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PEI PMA Grade 3 study materials
PEI PMA Grade 3 study resources

PEI PMA Grade 3 practice questions

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Question 1Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

Which characteristic distinguishes a project from routine business operations in a governed delivery environment?

  1. It is a permanent organisational unit managed through the normal line hierarchy.
  2. It is an ongoing activity repeated each accounting period without a defined end date.
  3. It is a recurring compliance check performed at fixed intervals by the same team.
  4. It is a temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service or result. Correct answer.

Explanation

A project has a definite start and finish and delivers a unique output, which makes it temporary and distinct from ongoing operations. Routine operations are repetitive, continuous and usually managed within the permanent line structure. These two features, temporary duration and unique output, are foundational project fundamentals.

Question 2Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

Which description best reflects the role of the project sponsor in a governed project?

  1. The independent auditor who certifies the project's financial statements each year.
  2. The person who completes the detailed work packages and reports daily progress to the team.
  3. The supplier representative responsible for negotiating contract variations with procurement.
  4. The senior owner of the business case who provides authority, funding and executive support. Correct answer.

Explanation

The sponsor is the senior executive who owns the business case and provides the authority, funding and organisational support needed for the project to proceed. The sponsor also typically chairs or sits on the project board and intervenes when escalation is required. This role is separate from day-to-day delivery and independent audit.

Question 3Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

A project baseline has been approved for scope, schedule and cost. A new regulatory requirement adds significant work. What is the most appropriate project-fundamentals interpretation?

  1. The schedule and cost baselines remain valid because scope changes affect only quality.
  2. The change should be assessed and, if approved through change control, the relevant baselines updated. Correct answer.
  3. The project manager should absorb the work within existing tolerances without informing governance.
  4. The regulatory requirement can be ignored until project closure because baselines are fixed.

Explanation

Approved baselines are controlled reference points, not immutable absolutes. A significant new requirement should be assessed for impact and taken through the authorised change control process, after which affected baselines are updated and communicated. Ignoring or absorbing the change without governance undermines transparency and control.

Question 4Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

A project team member is asked to evaluate supplier bids and has a close family connection to one bidder. What is the most appropriate professional response?

  1. Withdraw quietly without telling anyone so the evaluation timetable is not disrupted.
  2. Continue as an evaluator but avoid discussing the bidder with colleagues.
  3. Declare the conflict to the appropriate authority and step back from evaluating that bidder. Correct answer.
  4. Disclose the connection only if the family member's bid is unsuccessful.

Explanation

Professional ethics require conflicts of interest to be declared promptly so that they can be managed transparently. Stepping back from the affected evaluation protects the integrity of the procurement and the reputation of the project. Quietly continuing or concealing the connection would undermine fairness and could invalidate the selection.

Question 5Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

What is the primary purpose of a stage gate in a project governance framework?

  1. To review progress and evidence against defined criteria before the next stage. Correct answer.
  2. To guarantee that the project will deliver all of its forecast financial and non-financial benefits.
  3. To approve every individual work assignment within the current stage.
  4. To replace the project manager at the end of each reporting period.

Explanation

A stage gate is a governance decision point where progress and evidence are reviewed against pre-agreed criteria. The reviewing body then decides whether to continue, pause, redirect or stop the project. It does not guarantee benefits, replace management or approve every individual task.

Question 6Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

Which group should be treated as project stakeholders?

  1. Only members of the project team who report directly to the project manager and attend daily stand-ups.
  2. Only the people who have signed the project charter.
  3. Only external customers who pay for the final deliverable.
  4. Any individual or group that can affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affected. Correct answer.

Explanation

Stakeholders include anyone who can influence the project, is impacted by it, or perceives an impact on their interests. This broad definition helps the project identify parties who may otherwise be overlooked. Limiting stakeholders to charter signatories, direct reports or paying customers misses important groups.

Question 7Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

When should lessons learned be captured on a project?

  1. Only when a formal complaint has been raised by a stakeholder.
  2. Only at the final closure meeting, once the budget has been fully spent.
  3. Only during the initiation stage before any delivery work begins.
  4. Continuously throughout the life cycle and consolidated at closure. Correct answer.

