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ANAC Private Pilot Airplane (PPA) study materials
ANAC Private Pilot Airplane (PPA) study resources

ANAC Private Pilot Airplane (PPA) (ANAC) practice questions

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First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

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Question 1Air Law and ATC Procedures

Under ANAC regulations, what is the minimum age to hold a private pilot airplane licence in Brazil?

  1. 18 years Correct answer.
  2. 16 years
  3. 17 years
  4. 21 years

Explanation

ANAC requires an applicant for a private pilot licence to be at least 18 years old at the time the licence is issued. A student pilot certificate may be obtained earlier, but the private licence itself requires the age of majority. This threshold also aligns with the general requirement for issuing licences to adults.

Question 2Air Law and ATC Procedures

Which document must a pilot carry on board during a flight to demonstrate that the aircraft is airworthy?

  1. The maintenance logbook
  2. The pilot's medical certificate
  3. The aircraft operating manual
  4. The certificate of airworthiness Correct answer.

Explanation

The certificate of airworthiness is the document that attests the aircraft meets the applicable airworthiness requirements and is valid for flight. It must be carried on board and presented when requested by an authority. The maintenance logbook and manuals stay with the operator but are not the airworthiness certificate itself.

Question 3Air Law and ATC Procedures

During a flight, who has final authority over the operation of the aircraft?

  1. The aircraft owner
  2. The air traffic controller
  3. The flight dispatcher
  4. The pilot in command Correct answer.

Explanation

The pilot in command is responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft and has final authority over decisions affecting the flight. ATC provides clearances and instructions, but the PIC retains ultimate responsibility, including the duty to advise ATC when unable to comply. Ownership and dispatch roles do not override this authority.

Question 4Air Law and ATC Procedures

What does a steady red light signal directed at an aircraft in flight mean?

  1. Return to the starting point on the aerodrome
  2. Give way and continue circling Correct answer.
  3. Cleared to land
  4. Airport unsafe, do not land

Explanation

A steady red light directed at an aircraft in flight means the aircraft must give way and continue circling. It does not authorize landing and does not order a return to the apron. Pilots must acknowledge light signals and comply with the meaning associated with their phase of flight.

Question 5Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft on the ground receives a flashing white light signal from the tower. What action should the pilot take?

  1. Taxi clear of the runway in use
  2. Stop immediately
  3. Return to the starting point on the aerodrome Correct answer.
  4. Continue taxiing on the assigned route

Explanation

For aircraft on the ground, a flashing white light means return to the starting point on the aerodrome. It is distinct from other signals such as flashing red, which means taxi clear of the runway in use. The pilot should acknowledge and follow the instruction.

Question 6Air Law and ATC Procedures

When must a pilot file a flight plan in controlled airspace under ANAC rules?

  1. Only when crossing international borders
  2. Only when flying above 10,000 feet
  3. For all flights in controlled airspace, as required by the applicable rules Correct answer.
  4. Only when flying under IFR

Explanation

Flight plans are required for operations in controlled airspace in accordance with the applicable ANAC and ATC rules, not only for high-altitude or international flights. The requirement ensures separation and search-and-rescue coordination. VFR flights in controlled airspace may also require a flight plan depending on the airspace class.

Question 7Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the standard semicircular cruising altitude rule for VFR flights on a magnetic track between 000 and 179 degrees?

  1. Even thousands only
  2. Odd thousands only
  3. Even thousands plus 500 feet
  4. Odd thousands plus 500 feet Correct answer.

Explanation

For tracks from 000 to 179 degrees, the semicircular rule assigns odd thousands plus 500 feet for VFR flights. Tracks from 180 to 359 degrees use even thousands plus 500 feet. The rule provides vertical separation between aircraft flying in opposite directions.

Question 8Air Law and ATC Procedures

In which class of airspace does a VFR flight require an ATC clearance?

