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Health Studies Level 3 study materials
Health Studies Level 3 study resources

Health Studies Level 3 practice questions

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Question 1Health Promotion and Public Health

Which term describes a disease that spreads from person to person within a community?

  1. Communicable disease Correct answer.
  2. Genetic disorder
  3. Deficiency disease
  4. Congenital condition

Explanation

A communicable disease is one caused by an infectious agent that can be transmitted between hosts, directly or indirectly. Congenital, genetic, and deficiency conditions arise from inheritance, birth factors, or nutritional lack and are not passed between people.

Question 2Health Promotion and Public Health

What does the 'incubation period' of an infectious disease refer to?

  1. The time between diagnosis and treatment
  2. The total duration of illness until recovery
  3. The time from exposure to the appearance of symptoms Correct answer.
  4. The period during which a person is most infectious

Explanation

The incubation period is the interval between entry of the pathogen and the first appearance of clinical signs or symptoms. It is distinct from the infectious period, which describes when a person can transmit the agent to others.

Question 3Health Promotion and Public Health

Which measure best describes the proportion of a population that has a disease at a specific point in time?

  1. Incidence rate
  2. Attack rate
  3. Case fatality rate
  4. Point prevalence Correct answer.

Explanation

Point prevalence counts all existing cases in a population at one moment, expressed as a proportion. Incidence rate instead measures new cases arising over a period, so it captures risk of developing disease rather than existing burden.

Question 4Health Promotion and Public Health

A community programme's main purpose is to reduce the number of new cases of a disease. Which level of prevention is this?

  1. Secondary prevention
  2. Primary prevention Correct answer.
  3. Quaternary prevention
  4. Tertiary prevention

Explanation

Primary prevention acts before disease occurs, aiming to stop new cases through measures such as immunisation, safe water, or health education. Secondary prevention detects disease early, while tertiary prevention limits disability after disease has developed.

Question 5Health Promotion and Public Health

Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?

  1. Fortifying flour with folic acid
  2. Screening for raised blood pressure in adults Correct answer.
  3. Providing condoms to reduce infection risk
  4. Rehabilitating a patient after a stroke

Explanation

Secondary prevention aims to detect disease early, before symptoms appear, so that treatment can begin sooner. Screening for raised blood pressure identifies people who already have a risk condition and allows early management.

Question 6Health Promotion and Public Health

Which statement best defines health promotion as described in the Ottawa Charter?

  1. The delivery of clinical treatment to people with diagnosed illness
  2. The enforcement of laws banning unhealthy products
  3. The provision of free medicines to low-income groups
  4. The process of enabling people to increase control over and improve their health Correct answer.

Explanation

The Ottawa Charter frames health promotion as the process of enabling people to increase control over, and to improve, their health. It emphasises action on the wider determinants of health rather than clinical treatment alone.

Question 7Health Promotion and Public Health

Which of the following is one of the five action areas of the Ottawa Charter for Health Promotion?

  1. Increasing private health insurance
  2. Building healthy public policy Correct answer.
  3. Reducing the number of health workers
  4. Expanding hospital bed capacity

Explanation

The Ottawa Charter sets out five action areas, including building healthy public policy, creating supportive environments, strengthening community action, developing personal skills, and reorienting health services. Hospital capacity and insurance are health system features, not Charter action areas.

Question 8Health Promotion and Public Health

Which model explains health behaviour by linking perceived susceptibility, perceived severity, benefits, and barriers?

  1. Stages of Change Model
  2. Social Cognitive Theory
  3. Health Belief Model Correct answer.
  4. Diffusion of Innovations

Explanation

The Health Belief Model explains behaviour through a person's perceptions of threat, such as susceptibility and severity, weighed against perceived benefits and barriers to action. It also includes cues to action and self-efficacy.

Question 9Health Promotion and Public Health

A person who has stopped smoking for six months and is working to maintain the change is in which stage of the Stages of Change Model?

  1. Maintenance Correct answer.
  2. Contemplation
  3. Preparation
  4. Precontemplation

Explanation

In the Stages of Change Model, maintenance describes people who have already made a change and are working to sustain it over time. Contemplation and preparation occur before action, while precontemplation involves no intention to change.