Explanation

Lessons should be captured as experience is gained so that insights can improve current work and inform other projects. A final consolidation at closure ensures the organisation retains the learning. Waiting only for closure or complaints loses opportunities to correct course earlier.

Question 8Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

A project manager receives commercially sensitive pricing information from a prospective supplier. What does professional ethics require?

  1. Use it only for the authorised evaluation and protect it from unauthorised disclosure. Correct answer.
  2. Keep it only until a cheaper bid is received, then discard it.
  3. Post it on the project collaboration site so that the whole delivery team can compare bids.
  4. Share it with other bidders to encourage more competitive pricing.

Explanation

Confidential supplier information must be used only for the purpose for which it was provided and protected from unauthorised access. Sharing or posting it would breach confidentiality and distort fair competition. Ethical conduct requires respecting both the supplier's commercial trust and the procurement rules.

Question 9Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

In a RACI assignment for a project activity, what does the 'A' role signify?

  1. The single person who ultimately answers for the activity and can approve its outcome. Correct answer.
  2. The people who perform the work and contribute directly to producing the deliverable.
  3. The people who must be consulted for their expertise before a decision but who do not approve it.
  4. The people who are kept informed of progress but who do not decide or perform work.

Explanation

In RACI, 'A' stands for Accountable: the one person who ultimately answers for the activity and has authority to approve its outcome. 'R' is Responsible for doing the work, 'C' is Consulted and 'I' is Informed. A well-formed assignment normally has exactly one accountable person for each activity.

Question 10Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

Why is an approved business case important at project initiation?

  1. It records the justification, expected benefits, costs and risks on which funding is decided. Correct answer.
  2. It replaces the need for any later benefits tracking or post-implementation review.
  3. It lists every detailed work package, activity and resource assignment for the delivery team.
  4. It confirms that all project risks have been eliminated before work starts.

Explanation

The business case explains why the project is worth doing by setting out the justification, expected benefits, costs, risks and strategic alignment. Approval of the case is the basis on which funding and authority are granted. It does not eliminate risks or replace benefits tracking and detailed delivery planning.

Question 11Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

A change request is approved by the authorised change control body. What should happen next?

  1. The change is implemented immediately without updating any project documents.
  2. The change is recorded only if it has no effect on cost or schedule.
  3. The original baselines are retained unchanged so that performance reporting remains stable.
  4. The affected baselines and plans are updated and the change is communicated to stakeholders. Correct answer.

Explanation

Once a change is approved, the affected baselines, plans and records must be updated so that the project is managed against the new approved position. Relevant stakeholders should then be informed so that expectations and reporting stay aligned. Implementing without updating documents creates inconsistency and weakens control.

Question 12Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

What is the main responsibility of a nominated risk owner?

  1. To transfer every identified risk to an insurance provider.
  2. To approve all changes to the project's cost baseline.
  3. To monitor the assigned risk and implement the agreed response. Correct answer.
  4. To audit the project's risk register independently once a year.

Explanation

A risk owner is the person assigned to monitor a specific risk and ensure that the agreed response is carried out. Ownership is about active management, not merely being aware of the risk. Auditing, baseline approval and insurance transfer are separate governance or response activities.

Question 13Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

A project is forecast to exceed its approved cost tolerance. According to good governance, what should the project manager do?

  1. Escalate the forecast to the project board or sponsor with options and a recommendation. Correct answer.
  2. Wait until the final accounts are prepared before mentioning the variance.
  3. Reduce quality checks without approval so that the forecast returns within tolerance.
  4. Reallocate contingency from unrelated projects without seeking authorisation.

Explanation

When a forecast breaches approved tolerances, the project manager should escalate promptly with clear information, options and a recommendation. This allows the governing body to decide whether to approve additional funding, change scope or take another action. Concealing the variance or cutting quality without authority undermines governance and ethics.

Question 14Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

A supplier offers a project manager an expensive personal holiday as a thank-you for a contract award. What is the most ethical response?

