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Toelatingsexamen Dierenarts practice questions

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Question 1Diergeneeskunde

Which organ is the primary site of drug metabolism in the domestic mammal?

  1. Liver Correct answer.
  2. Spleen
  3. Lung
  4. Kidney

Explanation

Hepatic enzymes, especially the cytochrome P450 system in hepatocytes, perform most phase I and phase II biotransformation of drugs and toxins. The liver's portal blood supply exposes it first to absorbed compounds, making it the dominant metabolic organ.

Question 2Diergeneeskunde

In a healthy dog, which heart valve separates the left atrium from the left ventricle?

  1. Aortic valve
  2. Pulmonary valve
  3. Tricuspid valve
  4. Mitral valve Correct answer.

Explanation

The mitral (bicuspid) valve lies between the left atrium and left ventricle and prevents backflow during systole. The right side of the heart is guarded by the tricuspid valve, while the outflow valves are the pulmonary and aortic semilunar valves.

Question 3Diergeneeskunde

A dog is presented with polyuria, polydipsia and weight loss. Which laboratory finding would most support a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?

  1. Low urine specific gravity with no glucose
  2. Persistent hyperglycaemia with glucosuria Correct answer.
  3. Hyperkalaemia with metabolic alkalosis
  4. Elevated bile acids after a meal

Explanation

Diabetes mellitus is characterised by hyperglycaemia that exceeds the renal threshold, so glucose spills into the urine and draws water with it, causing polyuria. Glucosuria together with persistent fasting hyperglycaemia is the hallmark combination.

Question 4Diergeneeskunde

Which species is a ruminant?

  1. Dog
  2. Pig
  3. Sheep Correct answer.
  4. Horse

Explanation

Sheep are ruminants with a four-compartment stomach and foregut fermentation by symbiotic microbes. Pigs are monogastric omnivores and horses are hindgut fermenters, but neither has a rumen.

Question 5Diergeneeskunde

Which parasite is the definitive host of Toxoplasma gondii?

  1. Dogs
  2. Poultry
  3. Cats Correct answer.
  4. Cattle

Explanation

Toxoplasma gondii undergoes its sexual reproductive cycle only in felids, which shed oocysts in faeces. Other mammals and birds act as intermediate hosts harbouring tissue cysts.

Question 6Diergeneeskunde

What is the normal resting body temperature range of a healthy adult dog?

  1. 35.0-37.0 °C
  2. 37.5-39.2 °C Correct answer.
  3. 34.0-36.0 °C
  4. 40.5-42.0 °C

Explanation

Canine core temperature normally lies between roughly 37.5 and 39.2 °C. Values above this range suggest fever or hyperthermia, while lower values indicate hypothermia.

Question 7Diergeneeskunde

Which nutrient deficiency causes microcytic hypochromic anaemia in young piglets?

  1. Copper
  2. Vitamin B12
  3. Folic acid
  4. Iron Correct answer.

Explanation

Newborn piglets have limited iron stores and rapid growth, so without supplementation they develop iron-deficiency anaemia with small, pale red cells. Iron is essential for haemoglobin synthesis.

Question 8Diergeneeskunde

Which route of drug administration bypasses hepatic first-pass metabolism most completely?

  1. Intravenous Correct answer.
  2. Rectal
  3. Oral
  4. Subcutaneous

Explanation

Intravenous administration delivers drug directly into systemic circulation, avoiding absorption and hepatic first-pass effects entirely. Oral dosing is most subject to first-pass metabolism, and rectal and subcutaneous routes are intermediate.

Question 9Diergeneeskunde

A cow has a displaced abomasum. Which clinical sign is most consistent with left displacement of the abomasum?

  1. High-pitched ping on auscultation and percussion of the left flank Correct answer.
  2. Marked icterus and haemoglobinuria
  3. Profuse nasal discharge and coughing
  4. Severe diarrhoea with fresh blood

Explanation

A left-displaced abomasum traps gas, producing a resonant ping when the left abdominal wall is simultaneously auscultated and percussed. This acoustic sign is the classic bedside finding for the condition.

Question 10Diergeneeskunde

Which drug class is used to reverse the effects of warfarin-type anticoagulant poisoning in a dog?

  1. Atropine
  2. Naloxone
  3. Protamine sulfate
  4. Vitamin K1 Correct answer.

Explanation

Warfarin and similar coumarin anticoagulants inhibit vitamin K epoxide reductase, depleting active clotting factors. Supplementing vitamin K1 restores gamma-carboxylation of factors II, VII, IX and X, thereby correcting the coagulopathy.

