature is 0 degrees Celsius. Flight in cloud at or just above this level exposes the aircraft to supercooled water droplets and airframe icing.

Question 9Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

A SIGMET has been issued for an area along the planned route. What is the correct planning action?

  1. File the flight plan and rely on air traffic control to reroute
  2. Assess the hazard and replan or delay to avoid the affected area Correct answer.
  3. Ignore it because SIGMETs apply only to aircraft above FL200
  4. Treat it as advisory information with no operational consequence

Explanation

A SIGMET warns of significant hazardous weather such as severe turbulence, icing or volcanic ash that may affect the safety of flight. The pilot must evaluate the hazard and adjust the route or timing accordingly.

Question 10Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

During pre-flight planning, what does the 'wind component' calculation for a runway determine?

  1. The headwind or tailwind component along the runway axis Correct answer.
  2. The wind gradient between surface and circuit height
  3. The total wind speed at the aerodrome
  4. The crosswind component perpendicular to the runway axis

Explanation

The wind component along the runway axis is the headwind or tailwind component, derived from wind speed and the angle between wind and runway. Crosswind is the perpendicular component, calculated separately.

Question 11Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

An aerodrome forecast gives a wind of 240 degrees at 20 kt. Runway 27 is in use. What is the approximate headwind component?

  1. 7 kt tailwind
  2. 17 kt headwind Correct answer.
  3. 10 kt headwind
  4. 20 kt crosswind

Explanation

The angle between wind direction (240) and runway direction (270) is 30 degrees. The headwind component is 20 x cos 30, which is about 17 kt.

Question 12Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

What is the purpose of a take-off alternate in the operational flight plan?

  1. To serve as the destination alternate if weather deteriorates en route
  2. To act as an en-route diversion aerodrome for fuel planning
  3. To replace the destination alternate when the flight is short
  4. To provide a landing aerodrome if a return to the departure aerodrome is not possible after take-off Correct answer.

Explanation

A take-off alternate is nominated when the departure aerodrome cannot be used for landing after take-off, for example due to weather or performance limits. It ensures a viable landing option shortly after departure.

Question 13Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

Under instrument flight rules, what is the standard minimum weather requirement for a destination alternate to be nominated?

  1. It must report actual weather better than the forecast
  2. It must be forecast to be available and suitable at the estimated time of arrival Correct answer.
  3. It must be within 30 minutes flying time of the destination
  4. It must have a precision approach to the runway in use

Explanation

A destination alternate must be forecast to be available and suitable for the aircraft at the estimated time of arrival. Availability and suitability are assessed against the operator's planning minima.

Question 14Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

What does the term 'MORA' represent on an en-route planning chart?

  1. Minimum off-route altitude providing terrain clearance within a defined grid Correct answer.
  2. Minimum radar separation altitude assigned by air traffic control
  3. Maximum operating radius for a given fuel load
  4. Minimum obstacle clearance altitude along an airway centreline

Explanation

MORA is a grid-based minimum off-route altitude that guarantees a specified terrain clearance within each grid square. It is used when planning off-airway segments or diversions.

Question 15Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

When planning a route, what is the 'equal time point' between two aerodromes?

  1. The position where fuel remaining equals the fixed reserve
  2. The point at which the aircraft changes cruise altitude
  3. The position from which it takes the same time to reach either aerodrome Correct answer.
  4. The midpoint of the route measured by distance

Explanation

The equal time point is the position from which equal flight time is required to reach either of two nominated aerodromes. It is used to select the most efficient diversion aerodrome as the flight progresses.

Question 16Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

An aircraft cruises at 7500 ft. The forecast QNH at destination is 1005 hPa. If standard pressure is 1013 hPa, how does this affect the altimeter reading compared with pressure altitude?

  1. The altimeter will read lower than the pressure altitude Correct answer.
  2. The altimeter will read the same as the pressure altitude
  3. The altimeter will read the true altitude exactly
  4. The altimeter will read higher than the pressure altitude

Explanation

A lower QNH means the local pressure is below standard, so the pressure level at a given altitude is lower. Setting the lower QNH causes the altimeter to indicate a value lower than the pressure altitude referenced to 1013 hPa.

Question 17Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

What is meant by 'planning minima' in the context of alternate aerodrome selection?

  1. The minimum fuel required to divert to an alternate
  2. The lowest minima published for the instrument approach
  3. The weather conditions required at an alternate to allow it to be nominated Correct answer.
  4. The minimum visibility for a visual approach

Explanation

Planning minima are the forecast weather conditions an alternate must meet to be considered usable during flight planning. They are typically higher than the operating minima because forecasts carry uncertainty.