Question 10Health Promotion and Public Health

Which term describes the fairness of health status and access across different population groups?

  1. Health equity Correct answer.
  2. Health literacy
  3. Health financing
  4. Health surveillance

Explanation

Health equity refers to the absence of avoidable and unfair differences in health between groups. It differs from equality, because unequal needs may require unequal resources to reach fair outcomes.

Question 11Health Promotion and Public Health

Which of the following is a social determinant of health?

  1. Level of educational attainment Correct answer.
  2. Blood type
  3. Height in adulthood
  4. Presence of a specific gene mutation

Explanation

Social determinants are the conditions in which people are born, grow, live, work, and age, such as education, income, and housing. Biological traits like blood type, height, and gene mutations are not social conditions.

Question 12Health Promotion and Public Health

What is the main purpose of a needs assessment before designing a health promotion programme?

  1. To identify the priority health issues and target population characteristics Correct answer.
  2. To calculate the salary costs of programme staff
  3. To decide which advertising agency to hire
  4. To select the colour scheme for health leaflets

Explanation

A needs assessment gathers information on the health problems, affected groups, and existing resources so that a programme targets the most relevant issues. It informs priorities and design rather than administrative or cosmetic decisions.

Question 13Health Promotion and Public Health

Which element is essential for evaluating the effectiveness of a health promotion programme?

  1. Clearly defined measurable objectives set at the start Correct answer.
  2. A large number of printed posters
  3. A long programme title
  4. A famous person as programme ambassador

Explanation

Evaluation compares outcomes against predetermined measurable objectives, so clear objectives must exist from the outset. Without them, it is impossible to judge whether the programme achieved what it intended.

Question 14Health Promotion and Public Health

Which of the following best describes herd immunity?

  1. Indirect protection of unvaccinated people when enough of the population is immune Correct answer.
  2. Resistance to disease caused by good nutrition alone
  3. Immunity that only lasts for one season
  4. The immunity a person gains after a single infection

Explanation

Herd immunity occurs when a sufficiently high proportion of a population is immune, which reduces transmission and indirectly protects those who are not immune. It depends on the infectiousness of the pathogen and the proportion immune.

Question 15Health Promotion and Public Health

What is the main aim of health screening programmes?

  1. To replace all diagnostic testing
  2. To reduce the number of doctors in a region
  3. To detect disease or risk factors early in people without symptoms Correct answer.
  4. To treat advanced disease in hospital inpatients

Explanation

Screening tests are offered to apparently healthy people to identify those who may have a condition or risk factor at an early stage. Positive results then require confirmatory diagnosis and appropriate management.

Question 16Health Promotion and Public Health

Which of the following is a key criterion for a condition to be suitable for a population screening programme?

  1. The condition is extremely rare in the population
  2. There is an accepted test and effective treatment for detected cases Correct answer.
  3. The test has a high rate of false negatives and no follow-up
  4. Treatment is unavailable for the detected condition

Explanation

Screening is justified when the condition is important, a suitable test exists, and effective treatment is available for those detected. Without acceptable tests and treatment pathways, screening would cause harm without clear benefit.

Question 17Health Promotion and Public Health

A public health team wants to compare death rates between two towns with very different age structures. Which approach is most appropriate?

  1. Count the total number of deaths in each town
  2. Compare the number of hospital beds in each town
  3. Compare crude death rates directly
  4. Calculate age-standardised mortality rates Correct answer.

Explanation

Age standardisation adjusts rates to remove the effect of differing age structures, allowing fair comparison between populations. Crude rates can mislead when one population is much older than the other.

Question 18Health Promotion and Public Health

Which of the following is a key component of a communicable disease outbreak investigation?

  1. Reducing laboratory testing
  2. Delaying reporting until the outbreak ends
  3. Describing the cases by time, place, and person Correct answer.
  4. Increasing hospital charges

Explanation

Describing cases by time, place, and person helps investigators characterise the outbreak, identify the source, and target control measures. Prompt reporting and laboratory testing are essential supports, not delays.