Question 11Diergeneeskunde

Which of the following best describes the term 'zoonosis'?

  1. A disease caused by a vaccine reaction
  2. A disease transmitted from animals to humans Correct answer.
  3. A disease confined to a single species
  4. A disease that affects only the respiratory tract

Explanation

A zoonosis is an infection or disease naturally transmissible between vertebrate animals and humans, such as rabies or brucellosis. Recognising zoonoses is central to veterinary public health.

Question 12Diergeneeskunde

A young dog develops severe vomiting after eating chocolate. Which compound in chocolate is responsible for the toxicity?

  1. Lactose
  2. Theobromine Correct answer.
  3. Tannins
  4. Caffeine only

Explanation

Chocolate contains methylxanthines, chiefly theobromine, which dogs metabolise slowly. Theobromine stimulates the central nervous system and heart and can cause vomiting, arrhythmias and seizures.

Question 13Diergeneeskunde

Which hormone is produced by the corpus luteum and maintains pregnancy in the early stages in most domestic species?

  1. Progesterone Correct answer.
  2. Prolactin
  3. Oxytocin
  4. Follicle-stimulating hormone

Explanation

The corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which prepares and maintains the uterine lining for pregnancy. Luteal regression or luteolysis reduces progesterone and can lead to pregnancy loss.

Question 14Diergeneeskunde

A horse shows ataxia, proprioceptive deficits and a swollen, painful neck after a fall. Which structure is most likely affected?

  1. Spinal cord Correct answer.
  2. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
  3. Facial nerve
  4. Suspensory ligament

Explanation

Cervical trauma can compress or injure the spinal cord, producing ataxia and proprioceptive deficits in the limbs. The neck swelling and pain localise the lesion to the cervical vertebral region.

Question 15Diergeneeskunde

Which vaccine type typically provides the most rapid onset of protection during an outbreak?

  1. Toxoid vaccine
  2. Subunit vaccine
  3. Killed vaccine
  4. Modified live vaccine Correct answer.

Explanation

Modified live vaccines replicate in the host and generally stimulate rapid, strong cell-mediated and humoral immunity after a single dose. Killed, toxoid and subunit vaccines usually need adjuvants and repeated doses for comparable protection.

Question 16Diergeneeskunde

Which condition in dairy cattle is characterised by low blood calcium around calving, causing recumbency and muscle weakness?

  1. Ketosis
  2. Grass tetany
  3. Milk fever Correct answer.
  4. Rumen acidosis

Explanation

Milk fever, or parturient hypocalcaemia, results from the sudden calcium demand of lactation overwhelming homeostatic mechanisms. Low ionised calcium impairs neuromuscular function, producing weakness and sternal recumbency.

Question 17Diergeneeskunde

Which of the following is the most appropriate first step when handling a suspected rabid dog?

  1. Wash the animal with cold water only
  2. Perform an oral examination immediately
  3. Give a live vaccine and release the animal
  4. Isolate the animal and minimise human contact Correct answer.

Explanation

Rabies is a fatal zoonosis, so suspected cases must be isolated with minimal human contact and reported to authorities. Post-exposure prophylaxis is required for anyone exposed, and handling must be avoided.

Question 18Diergeneeskunde

What is the primary function of the rumen in adult cattle?

  1. Enzymatic digestion of proteins by pepsin
  2. Microbial fermentation of plant material Correct answer.
  3. Storage of bile before release
  4. Absorption of most water and electrolytes

Explanation

The rumen harbours a dense microbial population that ferments cellulose and other plant carbohydrates into volatile fatty acids. These fatty acids are absorbed and serve as the main energy source for the animal.

Question 19Diergeneeskunde

A dog with chronic renal failure is anaemic. Which mechanism best explains the anaemia?

  1. Reduced erythropoietin production Correct answer.
  2. Excess vitamin K synthesis
  3. Overproduction of platelets
  4. Increased iron absorption

Explanation

The kidneys produce erythropoietin, which stimulates red blood cell production. In chronic renal failure, damaged renal tissue reduces erythropoietin output, leading to a normocytic normochromic non-regenerative anaemia.

Question 20Diergeneeskunde

Which of the following is a key principle of antibiotic stewardship in veterinary practice?

