I85PREP
⌘ K
BR-ANAC-AVI study materials
BR-ANAC-AVI study resources

BR-ANAC-AVI practice questions

One question at a time. Build your BR-ANAC-AVI understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Air Law and Regulatory Framework

Under the Convention on International Civil Aviation (Chicago Convention), which body is the permanent governing organ of the International Civil Aviation Organization?

  1. The Secretariat
  2. The Council Correct answer.
  3. The Assembly
  4. The Air Navigation Commission

Explanation

The Chicago Convention establishes the Council as the permanent executive body of ICAO, responsible for carrying out the Organization's ongoing work between Assembly sessions. The Assembly meets periodically but is not a permanent organ, and the Air Navigation Commission and Secretariat are subordinate technical and administrative bodies.

Question 2Air Law and Regulatory Framework

An aircraft registered in State A is operating over the high seas. Which law applies to the aircraft and the persons on board in that airspace?

  1. International maritime law, because the high seas are outside national territory
  2. The law of the State of registry, because the aircraft is subject to its jurisdiction Correct answer.
  3. The law of the State of departure, because the flight originated there
  4. The law of the nearest coastal State, because of the adjacent airspace

Explanation

The Chicago Convention provides that aircraft have the nationality of the State in which they are registered, and on the high seas the law of the State of registry governs the aircraft and persons on board. Coastal States have no jurisdiction over the high seas, and the State of departure loses authority once its aircraft leaves its territory.

Question 3Air Law and Regulatory Framework

Which document, issued under the Chicago Convention, contains the Standards and Recommended Practices for Personnel Licensing?

  1. Annex 1 Correct answer.
  2. Annex 6
  3. Annex 2
  4. Annex 8

Explanation

Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention is titled Personnel Licensing and sets out the standards for licensing flight crew, air traffic controllers and other personnel. The other annexes cover different subjects, so the correct identification depends on knowing the annex numbering system.

Question 4Air Law and Regulatory Framework

A flight crew member holds a licence issued by State A and wishes to exercise the privileges of that licence on an aircraft registered in State B. Under the Chicago Convention, what is generally required?

  1. The licence must be reissued by State B without any recognition of the original
  2. The licence is automatically valid in every contracting State without further action
  3. The licence must be endorsed by ICAO headquarters
  4. The licence must be rendered valid by State B, the State of registry Correct answer.

Explanation

The Convention permits a contracting State to recognise licences issued by another State only if the issuing State's standards meet or exceed ICAO minimum standards, and the licence must be rendered valid by the State in which the aircraft is registered. Automatic worldwide validity is not granted, and ICAO does not endorse individual licences.

Question 5Air Law and Regulatory Framework

What is the status of a Recommended Practice in an ICAO Annex?

  1. It is a desirable practice whose uniform application is recognised as beneficial, but compliance is not mandatory Correct answer.
  2. It is legally binding on all contracting States in the same way as a Standard
  3. It is a suggestion with no expectation of notification to ICAO
  4. It is binding only on States that have signed a separate bilateral treaty

Explanation

A Recommended Practice is any specification whose uniform application is recognised as desirable, and States are expected to notify ICAO of any differences. Standards, by contrast, are mandatory specifications that States must follow unless they file a difference.

Question 6Air Law and Regulatory Framework

An aircraft is being flown in a manner that creates serious risk to persons or property. Which measure is available to a contracting State under Article 9 of the Chicago Convention?

  1. It may require the aircraft to land and may detain it pending investigation Correct answer.
  2. It may impose a fine directly on the pilot without any legal proceeding
  3. It may destroy the aircraft without any process
  4. It may revoke the airworthiness certificate of the aircraft type worldwide

Explanation

Article 9 permits a State to require any aircraft entering a prohibited area or flying without special permission to land and to detain it, subject to investigation. The State cannot act arbitrarily beyond its territory, nor can it impose penalties outside its legal system.

Question 7Air Law and Regulatory Framework

Under the Chicago Convention, what must a State do if it finds it impracticable to comply with an international Standard?