Question 18Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

Which cloud type is most frequently associated with severe airframe icing?

  1. Stratus clouds at temperatures well below freezing
  2. Cirrus clouds composed of ice crystals
  3. Cumulonimbus clouds containing large supercooled droplets Correct answer.
  4. Altocumulus clouds with low liquid water content

Explanation

Cumulonimbus clouds contain high concentrations of large supercooled water droplets, which freeze rapidly on impact and cause severe icing. Cirrus clouds consist of ice crystals and present little icing hazard.

Question 19Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

A pilot is planning a flight and the forecast shows a stationary front lying across the route. What weather should be anticipated?

  1. Clear skies with no significant weather
  2. Persistent cloud and continuous precipitation near the front Correct answer.
  3. Isolated thunderstorms confined to the afternoon
  4. Rapid clearing with strong gusty winds

Explanation

A stationary front forms where opposing air masses meet without advancing, producing prolonged cloud and steady precipitation along its boundary. The system may remain in place for an extended period.

Question 20Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

What is the effect of a strong temperature inversion on pre-flight planning considerations?

  1. It guarantees smooth air and unlimited visibility
  2. It can trap moisture and pollutants beneath it, reducing visibility Correct answer.
  3. It encourages rapid vertical cloud development
  4. It eliminates the risk of low-level wind shear

Explanation

A temperature inversion suppresses vertical mixing, allowing moisture, haze and pollutants to accumulate below the inversion layer. This often produces reduced visibility and low cloud.

Question 21Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

When calculating fuel for a flight, what does 'contingency fuel' cover?

  1. The fuel required to hold for 30 minutes at the destination
  2. The fuel consumed during taxi and engine start
  3. Unforeseen factors such as deviations from the planned route or winds Correct answer.
  4. The fuel needed to reach the destination alternate

Explanation

Contingency fuel provides for unforeseen influences on fuel consumption, such as route deviations, wind changes or air traffic delays. It is calculated as a percentage of trip fuel or a time allowance.

Question 22Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

A flight is planned to cruise at FL180 for 3 hours. What does the term 'critical point' most closely describe in this context?

  1. The point where the aircraft reaches its maximum operating altitude
  2. The point along track where a diversion to either of two aerodromes takes equal time Correct answer.
  3. The point where the aircraft must begin descent for arrival
  4. The point of lowest fuel remaining before the alternate

Explanation

The critical point is the position from which the time to reach either of two nominated diversion aerodromes is equal. It is functionally the same as the equal time point and guides diversion decisions.

Question 23Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

What information does a 'wind and temperature aloft' forecast provide to the flight planner?

  1. The wind gradient near the surface for landing
  2. Forecast wind velocity and temperature at specified levels for route and fuel planning Correct answer.
  3. Actual winds measured by aircraft in flight
  4. Surface wind and temperature at the departure aerodrome

Explanation

Wind and temperature aloft forecasts give expected wind direction, speed and temperature at nominated flight levels. These values are used to compute groundspeed, fuel burn and drift during planning.

Question 24Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

During planning, a pilot notes that the destination forecast is marginal but within limits. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Nominate a suitable alternate and carry the required fuel Correct answer.
  2. Proceed without an alternate because the forecast is within limits
  3. Reduce the contingency fuel to compensate for the extra alternate fuel
  4. Delay until the forecast improves to clear conditions

Explanation

When the destination forecast is marginal, the prudent action is to nominate a suitable alternate and ensure sufficient fuel. This preserves a safe option if conditions deteriorate on arrival.

Question 25Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

What is the primary reason for applying a temperature correction to planned true altitude in very cold conditions?

  1. The altimeter overreads because of increased air density
  2. Pressure levels are compressed, so the aircraft is lower than indicated Correct answer.
  3. The aircraft's true airspeed decreases with cold air
  4. The wind gradient becomes stronger near the surface

Explanation

In cold air, pressure levels are closer together, so the aircraft flies at a lower true altitude than the altimeter indicates. A correction is added to ensure terrain and obstacle clearance.

Question 26Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

When converting an aerodrome's forecast QNH value into a pressure altitude for take-off performance planning, which reference is used?

  1. Set the forecast QNH in the sub-scale and read the indicated altitude Correct answer.
  2. Set the forecast QFE in the sub-scale and read the indicated altitude
  3. Set 1013.25 hPa in the sub-scale and read the indicated altitude
  4. Set the lowest forecast QNH en route in the sub-scale and read the indicated altitude

Explanation

Pressure altitude is the altitude indicated when the altimeter sub-scale is set to the local QNH, so it reflects the aerodrome elevation corrected for how far actual pressure departs from standard. Performance charts are entered with this value together with temperature. Using QFE instead gives height above the aerodrome, and 1013.25 gives a flight-level style altitude, neither of which matches the chart's pressure altitude entry.