  1. Decline it and declare the offer in line with the organisation's gifts and hospitality policy. Correct answer.
  2. Accept it but share the value with team members to avoid personal benefit.
  3. Accept it because the contract has already been awarded and no future decision is involved.
  4. Ask the supplier to provide the same offer to the whole evaluation panel.

Explanation

Expensive personal gifts create an appearance of improper influence and should be declined and declared under the organisation's gifts and hospitality policy. The fact that a contract has been awarded does not remove the risk to future decisions or reputation. Transparency protects both the individual and the organisation.

Question 15Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

Which activity is most typical of a project management office (PMO) in a governed organisation?

  1. Providing standard methods, templates, reporting and assurance support across projects. Correct answer.
  2. Personally completing all delivery work on every project.
  3. Setting the organisation's product prices and sales targets.
  4. Replacing the project sponsor's personal accountability for business outcomes and benefits.

Explanation

A PMO commonly supports consistent project delivery by providing methods, templates, reporting, training and assurance across projects. Its exact mandate varies, but it does not normally perform all delivery work or take over sponsor accountability. Commercial pricing and sales targets usually sit with other business functions.

Question 16Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

Who is usually best placed to own the realisation of project benefits after the project has closed?

  1. The project manager, who has no ongoing operational role.
  2. The business owner or sponsor in the operational area where the benefits arise. Correct answer.
  3. The independent external auditor of the project accounts.
  4. The supplier who delivered the project's main contract.

Explanation

Benefits are usually realised in the operational business after project closure, so ownership normally sits with the business owner or sponsor in that area. They have the ongoing authority and operational control needed to embed changes and track outcomes. The supplier, auditor and departing project manager are not best placed to own those benefits.

Question 17Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

Which statement correctly distinguishes quality assurance from quality control in a project?

  1. Assurance is performed only by the customer; control is performed only by the supplier.
  2. Assurance and control are identical activities with different names in the quality plan.
  3. Assurance builds confidence in processes; control checks deliverables against requirements. Correct answer.
  4. Assurance checks finished deliverables; control audits the processes used to produce them.

Explanation

Quality assurance is process-focused and aims to build confidence that the right methods are being followed. Quality control is product-focused and checks deliverables against specified requirements. Treating them as identical or reversing their focus weakens the quality management approach.

Question 18Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

A stakeholder has high power to influence the project and high interest in its outcome. What engagement approach is most appropriate?

  1. Limit contact to formal written notices required by the contract.
  2. Keep the stakeholder informed with occasional general updates only.
  3. Manage the stakeholder closely with regular, tailored engagement and involvement in decisions. Correct answer.
  4. Monitor the stakeholder with minimal effort because their interest is expected to fade over time.

Explanation

Stakeholders with high power and high interest can significantly affect the project and care deeply about outcomes, so they require close, proactive engagement. Regular tailored communication and involvement in key decisions help maintain alignment and reduce risk. Minimal or purely formal contact is more suitable for low-power, low-interest stakeholders.

Question 19Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

During a competitive tender, what practice best upholds integrity in supplier selection?

  1. Sharing one bidder's technical solution with another bidder to improve competition.
  2. Selecting the supplier with the closest personal relationship to the project team.
  3. Allowing evaluators to change the published criteria after bids are opened.
  4. Evaluating bids against the criteria and weightings published in the tender documents. Correct answer.

Explanation

Integrity in procurement requires evaluating bids against the criteria and weightings that were published in advance. This gives all bidders equal treatment and makes the decision defensible and auditable. Changing criteria later, sharing bid content or favouring personal contacts undermines fairness.

Question 20Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

Which set of activities belongs to the project closure phase?

  1. Executing work packages, managing team performance and resolving delivery issues.
  2. Handing over deliverables, obtaining acceptance, capturing lessons and releasing resources. Correct answer.
  3. Defining the business case, appointing the sponsor and drafting the charter.
  4. Identifying stakeholders and building the initial risk register.

Explanation

Closure covers formal acceptance and handover of deliverables, consolidation of lessons learned and release of project resources. These activities confirm that the project has met its agreed completion criteria and can be closed in a controlled way. Initiation, planning and execution activities occur earlier in the life cycle.