  1. Apply the Standard only to aircraft of its own registry
  2. Notify ICAO of the difference between its practice and the Standard Correct answer.
  3. Suspend the Standard for all other States
  4. Withdraw from the Convention immediately

Explanation

Article 38 of the Convention requires a State that cannot comply with a Standard to notify ICAO of the differences between its own practice and the established Standard. This notification system keeps other States informed; a State cannot unilaterally suspend a Standard for others.

Question 8Air Law and Regulatory Framework

Which body adopts the international Standards and Recommended Practices and designates them as annexes to the Chicago Convention?

  1. The ICAO Council Correct answer.
  2. The Assembly of all contracting States
  3. The International Court of Justice
  4. The Air Navigation Commission alone

Explanation

The Council, acting under Article 54 of the Convention, adopts and amends the annexes containing Standards and Recommended Practices. The Assembly sets broad policy but does not adopt annexes, and the Air Navigation Commission only recommends technical content.

Question 9Air Law and Regulatory Framework

A pilot operating an aircraft engaged in international navigation must carry certain documents on board. Which of the following is required by Article 29 of the Chicago Convention?

  1. The company's internal operations manual
  2. The pilot's personal logbook
  3. The aircraft maintenance schedule
  4. The certificate of registration of the aircraft Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 29 lists the documents that must be carried, including the certificate of registration, certificate of airworthiness, appropriate licences, journey log book and, where applicable, the radio station licence. Company manuals and personal logbooks are not among the documents listed in that article.

Question 10Air Law and Regulatory Framework

What is the primary purpose of the Convention on International Civil Aviation's provision that each State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory?

  1. To confirm that no foreign aircraft may fly over or into a State's territory without authorisation Correct answer.
  2. To transfer control of airspace to ICAO
  3. To permit aircraft to enter foreign airspace without permission in peacetime
  4. To allow any State to close airspace over the high seas

Explanation

Article 1 of the Convention recognises complete and exclusive sovereignty of each State over the airspace above its territory, and Article 6 accordingly requires special permission for scheduled international air services. This principle is the foundation of bilateral air service agreements.

Question 11Air Law and Regulatory Framework

Under the Chicago Convention, non-scheduled flights may be operated over or into the territory of another contracting State subject to what condition?

  1. The State flown over must be given the right to require the aircraft to land for inspection Correct answer.
  2. The flight must be approved by the ICAO Council in advance
  3. The flight must be conducted at night
  4. The aircraft must carry only cargo

Explanation

Article 5 allows non-scheduled flights to enter the territory of another State without prior permission, but the State has the right to require landing for inspection and may impose regulations for safety. No prior Council approval is needed, and the Convention does not restrict such flights to cargo or night operations.

Question 12Air Law and Regulatory Framework

A State wishes to establish a prohibited area over a sensitive installation. Under the Chicago Convention, what must the State do with respect to that area?

  1. Apply the restriction only to aircraft of its own nationality
  2. Obtain prior approval from the ICAO Assembly for each area
  3. Publish particulars of the area and give notice to other States Correct answer.
  4. Keep the location secret from all foreign operators

Explanation

Article 9 permits States to establish prohibited areas but requires that particulars be published and that notice be given to other contracting States and to ICAO. Restrictions must be applied without distinction as to nationality, and secrecy is inconsistent with the notice requirement.

Question 13Air Law and Regulatory Framework

What is the legal character of the technical annexes to the Chicago Convention?

  1. They are adopted by the Council and become binding on States that do not notify differences Correct answer.
  2. They are advisory documents with no binding effect
  3. They are treaties that each State must ratify individually to be bound
  4. They are recommendations issued by airlines

Explanation

The annexes are adopted by the Council under the Convention and are binding on contracting States unless the State notifies a difference. They are not separate treaties requiring ratification, and they are not merely advisory, because Standards carry mandatory force.

Question 14Air Law and Regulatory Framework

Which of the following best describes the function of an Airworthiness Directive issued by a State of registry?

  1. It authorises the construction of new airports
  2. It mandates corrective action to restore or maintain the airworthiness of affected aircraft Correct answer.
  3. It certifies the competence of individual pilots
  4. It grants permission for commercial air transport operations

Explanation

An Airworthiness Directive is a mandatory requirement issued by the certificating authority to correct an unsafe condition identified in an aircraft, engine or component. It is not a licence, an operating permission or an infrastructure approval, so its scope is limited to continuing airworthiness.