Question 27Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

A pilot is checking that a planned VFR cross-country will satisfy the minimum visibility requirement. Which document is the authoritative source for the visibility value that must be applied?

  1. The area forecast covering the cruise portion of the route
  2. The relevant national aviation regulation defining VFR meteorological minima Correct answer.
  3. The low-level significant weather chart valid at departure time
  4. The aerodrome forecast issued closest to the estimated time of arrival

Explanation

Legal VFR minima, including visibility and distance from cloud, are set out in the State's aviation regulations and apply regardless of what any forecast happens to say. Forecasts and charts are used to establish whether those regulatory values will actually be met. A pilot therefore compares the forecast against the rule, not the reverse.

Question 28Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

A pilot plans a departure from an aerodrome where the forecast crosswind is close to the aircraft's demonstrated limit, and the forecast is valid for a period several hours long. What is the most appropriate planning response?

  1. Accept the forecast because the crosswind is within the demonstrated limit
  2. Reduce the planned take-off mass to improve the crosswind margin
  3. Identify a suitable alternate departure aerodrome or delay the departure Correct answer.
  4. Plan a take-off alternate within 30 minutes of the departure aerodrome

Explanation

A forecast valid for a long period is a probability statement, and a crosswind near the demonstrated limit leaves no margin for the actual wind being stronger or more across the runway than forecast. The prudent planning action is to provide an alternative, either a different departure aerodrome or a later departure when conditions are expected to improve. Reducing mass does not change the crosswind limit, and a take-off alternate addresses destination diversion, not departure crosswind.

Question 29Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

A pilot is planning a flight that will cross a mountain range and wants to know the highest terrain elevation within each 1 degree by 1 degree grid on the en-route chart. Which chart feature provides this?

  1. The grid maximum elevation figure shown in each quadrangle Correct answer.
  2. The maximum elevation figure for the whole chart area
  3. The minimum safe altitude for the route sector
  4. The transition altitude printed on the chart margin

Explanation

Grid maximum elevation figures give the highest terrain or obstacle elevation within each individual quadrangle of the chart, so the planner can assess clearance over the specific area to be crossed. They are more local than a single figure for the entire chart and are terrain data rather than a computed safe altitude. Minimum safe altitudes are derived values that already include a clearance margin.

Question 30Pre-flight planning and weather assessment

An aircraft must be able to clear all terrain by 2000 ft along the planned route. The forecast temperature at the cruising level is 20 degrees Celsius warmer than ISA, and the planned indicated altitude is 8000 ft. How should the planner treat the terrain clearance?

  1. Reject it, because warm temperatures reduce the true altitude below the indicated altitude
  2. Accept it, because temperature has no effect once the altimeter is set to the area QNH
  3. Reject it, because the altimeter over-reads in warm air and shows more height than exists
  4. Accept it, because warm temperatures raise the true altitude above the indicated altitude Correct answer.

Explanation

In air warmer than ISA the atmosphere expands, so at a given indicated altitude the aircraft is actually higher above the pressure datum than in standard conditions. True altitude therefore exceeds indicated altitude, which increases, not decreases, the terrain clearance achieved. Cold temperatures produce the opposite and dangerous effect, which is why cold-temperature corrections are applied.

Question 31Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

Under ICAO rules, an IFR flight plan must be submitted to the ATS unit at least how long before the estimated off-block time, unless a shorter period is agreed with the unit concerned?

  1. 60 minutes Correct answer.
  2. 30 minutes
  3. 3 hours
  4. 10 minutes

Explanation

ICAO Annex 2 requires that a flight plan for an IFR flight be submitted at least 60 minutes before the estimated off-block time, unless a shorter period has been agreed with the ATS unit. The purpose is to give ATS time to process, coordinate and issue the clearance. VFR plans normally require only 30 minutes.

Question 32Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

In an ICAO flight plan, the item that specifies the aircraft type, wake turbulence category and equipment is:

  1. Item 9 Correct answer.
  2. Item 15
  3. Item 7
  4. Item 10

Explanation

Item 9 of the ICAO flight plan contains the number and type of aircraft, the wake turbulence category and the communication, navigation and surveillance equipment codes. Item 10 covers equipment in more detail, while Item 15 is the route. Knowing which item carries which data is essential for correct filing.