  1. Class G
  2. Class F
  3. Class E
  4. Class C Correct answer.

Explanation

Class C airspace requires an ATC clearance for VFR flights, along with two-way radio communication and a transponder. Class E generally requires only radio communication and a transponder where mandated, while Class G is uncontrolled. Class F is special-use airspace with advisory service.

Question 9Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the minimum visibility for a VFR flight in Class G airspace below 900 meters during the day?

  1. 5,000 meters
  2. 1,500 meters Correct answer.
  3. 8,000 meters
  4. 3,000 meters

Explanation

In Class G airspace below 900 meters during the day, the minimum flight visibility for VFR is 1,500 meters, with the aircraft clear of clouds. This lower minimum reflects the uncontrolled nature of the airspace. Higher visibility minima apply at greater altitudes and at night.

Question 10Air Law and ATC Procedures

What does the term 'ceiling' mean in aviation weather reports?

  1. The top of the controlled airspace
  2. The height of the lowest broken or overcast layer Correct answer.
  3. The altitude of the tropopause
  4. The highest cloud layer in the sky

Explanation

The ceiling is the height of the lowest layer of clouds reported as broken or overcast, or the vertical visibility into an obscuration. It is a key element in determining VFR conditions. Higher or scattered layers do not constitute a ceiling.

Question 11Air Law and ATC Procedures

A METAR reports 'BKN008'. What does this indicate?

  1. Scattered clouds at 800 feet
  2. Overcast clouds at 800 feet
  3. Clear sky at 800 feet
  4. Broken clouds at 800 feet Correct answer.

Explanation

The code BKN means broken cloud cover, and the three digits give the height in hundreds of feet above the aerodrome, so BKN008 means broken clouds at 800 feet. Broken or overcast layers define the ceiling. Scattered and overcast have different codes.

Question 12Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the purpose of a NOTAM?

  1. To publish airline schedules
  2. To announce permanent changes to aeronautical charts
  3. To give timely notice of temporary changes or hazards affecting flight operations Correct answer.
  4. To record the pilot's flight hours

Explanation

A NOTAM provides timely information on temporary changes or hazards that could affect flight safety, such as closed runways, unserviceable navigation aids, or airspace restrictions. It is not used for permanent chart changes or administrative records. Pilots must check NOTAMs during preflight planning.

Question 13Air Law and ATC Procedures

What does a pilot do upon receiving a clearance that cannot be complied with?

  1. Comply immediately regardless of safety
  2. Squawk 7600 and land at the nearest aerodrome
  3. Ignore the clearance and continue the flight
  4. Advise ATC and request an amended clearance Correct answer.

Explanation

If a clearance cannot be accepted or complied with, the pilot must advise ATC promptly and request an amended clearance. The pilot in command retains final authority and must not accept a clearance that compromises safety. Ignoring the clearance without notification is unsafe.

Question 14Air Law and ATC Procedures

What does the transponder code 7700 signify?

  1. Loss of navigation capability
  2. General emergency Correct answer.
  3. Unlawful interference
  4. Radio communication failure

Explanation

Code 7700 is the general emergency code, used to alert ATC that the aircraft is in distress. Code 7600 indicates radio failure, and 7500 indicates unlawful interference. Selecting the correct code helps ATC provide priority assistance.

Question 15Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the required action when an aircraft experiences two-way radio communication failure in VFR conditions?

  1. Continue under VFR, land as soon as practicable, and report to ATC Correct answer.
  2. Climb to the highest available altitude and hold
  3. Land immediately at the nearest aerodrome
  4. Squawk 7500 and await interception

Explanation

In VFR conditions with a radio failure, the pilot should continue under VFR, land as soon as practicable, and notify ATC of the arrival. This maintains safety while re-establishing communication. Squawking 7600 may also be used to alert ATC.

Question 16Air Law and ATC Procedures

Which of the following is a responsibility of the pilot in command regarding preflight action?