Question 15Air Law and Regulatory Framework

Under the Convention, what does the certificate of airworthiness confirm about an aircraft?

  1. That the aircraft has been cleared for a specific route
  2. That the aircraft is considered fit for flight in accordance with the standards of the issuing State Correct answer.
  3. That the pilot has completed recurrent training
  4. That the aircraft has been sold to a new owner

Explanation

A certificate of airworthiness is issued when the State is satisfied that the aircraft conforms to an approved type design and is in a condition for safe operation. Ownership, crew training and route clearance are governed by separate documents and rules.

Question 16Air Law and Regulatory Framework

A crew member on an international flight commits an offence on board an aircraft registered in State A while the aircraft is in the territory of State B. Under the Tokyo Convention, which State has primary jurisdiction to exercise criminal jurisdiction?

  1. The State that issued the pilot's licence
  2. The State of nationality of the victim only
  3. The State where the flight is scheduled to terminate
  4. The State of registration of the aircraft Correct answer.

Explanation

The Tokyo Convention recognises the jurisdiction of the State of registration over offences committed on board, while preserving the jurisdiction of other States in certain circumstances. The other States listed do not hold primary jurisdiction merely by reason of the victim's nationality, destination or licensing.

Question 17Air Law and Regulatory Framework

What is the principal purpose of the Warsaw Convention and its later Montreal revisions in international aviation law?

  1. To establish uniform rules on the liability of air carriers for death, injury, delay and baggage damage Correct answer.
  2. To regulate the licensing of air traffic controllers
  3. To govern customs procedures at airports
  4. To set technical standards for aircraft engines

Explanation

The Warsaw system and the Montreal Convention unify the rules governing carrier liability for passengers, baggage and cargo in international carriage. Licensing, engine standards and customs matters are addressed by other ICAO annexes and national law.

Question 18Air Law and Regulatory Framework

Which of the following is a fundamental principle of the ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices system?

  1. Recommended Practices are legally binding on all operators
  2. States may ignore Standards without any notification
  3. States may file differences, but the objective is worldwide uniformity to the greatest practicable extent Correct answer.
  4. ICAO inspects every aircraft annually

Explanation

The ICAO system seeks the highest practicable degree of uniformity in regulations and procedures, while allowing States to notify differences where compliance is impracticable. Ignoring Standards without notification undermines the system, and ICAO does not conduct routine annual aircraft inspections.

Question 19Air Law and Regulatory Framework

What is the role of the State of Registry in relation to an aircraft's nationality?

  1. It issues visas to passengers on board
  2. It approves the aircraft's commercial fares
  3. It confers nationality on the aircraft and is responsible for its regulatory oversight Correct answer.
  4. It merely records the aircraft's route for statistical purposes

Explanation

An aircraft has the nationality of the State in which it is registered, and that State is responsible for ensuring the aircraft meets applicable standards. Route statistics, fare approval and passenger visas are unrelated to nationality of the aircraft.

Question 20Air Law and Regulatory Framework

An operator intends to conduct a scheduled international air service between two States. What is generally required under the Chicago Convention?

  1. Permission from the ICAO Council alone
  2. Permission from the aircraft manufacturer
  3. Special permission from each State concerned, typically through a bilateral air service agreement Correct answer.
  4. No permission at all, because scheduled services are covered by Article 5

Explanation

Article 6 provides that no scheduled international air service may operate over or into the territory of a contracting State without special permission, which is normally arranged through bilateral agreements. Article 5 applies to non-scheduled flights, and neither ICAO nor manufacturers grant operating permission.

Question 21Air Law and Regulatory Framework

A State discovers that a foreign aircraft over its territory is not carrying a valid certificate of registration. What may the State do under the Convention?

  1. It may ignore the deficiency because foreign documents are not its concern
  2. It may refuse to allow the aircraft to continue unless the deficiency is resolved Correct answer.
  3. It may issue a new registration certificate for the aircraft
  4. It may confiscate the aircraft permanently without any legal process

Explanation

States are entitled to ensure that aircraft operating in their territory comply with the required documents, and may refuse continuation of the flight until the matter is resolved. Permanent confiscation without legal process is not authorised, and a State cannot register an aircraft already registered elsewhere.