  1. Using narrow-spectrum agents when culture results allow Correct answer.
  2. Treating every febrile animal with broad-spectrum antibiotics
  3. Sharing leftover antibiotics between different animals
  4. Using antibiotics routinely to prevent all infections

Explanation

Stewardship aims to preserve antimicrobial efficacy by using the narrowest effective agent guided by culture and sensitivity. This reduces selection pressure for resistant bacteria and protects animal and human health.

Question 21Diergeneeskunde

In a horse showing severe colic, which finding most strongly indicates the need for immediate surgical referral?

  1. Normal borborygmi with soft faeces passed
  2. Mild transient discomfort relieved by walking
  3. Refractory pain despite analgesia with distended small intestine on rectal examination Correct answer.
  4. Slight reduction in appetite with normal heart rate

Explanation

Persistent severe pain unresponsive to analgesia, together with small intestinal distension, suggests strangulating or obstructive disease requiring surgery. Delay increases the risk of intestinal necrosis and death.

Question 22Diergeneeskunde

Which mechanism best explains how a competitive antagonist reduces the effect of an agonist at a receptor?

  1. It blocks the receptor irreversibly at a different site
  2. It increases agonist affinity
  3. It binds the same site and can be overcome by higher agonist concentrations Correct answer.
  4. It permanently destroys the receptor

Explanation

A competitive antagonist occupies the agonist binding site reversibly, so raising agonist concentration can displace it and restore the response. This shifts the dose-response curve rightward without reducing maximal efficacy.

Question 23Diergeneeskunde

A herd of pigs shows poor growth, diarrhoea and raised mortality. Post-mortem examination reveals necrotic lesions in the ileum and colon. Which pathogen is a classic cause of this presentation?

  1. Lawsonia intracellularis Correct answer.
  2. Classical swine fever virus
  3. Foot-and-mouth disease virus
  4. Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

Explanation

Lawsonia intracellularis causes proliferative enteropathy, with diarrhoea and poor growth, and can produce necrotic ileal lesions in pigs. The organism infects enterocytes and leads to mucosal thickening and necrosis.

Question 24Diergeneeskunde

A cat is presented with acute hindlimb paralysis and loss of femoral pulses. Which diagnosis should be prioritised?

  1. Intervertebral disc extrusion
  2. Aortic thromboembolism Correct answer.
  3. Acute renal failure
  4. Ruptured cruciate ligament

Explanation

Loss of femoral pulses with acute hindlimb paresis strongly suggests aortic thromboembolism, often secondary to hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. The thrombus obstructs aortic flow, causing ischaemia and paralysis.

Question 25Diergeneeskunde

Which statement about the inheritance of a sex-linked recessive trait in dogs is correct?

  1. The trait is carried on the Y chromosome
  2. Affected females are more common than affected males
  3. Affected males transmit the allele to all their daughters Correct answer.
  4. Males require two copies of the allele to be affected

Explanation

Males are hemizygous for X-linked genes, so an affected male carries the allele on his single X chromosome and passes it to every daughter. Daughters become carriers, while sons receive the Y chromosome and are unaffected.

Question 26Diergeneeskunde

Which blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of a dog to the lungs?

  1. Pulmonary artery Correct answer.
  2. Cranial vena cava
  3. Pulmonary vein
  4. Aorta

Explanation

The pulmonary trunk leaves the right ventricle and divides into pulmonary arteries that carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs for gas exchange. This is the standard exception to the rule that arteries carry oxygenated blood. The pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood to the left atrium.

Question 27Diergeneeskunde

Which species is a natural definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii, meaning it can shed infectious oocysts in its faeces?

  1. Cattle
  2. Horse
  3. Cat Correct answer.
  4. Dog

Explanation

Only felids serve as definitive hosts for Toxoplasma gondii, completing the enteroepithelial sexual cycle and shedding oocysts. Other species, including dogs, cattle and horses, can be infected as intermediate hosts but do not shed oocysts. This distinction is central to controlling environmental contamination.

Question 28Diergeneeskunde

Which term describes the study of the distribution and determinants of disease in populations?

  1. Epidemiology Correct answer.
  2. Embryology
  3. Pharmacology
  4. Pathology

Explanation

Epidemiology examines how disease occurs and spreads within populations, including risk factors and patterns over time and place. Pathology focuses on the nature of disease in tissues, pharmacology on drugs, and embryology on prenatal development. Herd-level investigation relies heavily on epidemiological reasoning.

Question 29Diergeneeskunde

In a cow, which compartment of the stomach is the largest and houses the main microbial fermentation vat?