  1. Delegating all preflight checks to a passenger
  2. Skipping the preflight inspection if the aircraft flew recently
  3. Relying solely on ATC for weather information
  4. Reviewing weather, fuel, and aircraft performance before flight Correct answer.

Explanation

Before flight, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning the flight, including weather, fuel requirements, and aircraft performance. This preflight action is a regulatory duty. Delegating it to a passenger or relying only on ATC is not acceptable.

Question 17Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the meaning of the term 'controlled flight into terrain' (CFIT)?

  1. An engine failure during takeoff
  2. A runway excursion on landing
  3. An aircraft colliding with terrain while under control of the crew Correct answer.
  4. A mid-air collision between two aircraft

Explanation

CFIT describes an accident in which an airworthy aircraft, under crew control, is flown unintentionally into terrain, water, or an obstacle. It is often linked to loss of situational awareness rather than mechanical failure. Training and terrain awareness systems are used to prevent it.

Question 18Air Law and ATC Procedures

Which action is required before entering Class D airspace?

  1. Squawk code 1200
  2. File an IFR flight plan
  3. Establish two-way radio communication with the tower Correct answer.
  4. Obtain an ATC clearance

Explanation

Class D airspace requires the pilot to establish two-way radio communication with the control tower before entry, but an explicit clearance is not required. The tower must acknowledge the aircraft. Class D typically surrounds aerodromes with an operating control tower.

Question 19Air Law and ATC Procedures

What does the abbreviation 'ATIS' stand for?

  1. Approach Terminal Instrument Service
  2. Aerodrome Traffic Information Sheet
  3. Air Traffic Instruction System
  4. Automatic Terminal Information Service Correct answer.

Explanation

ATIS stands for Automatic Terminal Information Service, a continuous broadcast of recorded non-control information such as weather and active runway. Pilots listen to it before contacting ATC to reduce frequency congestion. The information is updated as conditions change.

Question 20Air Law and ATC Procedures

A pilot flying VFR at night in Class G airspace must meet which minimum visibility requirement?

  1. 1,500 meters
  2. 8,000 meters
  3. 3,000 meters
  4. 5,000 meters Correct answer.

Explanation

At night in Class G airspace, the VFR minimum flight visibility is 5,000 meters, along with cloud clearance requirements. The higher minimum compensates for reduced visual references at night. Daytime minima are lower.

Question 21Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

In a typical light training airplane, what is the primary function of the horizontal stabilizer?

  1. It houses the main fuel tanks and provides wing bending relief.
  2. It counteracts adverse yaw when the ailerons are deflected.
  3. It provides longitudinal (pitch) stability and carries the tail-down balancing load. Correct answer.
  4. It generates most of the lift needed to support the airplane in cruise flight.

Explanation

The horizontal stabilizer is a small horizontal surface at the tail that resists pitching disturbances and, in most conventional designs, produces a downward aerodynamic force to balance the nose-down pitching moment of the wing. This gives longitudinal static stability and trim capability. It does not carry the airplane's weight or control yaw.

Question 22Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

A four-stroke reciprocating engine completes one full power cycle in how many revolutions of the crankshaft?

  1. Four
  2. Eight
  3. Two Correct answer.
  4. One

Explanation

The four strokes are intake, compression, power, and exhaust, and each stroke corresponds to one half revolution of the crankshaft. The complete cycle therefore requires two crankshaft revolutions, with the power stroke occurring only once every two turns.

Question 23Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the purpose of the magneto in an aircraft ignition system?

  1. It advances the fuel-air mixture into the cylinders.
  2. It generates its own high voltage and needs no external electrical source. Correct answer.
  3. It regulates the charging rate of the battery from the alternator.
  4. It steps battery voltage up to a high value for the spark plugs.