Question 22Air Law and Regulatory Framework

Which of the following statements about the ICAO Universal Safety Oversight Audit Programme is correct?

  1. It is a voluntary programme with no reporting
  2. It certifies individual pilots for international flights
  3. It assesses a State's capability to provide safety oversight rather than auditing individual operators directly Correct answer.
  4. It replaces national airworthiness authorities

Explanation

The Universal Safety Oversight Audit Programme evaluates whether States have the necessary legislation, organisation and resources to perform safety oversight functions. It does not license individual pilots, replace national authorities, or operate without reporting, since audit results are published.

Question 23Air Law and Regulatory Framework

What does an Air Operator Certificate issued by a State signify?

  1. That the operator's aircraft are exempt from airworthiness requirements
  2. That the operator is authorised to conduct specified commercial air transport operations Correct answer.
  3. That the operator may fly into any State without permission
  4. That the operator's pilots no longer require individual licences

Explanation

An Air Operator Certificate authorises an operator to perform specified commercial air transport operations in accordance with the conditions attached to it. It does not exempt aircraft from airworthiness rules, grant overflight rights, or remove the need for individual crew licensing.

Question 24Air Law and Regulatory Framework

Under the Chicago Convention, how are disputes between contracting States concerning the interpretation of the Convention to be resolved if negotiations fail?

  1. By referral to the aircraft manufacturer's home State
  2. By decision of the Council, with appeal to an ad hoc arbitral tribunal or the International Court of Justice Correct answer.
  3. By automatic suspension of the Convention for both States
  4. By unilateral action of the stronger State

Explanation

Article 84 provides that disputes not settled by negotiation are decided by the Council, and a State may appeal the decision to an ad hoc tribunal agreed by the parties or to the International Court of Justice. Unilateral action and automatic suspension are not the prescribed mechanisms.

Question 25Air Law and Regulatory Framework

Which of the following is an obligation of a contracting State under Article 12 of the Chicago Convention regarding rules of the air?

  1. To allow each airline to set its own rules of the air
  2. To delegate rule-making to the aircraft operator
  3. To apply its rules only to aircraft of foreign registry
  4. To keep its own rules of the air as uniform as possible with those established under the Convention Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 12 requires each contracting State to adopt measures to ensure that aircraft within its territory comply with the rules of the air in force there, and to keep those rules as uniform as possible with those established under the Convention. Airlines and operators do not set rules of the air, and the rules apply to all aircraft.

Question 26Air Law and Regulatory Framework

Under the Chicago Convention, what is the effect of an aircraft being registered in a contracting State?

  1. The aircraft acquires the nationality of the State of registry. Correct answer.
  2. The aircraft becomes subject to the jurisdiction of the State of departure.
  3. The aircraft must display the nationality mark of the State of the operator.
  4. The aircraft is automatically authorized to operate commercial services worldwide.

Explanation

Article 17 of the Chicago Convention establishes that aircraft have the nationality of the State in which they are registered. This nationality determines the legal status of the aircraft and is fundamental to the application of the Convention, including jurisdiction and airworthiness oversight. Registration cannot be transferred without proper procedures, and an aircraft cannot be validly registered in more than one State.

Question 27Air Law and Regulatory Framework

A contracting State decides to adopt a rule that differs from an international Standard in Annex 2 to the Chicago Convention. What is the State required to do?

  1. Immediately suspend all flights to and from its territory until the Standard is complied with.
  2. Request prior approval from the ICAO Council before applying the different rule.
  3. Apply to the International Court of Justice for an exemption from the Standard.
  4. Notify ICAO of the difference and publish it in its own aeronautical information publications. Correct answer.

Explanation

Under Article 38 of the Chicago Convention, if a State finds it impracticable to comply with an international Standard, it must notify ICAO of the difference without delay. The State is also expected to publish the difference in its aeronautical information publications so that other States and operators are aware. This transparency mechanism allows States to maintain safety while acknowledging deviations from the global framework.