Question 21Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

A project board delegates decision-making for a major procurement to a sub-committee. Which governance principle still applies?

  1. Delegation removes the need for any reporting back to the project board.
  2. Delegation transfers all accountability to the sub-committee, leaving the board unaccountable.
  3. Accountability for the decision remains with the project board despite the delegation. Correct answer.
  4. Accountability is shared so widely that no single body needs to answer for the outcome.

Explanation

Authority and tasks can be delegated, but overall accountability remains with the governing body that delegated them. The project board must therefore set clear terms, receive reporting and remain answerable for the outcome. Delegation without accountability or reporting would create a governance gap.

Question 22Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

A project manager is pressured by a senior manager to report a delayed milestone as 'green' in the status report. What is the most professionally defensible action?

  1. Report the milestone accurately, explain the implications and escalate the pressure. Correct answer.
  2. Remove the milestone from the report so that no inaccurate statement is made.
  3. Change the status to green as instructed and note the delay only in private notes.
  4. Report green for one period and hope the delay is recovered before the next report.

Explanation

Accurate reporting is a core professional obligation, so the milestone should be reported truthfully with its implications made clear. The pressure to misreport should itself be escalated through the governance route. Private notes, temporary misreporting or removing the milestone all conceal information that decision-makers need.

Question 23Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

How should an independent project assurance review be used within a governance framework?

  1. As evidence that gives the governing body confidence and informs its decisions. Correct answer.
  2. As a confidential report that is withheld from the project board to avoid conflict.
  3. As a guarantee that the project will achieve its forecast benefits.
  4. As a substitute for the project board's own decision-making and approval duties.

Explanation

Independent assurance gives the governing body an informed, objective view of project health and delivery confidence. It supports decision-making but does not replace the board's accountability or guarantee outcomes. Withholding assurance findings from the board defeats the purpose of the review.

Question 24Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

On a construction project, a team member identifies an unsecured excavation that presents an immediate risk of serious injury. What should happen first?

  1. Stop the affected work, secure the area and report the hazard through safety escalation. Correct answer.
  2. Record the observation in the risk register and wait for the project board to review it.
  3. Continue work and raise the matter at the next scheduled safety meeting.
  4. Ask the contractor to fix it after the current shift without stopping nearby work.

Explanation

An immediate danger to life and health requires work to stop in the affected area, the hazard to be secured and the safety escalation process to be triggered without delay. Health and safety duties take precedence over schedule pressure. Routine risk-register review or later meetings is not an adequate response to imminent serious harm.

Question 25Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

A project manager discovers evidence that a senior colleague has falsified safety inspection records. What is the most appropriate professional response?

  1. Wait until project closure so that the issue does not affect the current schedule.
  2. Report it promptly through the whistleblowing or escalation channel and preserve the evidence. Correct answer.
  3. Ignore the matter because safety inspections are outside the project manager's scope.
  4. Confront the colleague publicly and delete the evidence once an explanation is given.

Explanation

Falsified safety records are serious misconduct that can endanger people and breach legal and ethical duties. The appropriate response is prompt reporting through the organisation's whistleblowing or escalation route while preserving the evidence for investigation. Public confrontation, deletion, ignoring the matter or delaying for schedule reasons could worsen the risk and obstruct justice.

Question 26Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

Which characteristic best defines a project rather than business-as-usual operations?

  1. It only exists to maintain existing production lines and equipment.
  2. It is managed by a functional department with no defined end date.
  3. It is ongoing and repeats the same process each month without a defined end.
  4. It is temporary and produces a unique product, service, or result. Correct answer.

Explanation

A project is a temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result. Ongoing repetitive work is operational activity, even when it is managed within a functional department. The temporary nature and unique output are the defining features.

Question 27Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

In a governed project, what is the project sponsor primarily accountable for?

  1. Providing day-to-day technical supervision of the delivery team and approving team task schedules.
  2. Ensuring the project delivers agreed business benefits and remains aligned with organisational strategy. Correct answer.
  3. Managing the project's risk register and updating it each week.
  4. Conducting independent audits of the project management process on behalf of the board.