  1. Rumen Correct answer.
  2. Omasum
  3. Abomasum
  4. Reticulum

Explanation

The rumen is the largest forestomach compartment and contains a dense population of bacteria, protozoa and fungi that ferment fibrous feed. The reticulum, omasum and abomasum are smaller and serve different roles. The abomasum is the true glandular stomach.

Question 30Diergeneeskunde

Which vitamin is synthesised in the skin of animals after exposure to ultraviolet light?

  1. Vitamin C
  2. Vitamin D Correct answer.
  3. Vitamin A
  4. Vitamin K

Explanation

Ultraviolet light converts a cholesterol derivative in the skin into vitamin D, which is then activated by the liver and kidney. Vitamin A and vitamin K must be supplied in the diet, and vitamin C is synthesised internally in most domestic species but not in the skin by light. This pathway explains why indoor animals may need dietary vitamin D.

Question 31Diergeneeskunde

Which of the following is a Gram-negative bacterium commonly associated with enteritis in young calves?

  1. Streptococcus uberis
  2. Staphylococcus aureus
  3. Escherichia coli Correct answer.
  4. Clostridium perfringens

Explanation

Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative rod and certain strains cause neonatal calf diarrhoea through enterotoxins and adhesins. Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus uberis are Gram-positive cocci, and Clostridium perfringens is a Gram-positive rod. Gram staining therefore helps narrow the differential list.

Question 32Diergeneeskunde

Which structure connects the fetus to the placenta and carries fetal blood vessels?

  1. Umbilical cord Correct answer.
  2. Amnion
  3. Cervix
  4. Allantois

Explanation

The umbilical cord contains the umbilical arteries and vein, linking the fetal circulation with the placental exchange surface. The amnion and allantois are fetal membranes that surround and support the conceptus but are not the connecting cord itself. The cervix is part of the maternal reproductive tract.

Question 33Diergeneeskunde

Which of the following best describes the term 'antigen'?

  1. A molecule that binds specifically to antibodies or T-cell receptors Correct answer.
  2. A protein that digests invading bacteria
  3. A drug that suppresses the immune response
  4. A hormone that regulates immune cell production

Explanation

An antigen is any substance that can be specifically recognised by antibodies or T-cell receptors and may provoke an immune response. It is not itself an enzyme, hormone or drug. Recognition depends on molecular shape and exposed epitopes.

Question 34Diergeneeskunde

A 3-year-old dog is presented with polyuria, polydipsia and weight loss. Blood glucose is markedly elevated and urine contains glucose. Which diagnosis is most likely?

  1. Diabetes mellitus Correct answer.
  2. Chronic kidney disease
  3. Diabetes insipidus
  4. Hyperadrenocorticism

Explanation

Hyperglycaemia together with glucosuria that exceeds the renal threshold is the hallmark of diabetes mellitus, and the resulting osmotic diuresis explains polyuria and polydipsia. Diabetes insipidus causes dilute urine without glucosuria, and chronic kidney disease usually shows azotaemia with more variable glucose. Weight loss reflects impaired glucose utilisation.

Question 35Diergeneeskunde

A farmer reports sudden deaths in a group of young pigs, and post-mortem examination shows a swollen, dark spleen and haemorrhages. Which husbandry factor most warrants investigation first?

  1. Excessive vitamin supplementation
  2. Introduction of new animals without quarantine Correct answer.
  3. Sudden feed change to high fibre
  4. Overcrowding in the nursery only

Explanation

This presentation is compatible with an acute infectious disease such as African swine fever or classical swine fever, where introduction of new animals without quarantine is a key risk. Sudden feed changes cause digestive disturbances rather than splenic haemorrhage, and vitamin excess does not fit. Investigating animal movements and biosecurity is the priority.

Question 36Diergeneeskunde

A horse is examined and found to have a heart rate of 60 beats per minute, injected mucous membranes and prolonged capillary refill time. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

  1. Normal findings requiring no action
  2. Signs of chronic liver disease only
  3. Systemic hypoperfusion requiring urgent fluid therapy Correct answer.
  4. Mild colic suitable for observation at home

Explanation

A heart rate of 60 with injected membranes and delayed capillary refill indicates poor peripheral perfusion and shock, warranting prompt fluid resuscitation and investigation. These are not normal findings in a resting adult horse. Chronic liver disease does not specifically produce this acute perfusion pattern.

Question 37Diergeneeskunde

A dog receiving a high dose of an aminoglycoside antibiotic should be monitored for which adverse effect?