Explanation

A magneto is a self-contained generator that uses a rotating magnet to induce a high-voltage pulse in the secondary coil, which fires the spark plugs. Because it produces its own electricity, the engine keeps running even if the airplane's electrical system fails. This independence is why magnetos are used instead of battery-powered coils.

Question 24Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

During a preflight inspection, the pilot notices the alternator warning light stays on after engine start. What is the most immediate concern?

  1. The landing gear will not retract on takeoff.
  2. The fuel pumps will overheat from excessive current.
  3. The battery may not be receiving a charge and could eventually go flat. Correct answer.
  4. The engine will stop immediately because the magnetos depend on the alternator.

Explanation

An illuminated alternator warning light indicates the charging system is not supplying current, so the battery is carrying the electrical load and will discharge over time. The engine continues to run because ignition is independent of the alternator. The pilot should reduce electrical load and land to investigate before the battery is depleted.

Question 25Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

Which statement correctly describes the function of the rudder?

  1. It controls movement about the center of gravity in roll only.
  2. It controls movement about the longitudinal axis.
  3. It controls movement about the lateral axis.
  4. It controls movement about the vertical (normal) axis. Correct answer.

Explanation

The rudder is the movable surface on the vertical stabilizer, and its deflection produces yaw, which is rotation about the vertical axis. Roll about the longitudinal axis is controlled by the ailerons, and pitch about the lateral axis is controlled by the elevator. Each axis has its own primary control surface.

Question 26Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the primary purpose of engine oil in an aircraft reciprocating engine?

  1. It cools, lubricates, cleans, and helps seal the combustion chamber. Correct answer.
  2. It pressurizes the cabin for high-altitude flight.
  3. It generates the spark that ignites the mixture.
  4. It provides the fuel for combustion inside the cylinder.

Explanation

Oil performs several jobs at once: it lubricates moving parts to reduce friction and wear, carries heat away from hot components, holds contaminants in suspension, and helps seal the gap between pistons and cylinder walls. These combined functions are why oil pressure and temperature are monitored in flight.

Question 27Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

In a fixed-pitch propeller, what happens to engine RPM when the throttle is opened in level flight?

  1. RPM stays exactly constant regardless of throttle position.
  2. RPM increases only if the mixture is leaned.
  3. RPM increases because the engine produces more power. Correct answer.
  4. RPM decreases because the propeller bites more air.

Explanation

With a fixed-pitch propeller, blade angle cannot change, so the only way the propeller can absorb more power is by turning faster. Opening the throttle increases engine power, and RPM rises until the propeller load again balances the engine output. This direct relationship is why RPM is a useful power indication in such airplanes.

Question 28Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the main advantage of a constant-speed propeller over a fixed-pitch propeller?

  1. It keeps the engine at an efficient RPM while blade angle changes to absorb power. Correct answer.
  2. It eliminates the need for a throttle.
  3. It requires no oil supply for its operation.
  4. It removes all torque effect on takeoff.

Explanation

A constant-speed propeller changes blade angle through a governor so the engine can hold a selected RPM while power varies. This lets the engine operate near its most efficient RPM in climb and cruise, improving performance and reducing pilot workload. The throttle still controls power, and blade angle is adjusted automatically.

Question 29Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

During a runup magneto check, the engine RPM drops 150 RPM when switching from BOTH to the left magneto, but drops only 50 RPM on the right magneto. What does this most likely indicate?

  1. The right magneto is producing weak spark and needs maintenance. Correct answer.
  2. The propeller is out of balance.
  3. The engine is running too lean at idle.
  4. The left magneto is producing weak spark and needs maintenance.

Explanation

The larger RPM drop occurs on the magneto that is weaker, because the engine must run on the remaining magneto alone. A drop of 150 RPM on the left position means the engine lost more power when the right magneto was grounded out, implying the right magneto was contributing less. Excessive drop on either position warrants maintenance before flight.

Question 30Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the function of the voltage regulator in an airplane electrical system?