Explanation

The sponsor is the executive owner of the business case and is accountable for benefits realisation and strategic alignment. Day-to-day delivery supervision belongs to the project manager, while independent audits belong to assurance functions. Keeping the risk register is normally a project management task.

Question 28Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

A project manager has a close family member who owns a company bidding for project work. What is the most appropriate professional action?

  1. Ask the family member to submit the bid through a different company name.
  2. Disclose the relationship and withdraw from decisions where a conflict exists. Correct answer.
  3. Keep the relationship private to avoid influencing the evaluation process.
  4. Award the contract to the family company if its price is the lowest received.

Explanation

Professional ethics require transparency when a personal relationship could affect objectivity. The conflict must be disclosed to the appropriate authority, and the project manager should step away from related decisions. Concealing the relationship or manipulating the bid process breaches integrity.

Question 29Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

What is the main purpose of a stage gate in a project life cycle?

  1. To review progress and approve, redirect, or stop the project before the next stage. Correct answer.
  2. To allow the project manager to avoid reporting to governance bodies during delivery.
  3. To replace the need for a business case after the project has been initiated.
  4. To guarantee that no risks remain in the following stage of the project.

Explanation

A stage gate is a governance decision point where progress and continued business justification are reviewed. The reviewing body may approve continuation, redirect the work, or stop the project. It does not eliminate risk or replace the business case.

Question 30Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

A project is completed within budget and schedule, but the delivered system is never used by the intended business users. How should this outcome be assessed?

  1. It is unsuccessful in benefits realisation even though project management performance targets were met. Correct answer.
  2. It is successful provided all change requests were documented and approved.
  3. It is fully successful because the cost and time targets were met, regardless of use.
  4. It is a governance failure only if the project manager failed to use a RACI chart.

Explanation

Project management success, measured by time and cost, is different from product or benefits success. A system that is not adopted fails to deliver the intended business value. Governance should therefore assess outcomes, not only delivery performance.

Question 31Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

What is the primary role of a project charter in project governance?

  1. To replace the risk register during the execution phase of the project.
  2. To record all supplier invoices and payment approvals for the project.
  3. To authorise the project and formally record its objectives, scope, and key responsibilities. Correct answer.
  4. To provide a detailed schedule baseline for every work package in the project.

Explanation

The charter is the document that authorises the project and gives the project manager authority to proceed. It records high-level objectives, scope, and key roles, but not detailed schedules. Detailed planning and risk registers are developed later.

Question 32Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

Why is a work breakdown structure (WBS) used in project planning?

  1. To calculate the project's tax liability and statutory reporting obligations.
  2. To decompose project scope into manageable deliverable-oriented components. Correct answer.
  3. To assign blame for delays to individual team members and suppliers.
  4. To show the organisational hierarchy of the company's departments and reporting lines.

Explanation

A WBS breaks the agreed scope into manageable, deliverable-oriented pieces that can be estimated, scheduled, and controlled. It is not an organisational chart and is not used to assign blame. Financial and tax calculations are outside its purpose.

Question 33Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

A team member adds a small feature requested informally by a user, without submitting a change request. What governance issue does this create?

  1. It is acceptable if the feature takes less than one day to complete.
  2. It removes the need to update the requirements traceability matrix.
  3. It improves configuration management because the user is satisfied with the feature.
  4. It creates uncontrolled scope change that may affect baselines, cost, and risk. Correct answer.

Explanation

Adding work without change control is scope creep, even when the feature appears small. It can alter baselines and affect cost, schedule, and risk without proper assessment. All scope changes should follow the agreed change control process.

Question 34Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

A supplier confirms that a critical component will arrive three weeks late, and the delay is now certain. How should this be recorded?

  1. As a risk, because it may affect the schedule in the future.
  2. As a change request, because all supplier delays are automatically changes.
  3. As an issue, because it has occurred and needs management action. Correct answer.
  4. As a lesson learned, because the project has not yet closed.