Question 19Health Promotion and Public Health

Which type of study design follows a group of people over time to observe the development of disease?

  1. Randomised controlled trial
  2. Case-control study
  3. Cross-sectional survey
  4. Cohort study Correct answer.

Explanation

A cohort study identifies a group and follows them forward, recording exposures and observing who develops the outcome. Case-control studies work backwards from outcome to exposure, and cross-sectional surveys measure exposure and outcome at one time.

Question 20Health Promotion and Public Health

Which of the following is an example of a structural intervention in health promotion?

  1. Holding a health awareness day
  2. Introducing a tax on sugary drinks Correct answer.
  3. Running a one-off exercise class
  4. Distributing a leaflet on handwashing

Explanation

Structural interventions change the environment, policy, or economic context in which behaviour occurs, such as taxation, regulation, or built-environment design. Individual-level activities like classes and leaflets rely on personal behaviour change.

Question 21Health Promotion and Public Health

What does the term 'health literacy' refer to?

  1. The total spending on hospital equipment
  2. The ability to obtain, understand, and use information to make health decisions Correct answer.
  3. The number of doctors per thousand people
  4. The proportion of the population with health insurance

Explanation

Health literacy describes the skills people need to access, understand, appraise, and apply health information to make decisions and manage their health. It is a personal capability, distinct from workforce, insurance, or spending measures.

Question 22Health Promotion and Public Health

A programme uses mass media to warn the public about the dangers of a new drug. Which health promotion approach does this represent?

  1. Behavioural economics approach
  2. Persuasive or educational approach Correct answer.
  3. Empowerment approach
  4. Environmental modification approach

Explanation

Mass media campaigns that aim to inform and persuade people to adopt safer behaviour sit within the persuasive or educational approach. This approach assumes that knowledge and attitudes drive behaviour change.

Question 23Health Promotion and Public Health

Which of the following best describes the 'precautionary principle' in public health?

  1. Waiting for complete proof before any action is taken
  2. Allowing only industry to decide on safety measures
  3. Taking protective action when evidence of serious harm exists despite scientific uncertainty Correct answer.
  4. Ignoring uncertain risks until harm is confirmed

Explanation

The precautionary principle holds that when there are reasonable grounds for concern about serious or irreversible harm, protective action may be justified even before full scientific certainty. It does not require waiting for absolute proof.

Question 24Health Promotion and Public Health

Which of the following is a common barrier to effective communication in health promotion?

  1. Matching the language to the audience
  2. Testing messages with community members
  3. Providing information in several formats
  4. Use of technical jargon unfamiliar to the audience Correct answer.

Explanation

Technical jargon can confuse audiences and reduce comprehension, making it a barrier to effective communication. Tailoring language, pretesting messages, and offering multiple formats are strategies that improve reach and understanding.

Question 25Health Promotion and Public Health

A local authority wants to reduce road traffic injuries among children near schools. Which action is most consistent with a settings-based approach to health promotion?

  1. Working with schools to change the local road environment and travel policies Correct answer.
  2. Providing hospital treatment for injured children
  3. Publishing a national report on road safety statistics
  4. Training surgeons in trauma care

Explanation

A settings-based approach acts within everyday environments such as schools, changing their physical and policy context to protect health. National reports, hospital treatment, and surgical training do not change the school setting itself.

Question 26Health Promotion and Public Health

Which statement best describes the purpose of a health impact assessment (HIA)?

  1. To estimate the potential health effects of a proposed policy, programme, or project before it is implemented Correct answer.
  2. To audit the clinical outcomes of patients treated in a hospital over the past year
  3. To monitor the prevalence of a disease in a population over time
  4. To calculate the cost-effectiveness of a new pharmaceutical treatment

Explanation

A health impact assessment is a structured process that anticipates the health consequences of a proposed policy, programme, or project before decisions are made, so that negative effects can be mitigated and positive effects enhanced. It considers a wide range of determinants of health and involves stakeholders.

Question 27Health Promotion and Public Health

A community health worker is planning a programme to increase uptake of cervical cancer screening among women in a low-income neighbourhood. Which action best applies the principle of community participation?