  1. It converts alternating current to direct current.
  2. It disconnects the battery during engine start.
  3. It limits alternator output voltage to protect the battery and equipment. Correct answer.
  4. It stores electrical energy for emergency use.

Explanation

The voltage regulator controls the field current to the alternator so output voltage stays within a safe range, typically around 14 volts in a 12-volt system. Without regulation, voltage could rise high enough to damage avionics and overcharge the battery. Rectification and energy storage are separate functions.

Question 31Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

Why must the fuel selector be placed on the fullest tank before takeoff in many light airplanes?

  1. To prime the engine automatically.
  2. To reduce the weight of the airplane.
  3. To increase the octane rating of the fuel.
  4. To ensure an uninterrupted fuel supply and minimize the risk of running a tank dry. Correct answer.

Explanation

Selecting the fullest tank before takeoff gives the longest available fuel supply during the critical climb phase and reduces the chance of fuel starvation from an unexpectedly low tank. It also confirms the selector is on a tank that is known to feed properly. Fuel quantity and grade are unaffected by selector position.

Question 32Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the purpose of the carburetor heat control?

  1. It enriches the mixture at high altitude.
  2. It warms the fuel to increase its octane rating.
  3. It supplies heated air to the carburetor to prevent or clear ice. Correct answer.
  4. It cools the engine cylinders during climb.

Explanation

Carburetor heat routes air through a shroud around the exhaust or a heat muff so warmed air enters the carburetor. This raises the temperature in the venturi and throttle area, preventing or melting ice that can form from fuel vaporization and pressure drop. Applying heat typically causes a slight power loss because warm air is less dense.

Question 33Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

An airplane is climbing at a constant airspeed when the pilot notices oil temperature rising above the normal green arc. Which action is most appropriate?

  1. Turn off the alternator to reduce electrical load.
  2. Increase airspeed and reduce climb power to improve cooling. Correct answer.
  3. Enrich the mixture to cool the oil directly.
  4. Reduce airspeed to decrease airflow over the engine.

Explanation

High oil temperature usually reflects inadequate cooling, so increasing airspeed improves airflow through the cowling and reducing power lowers heat input. Together these actions help bring temperature back into the normal range while the pilot plans to land if it persists. Ignoring or worsening the condition risks engine damage.

Question 34Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What does the green arc on an airspeed indicator generally represent?

  1. The flap operating speed range.
  2. The never-exceed speed range.
  3. The stall speed range.
  4. The normal operating speed range. Correct answer.

Explanation

The green arc marks the normal operating range, from the power-off stall speed at the low end to the maximum structural cruising speed at the high end. The yellow arc beyond it is for smooth air only, and the red line is the never-exceed speed. These markings help the pilot stay within safe structural limits.

Question 35Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

How does the vertical speed indicator (VSI) respond immediately after a climb is started?

  1. It initially shows a lag and then settles on the climb rate. Correct answer.
  2. It immediately shows the correct climb rate.
  3. It shows a descent until the static pressure stabilizes.
  4. It shows zero for the entire climb.

Explanation

The VSI measures the rate of change of static pressure, and its internal calibrated leak causes a short lag before it indicates the true rate. The initial indication may briefly overshoot as pressure changes, then settles. This lag is why pilots anticipate a delay when leveling off or starting a climb.

Question 36Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the primary purpose of an aircraft's electrical bus?

  1. It converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
  2. It distributes electrical power from the source to the various circuits. Correct answer.
  3. It stores electrical energy for later use.
  4. It measures current flow in each circuit.

Explanation

The bus is a common distribution point that receives power from the battery and alternator and feeds it to individual circuits through circuit breakers or fuses. This arrangement allows one source to supply many loads and lets protective devices isolate faults. Storage and conversion are performed by other components.

Question 37Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the effect of a partially blocked pitot tube while the airplane climbs with the static port clear?