Question 28Air Law and Regulatory Framework

What is the primary function of the ICAO Council in relation to the adoption of Annexes to the Chicago Convention?

  1. It amends the Chicago Convention itself without any State ratification.
  2. It delegates the adoption of all technical annexes to the United Nations Security Council.
  3. It adopts Standards and Recommended Practices and designates them as annexes, subject to disapproval by contracting States. Correct answer.
  4. It directly enforces compliance with Annexes through binding court orders.

Explanation

The ICAO Council, acting under Article 54 of the Chicago Convention, adopts international Standards and Recommended Practices and designates them as annexes. Adoption is subject to a process where contracting States may disapprove, ensuring that the annexes reflect international consensus. The Council does not have direct enforcement power; compliance relies on State implementation and notification of differences.

Question 29Air Law and Regulatory Framework

Which document is a pilot required to carry on board an aircraft engaged in international navigation under the Chicago Convention?

  1. The aircraft's certificate of registration. Correct answer.
  2. The aircraft's maintenance schedule.
  3. The pilot's personal logbook.
  4. The operator's marketing agreements.

Explanation

Article 29 of the Chicago Convention lists the documents that must be carried on board an aircraft engaged in international navigation, including the certificate of registration, certificate of airworthiness, crew licences, journey log book, and cargo manifest. The certificate of registration is essential to establish the aircraft's nationality and must be kept on board. Other listed documents serve operational and customs purposes.

Question 30Air Law and Regulatory Framework

A contracting State finds that a foreign aircraft operating over its territory is not carrying a valid certificate of airworthiness. What action is the State entitled to take under the Chicago Convention?

  1. It may require the aircraft to land and may detain it until it is fit to continue the flight. Correct answer.
  2. It must allow the aircraft to continue without any inspection or condition.
  3. It must immediately confiscate the aircraft and sell it to recover costs.
  4. It may only report the matter to ICAO and take no direct action.

Explanation

Under Article 32(a) and related provisions, the State of registry is responsible for issuing or validating the certificate of airworthiness, but a State where an aircraft is operated may verify compliance. If a foreign aircraft does not carry a valid certificate, the State may require it to land and detain it until it is fit to proceed, in the interest of safety. This power is consistent with the State's sovereignty over its airspace and its obligation to ensure safe operations.

Question 31Aircraft General Knowledge

Which component of a turbojet engine raises the pressure of the incoming air before it enters the combustion chamber?

  1. The compressor Correct answer.
  2. The exhaust nozzle
  3. The accessory gearbox
  4. The turbine

Explanation

The compressor's function is to take in low-pressure air and deliver it to the combustion section at a much higher pressure, using rotating blades that convert shaft power into pressure rise. The turbine sits downstream and extracts energy, so it does not raise intake air pressure.

Question 32Aircraft General Knowledge

In a gas turbine engine, in which section does fuel burn to raise the total energy of the gas stream?

  1. The diffuser
  2. The inlet duct
  3. The combustion chamber Correct answer.
  4. The turbine

Explanation

Fuel is injected and burned in the combustion chamber, where chemical energy is released as heat, raising the temperature and total energy of the gas before it reaches the turbine. The other sections either slow, expand or extract energy from the flow.

Question 33Aircraft General Knowledge

What is the primary purpose of the turbine in a turbofan engine?

  1. To straighten the exhaust flow for thrust
  2. To compress the bypass air
  3. To extract energy from the exhaust gas to drive the compressor and fan Correct answer.
  4. To cool the combustion liner

Explanation

The turbine converts the thermal and pressure energy of the combustion gases into shaft power, which is used to drive the compressor and, through the low-pressure shaft, the fan. It is the component that powers the rest of the engine rather than producing thrust directly.

Question 34Aircraft General Knowledge

What is the main advantage of a turbofan over a pure turbojet for subsonic transport aircraft?

  1. Greater thrust per unit of frontal area
  2. Higher exhaust velocity and better supersonic performance
  3. Lower fuel consumption through higher propulsive efficiency Correct answer.
  4. Simpler construction with fewer stages

Explanation

A turbofan accelerates a larger mass of air to a lower velocity, which improves propulsive efficiency at subsonic speeds and reduces specific fuel consumption. Turbojets accelerate a smaller mass to a much higher velocity, which is efficient only at high Mach numbers.