  1. Asking general practitioners to decide the programme content without consulting residents
  2. Involving local women in identifying barriers and designing the invitation and reminder system Correct answer.
  3. Distributing leaflets written by the national cancer institute without local input
  4. Setting screening targets based on national averages rather than local data

Explanation

Community participation means engaging the target population in assessing needs, planning, and implementing the programme, which increases relevance and ownership. Involving local women in identifying barriers and designing invitations ensures the intervention fits their circumstances.

Question 28Health Promotion and Public Health

A public health team is designing a campaign to reduce sugar-sweetened beverage consumption. They plan to use a mass media campaign, a school-based education programme, and a tax on sugary drinks. Which term best describes this combined approach?

  1. A cross-sectional survey
  2. A clinical audit
  3. A multi-component or settings-based intervention Correct answer.
  4. A randomised controlled trial

Explanation

Combining mass media, school-based education, and fiscal policy is a multi-component intervention that addresses behaviour at several levels, often described as settings-based when it includes schools and other everyday environments. Such approaches are more effective than single-component efforts.

Question 29Health Promotion and Public Health

In a health promotion programme, which outcome is most appropriately classified as a health outcome rather than a process or impact outcome?

  1. Number of participants who attended the education sessions
  2. Reduction in the incidence of type 2 diabetes in the target population Correct answer.
  3. Percentage of participants who reported increased knowledge about healthy eating
  4. Number of leaflets distributed in the community

Explanation

Health outcomes are changes in health status, such as reduced disease incidence, whereas process outcomes measure delivery and impact outcomes measure intermediate changes like knowledge or behaviour. A reduction in diabetes incidence reflects an actual change in health.

Question 30Health Promotion and Public Health

A health promotion agency wants to reduce alcohol-related harm. It considers two strategies: (A) a mass media campaign warning of the risks of binge drinking, and (B) a policy that restricts the density of alcohol outlets in a neighbourhood. Which statement best analyses the likely relative effectiveness of these strategies?

  1. Strategy A is likely to be more effective because it targets the individual's knowledge and attitudes
  2. Strategy B is likely to be more effective because it changes the environment that shapes behaviour, whereas Strategy A relies mainly on individual behaviour change Correct answer.
  3. Both strategies are equally effective because they both aim to reduce alcohol consumption
  4. Strategy A is likely to be more effective because mass media reach a larger audience than outlet restrictions

Explanation

Structural or environmental interventions such as restricting alcohol outlet density alter the context in which behaviour occurs and tend to have broader and more sustained effects than mass media campaigns, which rely on individual response and may widen inequalities. This reflects the Ottawa Charter emphasis on creating supportive environments and healthy public policy.

Question 31Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

Which type of blood vessel carries blood away from the heart?

  1. Capillary
  2. Vein
  3. Lymphatic vessel
  4. Artery Correct answer.

Explanation

Arteries are defined by the direction of blood flow: they carry blood away from the heart and toward the tissues or lungs. Veins carry blood back toward the heart, and capillaries are the thin exchange vessels between the two. Lymphatic vessels carry lymph, not blood.

Question 32Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

In which part of the digestive tract does most chemical digestion and nutrient absorption occur?

  1. Large intestine
  2. Stomach
  3. Oesophagus
  4. Small intestine Correct answer.

Explanation

The small intestine has a huge surface area created by villi and microvilli, plus pancreatic and intestinal enzymes, so most chemical digestion is completed and most nutrients are absorbed there. The stomach mainly churns food and begins protein digestion. The large intestine mostly absorbs water and electrolytes.

Question 33Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

What is the main function of red blood cells?

  1. Clotting blood at wound sites
  2. Producing antibodies
  3. Transporting oxygen using haemoglobin Correct answer.
  4. Engulfing bacteria by phagocytosis

Explanation

Red blood cells are packed with haemoglobin, an iron-containing pigment that binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it in the tissues. They lack a nucleus in humans, which maximises space for haemoglobin. Defence and clotting are carried out by white cells and platelets.

Question 34Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

Which structure in the kidney is the main site of filtration of blood plasma?