  1. The vertical speed indicator stops working.
  2. The airspeed indicator reads lower as altitude increases.
  3. The airspeed indicator behaves like an altimeter and reads higher as altitude increases. Correct answer.
  4. The altimeter reads higher than actual altitude.

Explanation

With the pitot tube blocked, pressure trapped in the pitot line stays constant while static pressure decreases in a climb. The airspeed indicator senses an increasing pressure difference, so it indicates a rising airspeed, effectively acting like an altimeter. In a descent, the same blockage would cause the indicator to read low.

Question 38Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

Why is the mixture leaned during cruise at high altitude?

  1. To increase the octane rating of the fuel.
  2. To reduce fuel consumption and restore smooth engine operation as air density decreases. Correct answer.
  3. To increase the propeller blade angle.
  4. To lower the engine oil pressure.

Explanation

As altitude increases, air density falls, so the carburetor delivers a progressively richer mixture than needed. Leaning restores the proper fuel-air ratio, improving fuel economy, engine smoothness, and combustion efficiency. Excessive leaning, however, can cause overheating and detonation.

Question 39Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the function of the exhaust system in a reciprocating engine?

  1. It provides electrical power to the ignition system.
  2. It filters contaminants from the engine oil.
  3. It removes combustion gases and can supply heat for the cabin and carburetor. Correct answer.
  4. It compresses the incoming fuel-air mixture.

Explanation

The exhaust system carries hot combustion gases away from the cylinders and, through a heat exchanger, provides warm air for cabin heat and carburetor heat. Because exhaust gas contains carbon monoxide, leaks are dangerous and are checked during inspection. Compression and oil filtration are separate functions.

Question 40Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

During a preflight, the pilot finds a small amount of clear fluid dripping from the wing trailing edge near a fuel drain. What is the most appropriate response?

  1. Wipe it away and proceed without further check.
  2. Sample the drain and confirm it is fuel, then have the source investigated. Correct answer.
  3. Assume it is hydraulic fluid and add fluid to the reservoir.
  4. Ignore it because clear fluid is always condensation.

Explanation

Clear fluid near a fuel drain could be avgas, which is often colorless, so it should be sampled to identify it and confirm there is no leak. If fuel is present, the source must be found and corrected before flight. Dismissing a possible fuel leak is unsafe.

Question 41Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the primary reason a reciprocating engine is equipped with two independent magnetos?

  1. To reduce the weight of the ignition system.
  2. To provide redundancy and more complete combustion from dual ignition. Correct answer.
  3. To double the engine's maximum power output.
  4. To allow the engine to run on two different fuel grades.

Explanation

Two magnetos provide redundancy so that a single ignition failure does not stop the engine, and their two spark plugs per cylinder give faster, more complete combustion. This improves efficiency and slightly increases power compared with single ignition. The arrangement adds weight rather than reducing it.

Question 42Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

An airplane with a constant-speed propeller is in a descent with the throttle retarded and the propeller control set for high RPM. What is a likely consequence?

  1. The propeller may drive the engine and cause high RPM or overspeed. Correct answer.
  2. The propeller will stop turning entirely.
  3. The manifold pressure will rise above the red line.
  4. The engine will automatically feather the propeller.

Explanation

In a descent, the airspeed and the low throttle setting can cause the propeller to be driven by airflow rather than by engine power. If the governor is set to high RPM, blade angle stays low and the engine can overspeed. Pilots manage this by reducing airspeed or selecting a higher blade angle.

Question 43Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

Why can a fuel-injected engine be harder to start when hot than a carbureted engine?

  1. The magnetos become too hot to produce a spark.
  2. The spark plugs are cooled too much by the rich mixture.
  3. The oil becomes too thin to seal the cylinders.
  4. Fuel in the lines can vaporize and create a vapor lock that interrupts delivery. Correct answer.

Explanation

Heat soak after shutdown can vaporize fuel in the injection lines, forming vapor that blocks liquid fuel flow, a condition known as vapor lock. This makes hot starts difficult until the vapor is purged. Following the manufacturer's hot-start procedure helps restore proper fuel delivery.