  1. Hepatotoxicity and cataracts
  2. Photosensitivity and polyphagia
  3. Bone marrow aplasia and alopecia
  4. Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity Correct answer.

Explanation

Aminoglycosides accumulate in renal proximal tubular cells and in the inner ear, producing dose-related nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Monitoring renal function and avoiding prolonged high exposure reduce the risk. Hepatotoxicity, marrow aplasia and photosensitivity are not characteristic class effects.

Question 38Diergeneeskunde

Which statement correctly describes the direction of blood flow through the mammalian heart?

  1. Left atrium to left ventricle to lungs to right atrium to right ventricle
  2. Right ventricle to right atrium to lungs to left ventricle to left atrium
  3. Right atrium to left atrium to lungs to right ventricle to left ventricle
  4. Right atrium to right ventricle to lungs to left atrium to left ventricle Correct answer.

Explanation

Deoxygenated blood enters the right atrium, passes to the right ventricle, is pumped to the lungs, and returns to the left atrium before entering the left ventricle for systemic distribution. Valves prevent backward flow at each step. The other sequences reverse or bypass normal chamber order.

Question 39Diergeneeskunde

A flock of sheep shows progressive weight loss, poor wool quality and diarrhoea, and faecal examination reveals strongyle-type eggs. Which management measure best reduces pasture contamination?

  1. Treat all animals once and return them immediately to the same pasture
  2. Increase stocking density to dilute the parasite load
  3. Use targeted treatment combined with pasture rotation and resting Correct answer.
  4. Provide more concentrate feed without deworming

Explanation

Targeted selective treatment reduces drug use while pasture rotation and resting allow larval contamination to decline. Returning treated animals immediately to the same pasture reinfects them quickly. Increasing stocking density raises rather than lowers exposure.

Question 40Diergeneeskunde

In a cow with a left displaced abomasum, which auscultation technique is most useful to confirm the displacement?

  1. Percussion of the right paralumbar fossa only
  2. Auscultation of the heart at the left axilla
  3. Simultaneous auscultation and percussion over the left flank Correct answer.
  4. Auscultation of the trachea during exercise

Explanation

Ping-pong auscultation combined with percussion over the left flank detects the resonant gas-filled abomasum trapped between the abdominal wall and rumen. This produces a characteristic high-pitched ping. Tracheal and cardiac auscultation do not assess abomasal position.

Question 41Diergeneeskunde

A client asks why a killed vaccine is sometimes preferred over a live vaccine in a pregnant animal. Which reason is most valid?

  1. Killed vaccines do not require any immune response
  2. Killed vaccines are always cheaper to produce
  3. Killed vaccines always produce lifelong immunity after one dose
  4. Killed vaccines cannot cause disease from residual virulence Correct answer.

Explanation

Killed vaccines contain no replicating organism, so they cannot cause vaccine-induced infection in the fetus or dam. They generally require multiple doses and adjuvant and do not necessarily give lifelong immunity. Cost and immunogenicity usually favour live vaccines where safe.

Question 42Diergeneeskunde

A cat presents with a heart murmur, gallop rhythm and tachypnoea, and thoracic radiographs show cardiomegaly with pulmonary oedema. Which drug class is most appropriate to improve cardiac output in this setting?

  1. Positive inotrope such as digoxin Correct answer.
  2. Beta-adrenergic agonist such as dobutamine
  3. Loop diuretic such as furosemide
  4. Antitussive such as butorphanol

Explanation

In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with reduced ventricular filling and secondary congestion, positive inotropes such as digoxin are used cautiously to support output, while diuretics relieve oedema. Beta-agonists may worsen outflow obstruction, and antitussives do not address cardiac function. Careful monitoring of renal function and electrolytes is needed.

Question 43Diergeneeskunde

A cow is recumbent and has a rumen pH of 5.0 with a history of a high-concentrate diet. Which condition best explains the rumen findings?

  1. Traumatic reticuloperitonitis
  2. Simple indigestion from coarse hay
  3. Ruminal acidosis Correct answer.
  4. Ruminal alkalosis

Explanation

A rumen pH around 5.0 with a high-concentrate history indicates ruminal acidosis, where rapid fermentation of starch produces excess lactate and volatile fatty acids. Alkalosis would raise pH, and coarse hay indigestion does not typically cause such a low pH. Traumatic reticuloperitonitis causes pain and fever rather than this primary pH change.