  1. Glomerulus Correct answer.
  2. Renal pelvis
  3. Collecting duct
  4. Loop of Henle

Explanation

The glomerulus is a knot of capillaries where hydrostatic pressure forces water and small solutes out of the blood into the surrounding capsule, forming filtrate. The loop of Henle and collecting duct modify that filtrate later. The renal pelvis simply funnels urine toward the ureter.

Question 35Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

Which hormone is released by the pancreas when blood glucose rises after a meal?

  1. Adrenaline
  2. Insulin Correct answer.
  3. Glucagon
  4. Cortisol

Explanation

Insulin is secreted by pancreatic beta cells in response to high blood glucose and promotes uptake and storage of glucose in cells. Glucagon acts in the opposite direction, raising glucose when it falls. Cortisol and adrenaline are stress hormones from other glands.

Question 36Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

What is the name of the process by which a single cell divides into two genetically identical daughter cells?

  1. Fertilisation
  2. Mitosis Correct answer.
  3. Meiosis
  4. Osmosis

Explanation

Mitosis produces two daughter cells that carry the same chromosome number and genetic content as the parent cell, supporting growth and repair. Meiosis halves the chromosome number to make gametes, and fertilisation joins gametes. Osmosis is water movement, not cell division.

Question 37Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

Which organ is the primary site of gas exchange in the human respiratory system?

  1. Alveoli Correct answer.
  2. Bronchi
  3. Larynx
  4. Trachea

Explanation

Alveoli are tiny air sacs surrounded by capillaries, giving a large thin surface across which oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse. The trachea, bronchi and larynx are conducting airways that move air but exchange very little gas.

Question 38Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

Approximately how many bones are present in the adult human skeleton?

  1. 206 Correct answer.
  2. 306
  3. 106
  4. 156

Explanation

The adult skeleton typically contains 206 bones, divided into the axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton. Babies are born with more separate bone elements, some of which fuse during growth. The other figures do not match the standard adult count.

Question 39Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

A person's heart rate rises during exercise. Which change best explains this response?

  1. Reduced venous return stretches the atria less
  2. Increased parasympathetic stimulation slows the pacemaker
  3. Lower body temperature reduces metabolic demand
  4. Increased sympathetic stimulation accelerates the pacemaker Correct answer.

Explanation

During exercise, sympathetic nerves release noradrenaline onto the sinoatrial node, raising its firing rate and so increasing heart rate and output. Parasympathetic activity would slow the heart, and exercise actually raises body temperature and venous return. The response serves the higher oxygen demand of muscles.

Question 40Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

A patient has a blocked bile duct. Which digestive process is most directly impaired?

  1. Digestion of starch in the mouth
  2. Emulsification of fats Correct answer.
  3. Absorption of glucose
  4. Secretion of gastric acid

Explanation

Bile from the liver, stored in the gallbladder, is released through the bile duct and emulsifies fats into small droplets so lipases can act. A blockage reduces fat digestion and absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. Glucose absorption, salivary starch digestion and gastric acid secretion do not depend on bile flow.

Question 41Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

During inhalation at rest, what happens to the diaphragm and thoracic volume?

  1. The diaphragm relaxes and thoracic volume stays constant
  2. The diaphragm contracts and domes upward, reducing thoracic volume
  3. The diaphragm relaxes and thoracic volume falls
  4. The diaphragm contracts and flattens, increasing thoracic volume Correct answer.

Explanation

The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle below the lungs. When it contracts it flattens and moves downward, enlarging the thoracic cavity and lowering pressure so air flows in. Relaxation reverses this and supports quiet exhalation.

Question 42Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

Which sequence correctly describes the flow of blood through the heart after it returns from the body?

  1. Left atrium, left ventricle, lungs, right atrium, right ventricle
  2. Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle Correct answer.
  3. Right atrium, left atrium, right ventricle, left ventricle, lungs
  4. Right ventricle, right atrium, lungs, left ventricle, left atrium

Explanation

Deoxygenated blood from the body enters the right atrium, passes to the right ventricle and is pumped to the lungs. Oxygenated blood then returns to the left atrium and is ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta. This double circulation keeps oxygenated and deoxygenated blood largely separate.