Question 44Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the significance of the maximum structural cruising speed (yellow arc upper limit) on the airspeed indicator?

  1. Above this speed, turbulence or abrupt control movement can overstress the airframe. Correct answer.
  2. Above this speed, the landing gear must be extended.
  3. Above this speed, the engine will exceed its RPM limit.
  4. Above this speed, the flaps must be retracted.

Explanation

The upper limit of the green arc is the maximum speed for normal operation in smooth air. Above it, in the yellow arc, the airplane should be flown only in smooth air and with gentle control inputs because gust or maneuver loads can exceed structural limits. The red line marks the absolute never-exceed speed.

Question 45Flight Performance and Planning (Mass and Balance, Performance, Flight Planning)

In mass and balance work, what does the term 'empty weight' of an aircraft normally include?

  1. The airframe and engines only, with all fluids drained
  2. The airframe, engines, crew and usable fuel
  3. The maximum load the aircraft may carry in the cabin
  4. The airframe, engines, fixed equipment, unusable fuel and full engine oil Correct answer.

Explanation

Empty weight is the basic weight of the aircraft plus fixed equipment, unusable fuel and undrainable oil. It excludes crew, passengers, usable fuel and baggage, which are added later to obtain the loaded weight.

Question 46Flight Performance and Planning (Mass and Balance, Performance, Flight Planning)

An aircraft has a maximum takeoff mass of 1,100 kg and an empty mass of 700 kg. What is the useful load?

  1. 1,100 kg
  2. 400 kg Correct answer.
  3. 700 kg
  4. 1,800 kg

Explanation

Useful load is maximum takeoff mass minus empty mass. Here 1,100 kg − 700 kg gives 400 kg available for fuel, occupants and baggage.

Question 47Flight Performance and Planning (Mass and Balance, Performance, Flight Planning)

Why must a pilot check the centre of gravity position as well as the total mass before flight?

  1. Because the centre of gravity changes only when the fuel tanks are full
  2. Because total mass alone does not show whether the aircraft will balance correctly in flight Correct answer.
  3. Because the centre of gravity limit applies only to landing
  4. Because an aft centre of gravity always increases the takeoff distance

Explanation

Even within the mass limit, an out-of-limit centre of gravity can make the aircraft unstable or hard to control. Mass and balance must both be checked, since loading the same total mass in different places gives different balance.

Question 48Flight Performance and Planning (Mass and Balance, Performance, Flight Planning)

A load is moved from the forward baggage area to the rear baggage area. What happens to the centre of gravity?

  1. It moves forward
  2. It moves aft Correct answer.
  3. It moves to the datum
  4. It stays exactly the same

Explanation

Moving mass rearward shifts the centre of gravity in the direction of the move. The total mass is unchanged, so only the balance position changes, and it moves aft.

Question 49Flight Performance and Planning (Mass and Balance, Performance, Flight Planning)

Which item is normally part of the aircraft's basic empty weight rather than its useful load?

  1. Baggage in the cabin
  2. Usable fuel
  3. Pilot and passengers
  4. Unusable fuel Correct answer.

Explanation

Unusable fuel cannot be used in flight and is therefore included in the basic empty weight. Usable fuel, occupants and baggage are all useful load items added by the pilot.

Question 50Flight Performance and Planning (Mass and Balance, Performance, Flight Planning)

What does the datum represent in an aircraft weighing and balance calculation?

  1. The rearmost permitted centre of gravity position
  2. An arbitrary reference plane from which arms are measured Correct answer.
  3. The point at which the aircraft is weighed
  4. The point about which the aircraft rotates on takeoff

Explanation

The datum is an arbitrary vertical reference plane chosen by the manufacturer. All arms are measured horizontally from it, and the sign of the arm shows whether the item is ahead of or behind the datum.