Question 33Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

A pilot files a flight plan with a cruising speed expressed as 'N0450'. What does this indicate?

  1. True airspeed of 450 km/h
  2. True airspeed of 450 knots Correct answer.
  3. Ground speed of 450 knots
  4. Indicated airspeed of 450 knots

Explanation

In ICAO flight plan speed notation, the letter N denotes true airspeed in knots, so N0450 means 450 knots true airspeed. The letter K denotes kilometres per hour and M denotes Mach number. Ground speed is not used for the filed cruising speed.

Question 34Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

The letter group 'S' in the ICAO flight plan Item 10 equipment field indicates that the aircraft is equipped with:

  1. Secondary surveillance radar with altitude reporting
  2. A short-range, high-frequency radio
  3. Satellite-based navigation only
  4. Standard communication, navigation and approach aids Correct answer.

Explanation

In Item 10, the letter S stands for standard equipment, meaning the aircraft has the standard set of communication, navigation and approach aids defined by ICAO. Other letters denote specific capabilities such as VHF, ILS or GNSS. Correct use of these codes tells ATS what services the aircraft can use.

Question 35Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

Which of the following is the correct way to express a scheduled departure time of 09:45 UTC in an ICAO flight plan?

  1. 0945Z
  2. T0945
  3. 9:45
  4. 0945 Correct answer.

Explanation

All times in an ICAO flight plan are entered as four digits in Coordinated Universal Time without punctuation or a Z suffix. Thus 09:45 UTC is written 0945. Adding a colon or the letter Z is not part of the prescribed format.

Question 36Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

What does a flight plan route entry of 'DCT' signify?

  1. Descent clearance point
  2. Departure control transfer
  3. Direct routing between the specified points Correct answer.
  4. Diverted course to alternate

Explanation

DCT is the abbreviation for 'direct', used in the route field to indicate that the aircraft will proceed directly between the named points without following a designated airway. It is a standard ICAO abbreviation. Misusing it can lead to route clearance discrepancies.

Question 37Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

When a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan while airborne in controlled airspace, the pilot should:

  1. Simply stop communicating with ATS
  2. Squawk 7600 to signal cancellation
  3. Request cancellation from ATS and await confirmation before changing to VFR Correct answer.
  4. Cancel the plan after landing

Explanation

Cancellation of an IFR flight plan in controlled airspace must be requested from and confirmed by the appropriate ATS unit, because the aircraft remains under IFR clearance until ATS acknowledges. Only after confirmation may the pilot operate under VFR. Unilateral cancellation would leave the aircraft without a clearance.

Question 38Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

An aircraft is planned to depart at 10:00 UTC on a flight of 3 hours 20 minutes. What estimated time of arrival should be entered in the flight plan?

  1. 1220
  2. 1300
  3. 1320 Correct answer.
  4. 1340

Explanation

The estimated time of arrival is the departure time plus the total estimated elapsed time. Adding 3 hours 20 minutes to 10:00 gives 13:20, entered as 1320. The elapsed time itself is entered separately in Item 16.

Question 39Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

A flight plan shows EOBT 1200 and EET 0230. What ETA should appear in the plan?

  1. 0930
  2. 1230
  3. 0230
  4. 1430 Correct answer.

Explanation

The ETA is obtained by adding the estimated elapsed time to the estimated off-block time. 1200 plus 2 hours 30 minutes equals 1430. The EET field itself records the duration, not the arrival time.

Question 40Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

A pilot's flight plan must be amended when the estimated time over a reporting point will differ from the filed time by more than:

  1. 10 minutes
  2. 3 minutes Correct answer.
  3. 30 minutes
  4. 60 minutes

Explanation

ICAO requires an in-flight amendment when the estimated time over a designated reporting point differs by more than 3 minutes from the filed estimate. This allows ATS to maintain accurate separation and sequencing. Larger tolerances would degrade the accuracy of the traffic picture.

Question 41Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the alternate aerodrome field in an IFR flight plan?

  1. To list all aerodromes overflown en route
  2. To identify an aerodrome to which the flight could proceed if landing at the destination is not possible Correct answer.
  3. To record the departure aerodrome for return flights
  4. To specify the aerodrome where the flight plan was filed

Explanation

The alternate aerodrome is the aerodrome to which a flight may proceed if it becomes impossible or inadvisable to land at the intended destination. It provides a planned diversion option and is required for many IFR operations. It is not the departure point or a list of overflown aerodromes.

Question 42Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

An aircraft files a flight plan with speed M082. What does this notation represent?