Question 35Aircraft General Knowledge

In a high-bypass turbofan, what does the bypass ratio describe?

  1. The ratio of exhaust nozzle area to inlet area
  2. The mass flow of bypass air divided by the mass flow through the core Correct answer.
  3. The ratio of turbine inlet temperature to compressor outlet temperature
  4. The ratio of fan pressure to compressor pressure

Explanation

Bypass ratio is the mass flow of air passing through the bypass duct divided by the mass flow passing through the engine core. High-bypass engines move most of their air around the core, which improves efficiency and reduces noise.

Question 36Aircraft General Knowledge

What happens to air pressure and velocity as it passes through a divergent (expanding) subsonic diffuser?

  1. Both pressure and velocity rise
  2. Pressure rises and velocity decreases Correct answer.
  3. Pressure falls and velocity rises
  4. Both pressure and velocity fall

Explanation

In a divergent duct at subsonic speed, the flow slows down and the kinetic energy is converted into static pressure, so pressure rises while velocity falls. This is the principle used by the inlet diffuser ahead of the compressor.

Question 37Aircraft General Knowledge

Why is a convergent-divergent nozzle used on some high-performance jet engines?

  1. To reduce noise on approach
  2. To increase the bypass ratio
  3. To cool the exhaust gases before release
  4. To accelerate the exhaust gases to supersonic speed Correct answer.

Explanation

A convergent-divergent nozzle allows the exhaust flow to expand and accelerate beyond the speed of sound, increasing thrust when the pressure ratio is high enough. The convergent section accelerates the flow to sonic speed at the throat and the divergent section continues the expansion.

Question 38Aircraft General Knowledge

Which statement correctly describes the function of the fan in a high-bypass turbofan?

  1. It compresses only core air for combustion
  2. It accelerates a large mass of air, most of which bypasses the core Correct answer.
  3. It mixes fuel with air before combustion
  4. It drives the high-pressure compressor through a gearbox

Explanation

The fan is a large-diameter compressor stage that accelerates a large mass flow, most of which passes through the bypass duct to produce the majority of the thrust. Only a fraction of the fan air enters the core for combustion.

Question 39Aircraft General Knowledge

What is the purpose of variable inlet guide vanes at the front of an axial compressor?

  1. To cool the compressor casing
  2. To remove foreign objects from the airstream
  3. To direct airflow onto the first rotor stage at an efficient angle across the operating range Correct answer.
  4. To measure the mass airflow entering the engine

Explanation

Variable inlet guide vanes change their angle to present the airflow to the first rotor stage at an appropriate incidence, which helps prevent compressor stall and surge at low speeds and during acceleration. They do not measure, filter or cool the flow.

Question 40Aircraft General Knowledge

What does compressor surge describe?

  1. A gradual loss of compressor efficiency at altitude
  2. A complete breakdown of flow through the compressor with reverse flow and loud bangs Correct answer.
  3. A slow rise in turbine inlet temperature
  4. A vibration caused by an unbalanced rotor

Explanation

Surge is a severe instability in which the compressor can no longer sustain the pressure ratio, the flow breaks down and reverses momentarily, producing loud bangs and large thrust fluctuations. It differs from rotating stall, which is a localized disruption of flow in some blade passages.

Question 41Aircraft General Knowledge

What is the function of bleed air taken from the compressor?

  1. To drive the low-pressure turbine
  2. To supply cabin pressurization, anti-icing and engine starting Correct answer.
  3. To cool the combustion chamber liner only
  4. To increase engine thrust directly

Explanation

Compressor bleed air is used for several aircraft systems, including cabin pressurization and air conditioning, wing and engine anti-icing, and starting the engine. It is a by-product of compression that serves the aircraft rather than adding thrust.

Question 42Aircraft General Knowledge

Which material property is most important for turbine blades operating at high temperature?

  1. High thermal conductivity
  2. Low density only
  3. High electrical resistivity
  4. Creep resistance at elevated temperature Correct answer.