Question 43Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

A child is growing rapidly. Which hormone pattern best supports long-bone growth at the epiphyseal plates?

  1. High calcitonin with low growth hormone
  2. High parathyroid hormone with low growth hormone
  3. Low insulin-like growth factor with high cortisol
  4. High growth hormone with normal thyroid and sex hormones Correct answer.

Explanation

Growth hormone, acting partly through insulin-like growth factor 1 produced in the liver, stimulates cartilage and bone formation at the epiphyseal plates. Thyroid hormones support normal skeletal maturation. Excess cortisol or deficient growth hormone impairs growth.

Question 44Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

Which statement best describes the role of villi in the small intestine?

  1. They secrete bile to digest fats
  2. They produce red blood cells
  3. They increase surface area for absorption Correct answer.
  4. They store glycogen for later use

Explanation

Villi are finger-like projections of the intestinal lining, each covered in microvilli, which multiply the surface area available for absorbing nutrients. They contain blood capillaries and a lacteal to carry absorbed substances away. Bile production, glycogen storage and blood cell production are liver or bone marrow functions.

Question 45Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

What is the primary function of platelets in the blood?

  1. Producing plasma proteins
  2. Carrying oxygen to tissues
  3. Forming a plug during haemostasis Correct answer.
  4. Destroying virus-infected cells

Explanation

Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged vessel walls, aggregate and release factors that trigger the clotting cascade, forming a plug. They do not carry oxygen or make plasma proteins. Killing infected cells is the work of cytotoxic T cells.

Question 46Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

Which part of the nervous system mainly controls involuntary functions such as heart rate and gland secretion?

  1. Skeletal motor system
  2. Sensory nervous system
  3. Somatic nervous system
  4. Autonomic nervous system Correct answer.

Explanation

The autonomic nervous system regulates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands, maintaining internal balance without conscious control. Its sympathetic and parasympathetic branches have largely opposing effects. The somatic system controls voluntary skeletal muscle movement.

Question 47Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

Which statement about the placenta is correct?

  1. It permits exchange of nutrients and gases without direct mixing of blood Correct answer.
  2. It is formed entirely from maternal tissue
  3. It allows maternal and fetal blood to mix freely
  4. It produces the amniotic fluid that cushions the fetus

Explanation

The placenta brings maternal and fetal blood close together across a thin barrier so nutrients, oxygen and waste can be exchanged, but the two circulations normally remain separate. It is formed from both fetal trophoblast tissue and maternal decidua. Amniotic fluid is produced largely by fetal kidneys and membranes.

Question 48Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

A person becomes dehydrated on a hot day. Which change is the most likely homeostatic response?

  1. Increased release of antidiuretic hormone and concentrated urine Correct answer.
  2. Increased sodium loss in dilute sweat
  3. Reduced thirst and reduced water reabsorption
  4. Increased urine output and dilute urine

Explanation

Dehydration raises blood osmolality, which is detected by hypothalamic osmoreceptors. This triggers antidiuretic hormone release, increasing water reabsorption in the collecting ducts and producing small concentrated urine, along with thirst. The body conserves water rather than losing it.

Question 49Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

Which feature distinguishes cardiac muscle from skeletal muscle?

  1. It is under voluntary control
  2. It contains no mitochondria
  3. It has intercalated discs that link cells electrically Correct answer.
  4. It is attached to bones by tendons

Explanation

Cardiac muscle cells are joined by intercalated discs containing gap junctions, allowing electrical signals to spread so the heart contracts as a coordinated unit. Cardiac muscle is involuntary and richly supplied with mitochondria. Skeletal muscle is voluntary and attaches to bones via tendons.

Question 50Anatomy, Physiology and Human Development

A blood sample shows a raised number of neutrophils. Which interpretation is most reasonable?

  1. The person has anaemia
  2. The person has a bacterial infection Correct answer.
  3. The person has an allergic reaction
  4. The person has a clotting disorder

Explanation

Neutrophils are the most abundant white cells and are the first responders to bacterial infection, so their numbers often rise in bacterial illness. Allergic reactions typically raise eosinophils. Anaemia concerns red cells and clotting disorders concern platelets or clotting factors.