  1. 820 metres per minute
  2. Mach 0.82 Correct answer.
  3. Mach 8.2
  4. 82 knots indicated

Explanation

The letter M in the speed field denotes Mach number, and M082 means Mach 0.82. This notation is used for high-altitude jet operations. It is not a metric speed or an indicated airspeed.

Question 43Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

A pilot needs to file a flight plan for a flight departing in 25 minutes. Under ICAO provisions, the appropriate action is to:

  1. File the plan and request that ATS accept the shorter notice period Correct answer.
  2. Omit the flight plan and proceed under VFR
  3. File the plan only after landing
  4. File the plan after departure

Explanation

Although the standard lead time for an IFR flight plan is 60 minutes, a shorter period may be agreed with the ATS unit concerned. The pilot should file the plan and coordinate acceptance of the reduced notice. Filing after departure or omitting the plan is not acceptable for IFR operations.

Question 44Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

In the route field of an ICAO flight plan, the entry 'N0450F350' indicates:

  1. True airspeed 450 knots and flight level 350 Correct answer.
  2. True airspeed 45 knots and altitude 350 feet
  3. Ground speed 450 knots and altitude 3500 feet
  4. Mach 0.45 and flight level 350

Explanation

The letter N denotes true airspeed in knots and F denotes flight level, so N0450F350 means 450 knots true airspeed at flight level 350. This combined notation appears at the start of the route field to define the planned cruise conditions. It is not a ground speed or a Mach number.

Question 45Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

What is the significance of the letter 'R' in the surveillance equipment part of Item 10?

  1. The aircraft has a radio altimeter only
  2. The aircraft is restricted from radar areas
  3. The aircraft carries a rescue beacon
  4. The aircraft is equipped with a pressure-altitude reporting transponder Correct answer.

Explanation

In the surveillance equipment field, R indicates that the aircraft has a Mode C or equivalent pressure-altitude reporting capability. This allows ATS to obtain altitude information from radar. Other letters denote different surveillance capabilities, such as Mode S.

Question 46Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

An aircraft's flight plan shows a total estimated elapsed time of 4 hours 15 minutes and departure at 06:30 UTC. What ETA is entered?

  1. 1015
  2. 1115
  3. 0245
  4. 1045 Correct answer.

Explanation

Adding 4 hours 15 minutes to 06:30 gives 10:45, entered as 1045. The elapsed time is entered separately in the flight plan. Care is needed when the minutes sum exceeds 60, as the hour must be carried over.

Question 47Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

Which statement about the use of the letter 'G' in the communication, navigation and surveillance equipment field is correct?

  1. It indicates that the aircraft is ground-controlled only
  2. It indicates that the aircraft is equipped with GNSS Correct answer.
  3. It indicates that the aircraft has no navigation equipment
  4. It indicates that the aircraft has a glide slope receiver

Explanation

The letter G in the equipment field denotes that the aircraft is equipped with a global navigation satellite system. This informs ATS of the navigation capability available for the flight. It is distinct from letters denoting ILS or other radio navigation aids.

Question 48Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

A flight plan filed for an IFR flight in controlled airspace is activated when:

  1. The aircraft departs and ATS is notified or the plan is activated by the unit Correct answer.
  2. The aircraft reaches its cruising level
  3. The pilot submits the plan at the briefing office
  4. The aircraft enters the destination control zone

Explanation

A flight plan becomes active when the aircraft departs and the appropriate ATS unit is notified, or when the unit activates it in accordance with local procedures. Submission alone does not activate the plan. Activation starts the alerting service associated with the flight.

Question 49Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

A pilot plans a route via airway A1 from point X to point Y, then direct to point Z. Which route field entry is most appropriate?

  1. X Y A1 DCT Z
  2. X A1 Y DCT Z Correct answer.
  3. X A1 DCT Y Z
  4. X DCT A1 Y Z

Explanation

The route field lists points and the designators connecting them in the order flown, with DCT inserted where the aircraft proceeds directly. Thus X A1 Y DCT Z correctly shows the airway segment followed by a direct segment. Placing DCT before the airway misrepresents the route.

Question 50Flight plan preparation and ATS filing

A flight plan shows a filed cruising speed of N0400 and a route distance of 800 nautical miles. What is the planned en-route time?

  1. 1 hour 20 minutes
  2. 2 hours 40 minutes
  3. 2 hours 00 minutes Correct answer.
  4. 3 hours 20 minutes

Explanation

At a true airspeed of 400 knots, 800 nautical miles takes 2 hours. The calculation divides distance by speed. Wind and other factors are accounted for separately when the plan is refined.