Explanation

A risk is an uncertain event that may occur, whereas an issue is a problem that has already happened. Once the delay is certain, it should be managed as an issue. A change request may follow if the response alters the baseline, but it is not automatic.

Question 35Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

Why should the person who approves a supplier payment normally be different from the person who raises the payment request?

  1. To avoid the need for financial record keeping in the project.
  2. To ensure the project manager can approve all payments personally.
  3. To reduce the risk of error or fraud through separation of duties. Correct answer.
  4. To speed up payment by removing any review step from the process.

Explanation

Separation of duties is an internal control that prevents one person from initiating and approving the same transaction. It reduces the risk of error and fraud. It does not remove record keeping or review; it strengthens them.

Question 36Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

A project manager receives confidential employee salary data for project budgeting. A colleague asks for the figures for informal benchmarking. What is the most appropriate response?

  1. Share the data because benchmarking improves organisational performance across departments.
  2. Post the data anonymously on an internal discussion forum for review.
  3. Share only the lowest and highest salaries to protect individual identities.
  4. Decline and explain that the data is confidential and access is restricted. Correct answer.

Explanation

Confidential data should be used only for the purpose for which it was provided and shared only with authorised people. Informal benchmarking does not create a right of access. The professional response is to decline and explain the restriction.

Question 37Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

What is the main purpose of a stakeholder engagement plan?

  1. To list all project risks and their owners in a single register.
  2. To define how stakeholders will be informed, consulted, and involved. Correct answer.
  3. To guarantee that every stakeholder approves every change request.
  4. To replace the project budget with a communications schedule.

Explanation

A stakeholder engagement plan sets out how relevant stakeholders will be communicated with and involved during the project. It supports relationship management but does not replace budgets or risk registers. It cannot guarantee approval from every stakeholder.

Question 38Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

A customs official demands an unofficial payment to release imported project equipment on time. What is the most professionally appropriate course of action?

  1. Pay the amount and record it as a project contingency cost.
  2. Delay all project reporting until the equipment arrives on site.
  3. Ask the supplier to pay it and reimburse them later without documentation.
  4. Refuse, report the demand through the anti-bribery channel, and seek a legitimate resolution. Correct answer.

Explanation

Unofficial payments to public officials are bribery or facilitation payments and must not be made. The project manager should refuse, report the demand through the proper anti-bribery channel, and pursue legitimate channels. Concealing or reimbursing such a payment also breaches professional ethics.

Question 39Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

A project board member has a financial interest in a supplier being considered for a major contract. What is the most appropriate governance action?

  1. Declare the interest, withdraw from related decisions, and ensure others decide without the conflict. Correct answer.
  2. Continue participating in all discussions but abstain only on the final vote for the supplier.
  3. Vote in favour if the supplier offers the best technical score in the evaluation.
  4. Resign from the project board immediately without giving any explanation to colleagues.

Explanation

Conflicts of interest must be declared and managed so that they do not influence decisions. Withdrawing from related discussions and decisions protects the integrity of the procurement. Abstaining only at the final vote may be insufficient if the member has already influenced the process.

Question 40Project fundamentals, governance and professional ethics

When should the benefits realisation plan be developed in a governed project?

  1. After the final payment to the supplier has been made and accepted.
  2. Only if the project manager has spare time during the execution phase.
  3. During project initiation, alongside the business case, and refined as the project progresses. Correct answer.
  4. Only after the project has closed and the outputs are in use by the business.

Explanation

Benefits should be identified and planned early so that the project remains justified and measurable. The benefits realisation plan is therefore developed alongside the business case and refined as more is known. Waiting until closure or supplier payment is too late to guide decisions.

Question 41Scope, schedule and cost planning and control

In a project scope baseline, what is the lowest level of the WBS called when work is defined for cost and schedule control?

  1. Work package Correct answer.
  2. Control account
  3. Planning package
  4. Project deliverable

Explanation

A work package is the lowest WBS element used for estimating cost and duration and for assigning responsibility. Planning packages cover future work that has not yet been decomposed in detail. Control accounts sit above work packages as management control points.