Question 44Diergeneeskunde

Which of the following best explains why a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug can cause gastric ulceration?

  1. Direct stimulation of gastric acid secretion by histamine
  2. Increased mucus production that traps acid
  3. Blocking of mucosal blood flow by beta-adrenergic antagonism
  4. Inhibition of cyclo-oxygenase reduces protective prostaglandin synthesis Correct answer.

Explanation

NSAIDs inhibit cyclo-oxygenase, lowering prostaglandins that normally increase mucus and bicarbonate secretion and maintain mucosal blood flow. Loss of these protective effects allows acid-mediated injury. The mechanism is not direct histamine stimulation or beta-blockade.

Question 45Diergeneeskunde

A puppy is presented with vomiting, diarrhoea and dehydration. Which parameter is most useful for assessing the severity of dehydration and guiding fluid therapy?

  1. Urine specific gravity alone
  2. Serum amylase activity
  3. Packed cell volume and total protein Correct answer.
  4. Body temperature alone

Explanation

Packed cell volume and total protein help estimate haemoconcentration caused by fluid loss and guide the volume and type of fluid replacement. Temperature alone is a poor measure of hydration, and amylase is not a hydration marker. Urine specific gravity provides supportive information but is influenced by renal concentrating ability.

Question 46Diergeneeskunde

In a pedigree, a single autosomal recessive allele causes disease. Which mating is most likely to produce affected offspring even though both parents appear healthy?

  1. One affected and one homozygous normal animal
  2. Two homozygous normal animals
  3. One carrier and one homozygous normal animal
  4. Two carriers of the allele Correct answer.

Explanation

Two clinically normal carriers each pass the recessive allele with probability one half, so one quarter of offspring are expected to be affected. A carrier crossed with a homozygous normal animal produces no affected offspring. Affected crossed with normal yields only carriers.

Question 47Diergeneeskunde

A dairy herd shows a sudden drop in milk yield with fever and a swollen, painful udder in several cows. Which organism is a common environmental cause of such mastitis?

  1. Escherichia coli Correct answer.
  2. Mycoplasma bovis
  3. Corynebacterium renale
  4. Streptococcus agalactiae

Explanation

Environmental coliforms such as Escherichia coli cause acute, often severe mastitis associated with contaminated bedding and manure. Streptococcus agalactiae is a contagious obligate udder pathogen, and Mycoplasma bovis causes a different herd pattern. Corynebacterium renale is associated with urinary tract disease.

Question 48Diergeneeskunde

A dog has a bleeding tendency, prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time with normal prothrombin time, and normal platelet count. Which interpretation is most consistent?

  1. Von Willebrand disease affecting platelet adhesion only
  2. Thrombocytopenia as the primary cause
  3. Deficiency within the extrinsic coagulation pathway
  4. Deficiency within the intrinsic coagulation pathway Correct answer.

Explanation

A prolonged APTT with normal PT points to a defect in the intrinsic pathway, such as factor VIII or IX deficiency. The extrinsic pathway abnormality would prolong PT, and a normal platelet count argues against thrombocytopenia. Von Willebrand disease affects platelet adhesion and does not typically prolong APTT alone in this pattern.

Question 49Diergeneeskunde

Which statement best describes the role of the loop of Henle in the mammalian kidney?

  1. It reabsorbs all filtered glucose regardless of blood level
  2. It creates a medullary osmotic gradient that allows concentration of urine Correct answer.
  3. It secretes erythropoietin in response to hypoxia
  4. It filters plasma proteins into the tubule

Explanation

The countercurrent multiplier arrangement of the loop of Henle establishes a medullary osmotic gradient, enabling water reabsorption and urine concentration under antidiuretic hormone. Glomerular filtration, not the loop, handles plasma proteins, and erythropoietin is produced mainly by interstitial cells. Glucose reabsorption is limited by transport capacity.

Question 50Diergeneeskunde

A farm has a high prevalence of lameness in dairy cows. Which approach best identifies the main risk factors and guides control?

  1. Increasing concentrate feeding to improve body condition
  2. Treating only the most severely lame cows with antibiotics
  3. Culling every lame cow immediately without investigation
  4. Systematic locomotion scoring with recording of housing and management data Correct answer.

Explanation

Systematic locomotion scoring combined with housing and management records allows identification of risk factors such as cubicle design, flooring and slurry management. Treating only severe cases or culling without investigation does not address underlying causes. Increased concentrate feeding can worsen laminitis risk.