Explanation

Turbine blades operate under high centrifugal loads at very high temperatures, so resistance to creep, along with oxidation resistance, is critical. Nickel superalloys and single-crystal casting are used to provide this capability.

Question 43Aircraft General Knowledge

What is the purpose of film cooling holes on turbine blades?

  1. To create a protective layer of cooler air over the blade surface Correct answer.
  2. To increase the blade tip clearance
  3. To reduce blade weight
  4. To balance the rotor

Explanation

Cooling air bled from the compressor is passed through internal passages and out through small holes to form a thin film of cooler air over the blade surface, protecting the metal from the hot gas stream. This allows the engine to run at higher turbine temperatures.

Question 44Aircraft General Knowledge

What does the term specific fuel consumption describe?

  1. Total fuel capacity divided by range
  2. Fuel mass flow per unit of thrust produced Correct answer.
  3. Fuel pressure at the injectors
  4. Fuel burned per passenger seat

Explanation

Specific fuel consumption is the rate of fuel use divided by the thrust or power produced, so it measures how efficiently the engine converts fuel into useful output. Lower values indicate a more efficient engine.

Question 45Aircraft General Knowledge

As altitude increases at a constant indicated airspeed, how does true airspeed change?

  1. It remains constant
  2. It increases only above the tropopause
  3. It increases because the air density is lower Correct answer.
  4. It decreases because the air is thinner

Explanation

True airspeed increases with altitude for a given indicated airspeed because the lower air density reduces the dynamic pressure for the same true speed. The aircraft must move faster through the thinner air to produce the same indicated reading.

Question 46Aircraft General Knowledge

What is the purpose of a thrust reverser on a transport aircraft?

  1. To reduce engine noise on approach
  2. To redirect fan or exhaust flow forward to aid deceleration after landing Correct answer.
  3. To provide additional thrust for takeoff
  4. To increase the bypass ratio

Explanation

A thrust reverser redirects the fan or exhaust flow in a forward direction so that the reaction force opposes the aircraft's motion, helping to slow it after touchdown and reducing brake wear. It is not used for takeoff thrust.

Question 47Aircraft General Knowledge

How is a gas turbine engine typically started?

  1. By opening the thrust reversers
  2. By increasing bypass flow
  3. By igniting fuel in the exhaust nozzle
  4. By rotating the compressor with an air turbine or electric starter until self-sustaining speed Correct answer.

Explanation

Starting requires the compressor to be rotated up to a speed where sufficient airflow and pressure allow fuel to be introduced and ignition to occur, after which the engine accelerates to idle and becomes self-sustaining. Air-turbine or electric starters provide this initial rotation.

Question 48Aircraft General Knowledge

What is the function of the accessory gearbox on a jet engine?

  1. To reduce exhaust noise
  2. To compress bypass air
  3. To drive engine and aircraft accessories such as pumps and generators Correct answer.
  4. To control the nozzle area

Explanation

The accessory gearbox takes power from the engine shaft and distributes it to accessories such as fuel pumps, oil pumps, hydraulic pumps and electrical generators. It is a mechanical transmission, not an aerodynamic component.

Question 49Aircraft General Knowledge

What does the term 'engine pressure ratio' (EPR) measure?

  1. The ratio of fuel pressure to oil pressure
  2. The ratio of compressor delivery pressure to compressor inlet pressure Correct answer.
  3. The ratio of turbine outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure
  4. The ratio of bypass duct pressure to ambient pressure

Explanation

Engine pressure ratio is the ratio of the total pressure at the compressor delivery (or turbine inlet) to the total pressure at the compressor inlet. It is used as a thrust-setting parameter because it closely reflects the thrust produced.

Question 50Aircraft General Knowledge

What is the main consequence of a compressor blade tip rubbing against the casing?

  1. Increased efficiency and reduced fuel burn
  2. An increase in bypass ratio
  3. Loss of tip clearance, causing performance loss and possible blade damage Correct answer.
  4. A reduction in engine noise

Explanation

Excessive tip clearance allows air to leak past the blade tips, reducing efficiency and pressure rise, while actual rubbing can damage blades and the casing. Maintaining the correct clearance is therefore important for both performance and structural integrity.