Question 42Scope, schedule and cost planning and control

Which path through a project network diagram determines the earliest possible project finish date?

  1. The path with the largest number of resources
  2. The path with the most activities
  3. The critical path Correct answer.
  4. The path with the lowest cost

Explanation

The critical path is the longest-duration path through the network and therefore sets the shortest possible project duration. Activities on it have zero total float under normal conditions. Other paths have float and do not determine the finish date.

Question 43Scope, schedule and cost planning and control

Which reserve is included in the cost baseline to address identified risks with known probability and impact?

  1. Management reserve
  2. Contingency reserve Correct answer.
  3. Funding reserve
  4. Profit reserve

Explanation

Contingency reserve is budget set aside for known-unknowns, meaning identified risks with assessed probability and impact, and it is included in the cost baseline. Management reserve is for unforeseen work outside the baseline.

Question 44Scope, schedule and cost planning and control

Which three components together form the approved scope baseline?

  1. WBS, activity list, and resource calendar
  2. Project charter, scope statement, and milestone list
  3. Scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary Correct answer.
  4. Scope management plan, requirements traceability matrix, and WBS

Explanation

The scope baseline consists of the approved scope statement, the work breakdown structure, and the WBS dictionary. These documents define and describe the total approved project scope. The scope management plan and requirements documentation support scope management but are not part of the baseline itself.

Question 45Scope, schedule and cost planning and control

A dependency in which a successor activity cannot start until the predecessor activity has finished is called what?

  1. Start-to-finish
  2. Finish-to-start Correct answer.
  3. Start-to-start
  4. Finish-to-finish

Explanation

A finish-to-start relationship means the successor cannot begin until the predecessor finishes. It is the most common logical relationship in project schedules. The other relationship types use different start or finish constraints.

Question 46Scope, schedule and cost planning and control

Which estimating technique uses cost data from a similar completed project as the basis for a new estimate?

  1. Parametric estimating
  2. Three-point estimating
  3. Bottom-up estimating
  4. Analogous estimating Correct answer.

Explanation

Analogous estimating uses historical cost or duration data from a similar project, often adjusted for known differences. It is useful when detailed information is limited but is generally less accurate than detailed methods.

Question 47Scope, schedule and cost planning and control

What term describes uncontrolled expansion of project scope without approved changes to time, cost, or resources?

  1. Scope verification
  2. Scope baseline
  3. Scope creep Correct answer.
  4. Scope decomposition

Explanation

Scope creep is the uncontrolled addition or expansion of project work without going through approved change control. It can erode schedule and cost performance because the baseline is not adjusted. Scope verification and decomposition are legitimate scope management activities.

Question 48Scope, schedule and cost planning and control

Using earned value management, which formula calculates schedule variance (SV)?

  1. SV = EV - PV Correct answer.
  2. SV = EV / PV
  3. SV = PV - EV
  4. SV = AC - EV

Explanation

Schedule variance is earned value minus planned value, so SV = EV - PV. A negative result indicates less work was accomplished than planned for the period. Dividing EV by PV gives the schedule performance index rather than variance.

Question 49Scope, schedule and cost planning and control

A project manager decomposes a WBS branch into work packages. Which principle requires that the sum of the work at each level equals the total scope of the parent element?

  1. The rolling wave principle
  2. The 100 percent rule Correct answer.
  3. The critical path method
  4. The cost aggregation rule

Explanation

The 100 percent rule states that the child elements of a WBS level must represent 100 percent of the parent element's scope. No work should be omitted, and no work should be added outside the parent scope. This supports complete and consistent scope definition.

Question 50Scope, schedule and cost planning and control

A contract requires a supplier's design to be approved before construction begins. This is best classified as which type of dependency?

  1. Resource dependency
  2. Discretionary dependency
  3. External dependency
  4. Mandatory dependency Correct answer.

Explanation

A mandatory dependency is required by contract or by the inherent nature of the work, so the design approval must occur before construction. Discretionary dependencies reflect preferred sequencing rather than a hard requirement. External and resource dependencies describe other sources of sequencing constraints.