I85PREP
⌘ K
CBET study materials
CBET study resources

CBET practice questions

One question at a time. Build your CBET understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Anatomy & Physiology

Which organelle generates most of a cell's ATP through oxidative phosphorylation?

  1. Mitochondrion Correct answer.
  2. Ribosome
  3. Lysosome
  4. Golgi apparatus

Explanation

Mitochondria carry the electron transport chain on their inner membrane cristae, and the resulting proton gradient drives ATP synthase. Cells with high energy demand, such as cardiac muscle and renal tubule cells, contain many mitochondria.

Question 2Anatomy & Physiology

A plane that divides the body into equal right and left halves is called the:

  1. Transverse plane
  2. Midsagittal Correct answer.
  3. Frontal (coronal) plane
  4. Oblique plane

Explanation

A sagittal plane runs vertically front to back, and the midsagittal plane passes through the midline to create equal right and left halves. Frontal planes separate anterior from posterior, and transverse planes separate superior from inferior.

Question 3Anatomy & Physiology

The primary function of erythrocytes is to:

  1. Produce antibodies
  2. Release histamine during inflammation
  3. Phagocytize bacteria
  4. Transport oxygen bound to hemoglobin Correct answer.

Explanation

Erythrocytes are packed with hemoglobin, which binds oxygen in the pulmonary capillaries and releases it in peripheral tissues. Their biconcave shape and lack of a nucleus maximize surface area and hemoglobin content.

Question 4Anatomy & Physiology

Which muscle type is striated and under voluntary control?

  1. Skeletal muscle Correct answer.
  2. Cardiac muscle
  3. Myoepithelial tissue
  4. Smooth muscle

Explanation

Skeletal muscle shows cross-striations from organized sarcomeres and is innervated by somatic motor neurons, allowing conscious control. Cardiac muscle is also striated but contracts involuntarily, and smooth muscle is nonstriated and involuntary.

Question 5Anatomy & Physiology

The normal intrinsic pacemaker of the heart is the:

  1. Purkinje fiber network
  2. Bundle of His
  3. Sinoatrial node Correct answer.
  4. Atrioventricular node

Explanation

The sinoatrial node in the right atrial wall has the steepest spontaneous depolarization and therefore sets the resting heart rate, typically 60 to 100 beats per minute. Lower pacemakers fire only when the SA node fails or conduction is blocked.

Question 6Anatomy & Physiology

Gas exchange between alveolar air and pulmonary capillary blood occurs primarily by:

  1. Simple diffusion Correct answer.
  2. Osmosis
  3. Bulk flow
  4. Active transport

Explanation

Oxygen and carbon dioxide move down their partial pressure gradients across the thin respiratory membrane by simple diffusion. No energy input or carrier protein is required for this gas transfer.

Question 7Anatomy & Physiology

Blood plasma is first filtered into Bowman's capsule at the:

  1. Distal convoluted tubule
  2. Loop of Henle
  3. Collecting duct
  4. Glomerulus Correct answer.

Explanation

The glomerulus is a tuft of fenestrated capillaries where hydrostatic pressure drives water and small solutes into Bowman's space. The resulting ultrafiltrate is then modified along the tubule by reabsorption and secretion.

Question 8Anatomy & Physiology

The rapid depolarization phase of a neuron action potential is caused mainly by:

  1. Influx of sodium ions Correct answer.
  2. Efflux of calcium ions
  3. Influx of chloride ions
  4. Efflux of potassium ions

Explanation

When threshold is reached, voltage-gated sodium channels open and sodium rushes into the cell, driving the membrane potential toward a positive value. Repolarization follows as potassium channels open and potassium leaves the cell.

Question 9Anatomy & Physiology

Insulin lowers blood glucose mainly by promoting:

  1. Glycogen breakdown in liver
  2. Cellular glucose uptake Correct answer.
  3. Hepatic gluconeogenesis
  4. Glucagon secretion

Explanation

Insulin signals cells, especially skeletal muscle and adipose tissue, to move GLUT4 transporters to the membrane and take up glucose. It also favors glycogen synthesis and fat storage while suppressing hepatic glucose output.

Question 10Anatomy & Physiology

Most nutrient absorption occurs in the:

  1. Small intestine Correct answer.
  2. Stomach
  3. Large intestine
  4. Esophagus

Explanation

The small intestine has circular folds, villi, and microvilli that greatly expand surface area for absorbing carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals. The stomach absorbs only limited substances, and the colon mainly reclaims water and electrolytes.

Question 11Anatomy & Physiology

According to the sliding filament theory, skeletal muscle shortening occurs when:

  1. Actin filaments shorten and the sarcomere lengthens
  2. The A band shortens while the I band stays constant
  3. Myosin heads pull actin filaments past each other Correct answer.
  4. Z lines move apart as the muscle fiber relaxes

Explanation

Calcium exposes actin binding sites, myosin heads attach and pivot, and repeated cross-bridge cycles draw actin toward the sarcomere center. The filaments themselves keep their length while the sarcomere and I band shorten.

Question 12Anatomy & Physiology

A patient hypoventilates and retains carbon dioxide. Which acid-base disturbance is most likely?

  1. Metabolic acidosis
  2. Respiratory alkalosis
  3. Metabolic alkalosis
  4. Respiratory acidosis Correct answer.

Explanation

Retained carbon dioxide combines with water to form carbonic acid, which dissociates into hydrogen ions and bicarbonate, lowering pH. Because the primary change is alveolar ventilation, the disorder is respiratory acidosis, and the kidneys compensate by retaining bicarbonate.

Question 13Anatomy & Physiology

Cardiac output is calculated as:

  1. Heart rate multiplied by stroke volume Correct answer.
  2. End-diastolic volume minus end-systolic volume
  3. Stroke volume divided by heart rate
  4. Heart rate plus stroke volume

Explanation

Cardiac output is the volume of blood ejected by each ventricle per minute, equal to heart rate times stroke volume. A typical resting value is about 5 liters per minute and rises during exercise as both factors increase.

Question 14Anatomy & Physiology

In negative feedback regulation of body temperature, a rise in core temperature typically triggers:

  1. Decreased respiratory rate
  2. Increased thyroxine release
  3. Vasodilation and sweating Correct answer.
  4. Shivering and vasoconstriction

Explanation

Negative feedback drives responses that oppose the initial change, so a rising core temperature promotes heat loss through cutaneous vasodilation and evaporative sweating. The hypothalamus integrates these effectors to return temperature toward its set point.

Question 15Fundamentals of Electricity and Electronics

A 220 Ω resistor carries a current of 25 mA. What is the voltage across it?

  1. 5.5 V Correct answer.
  2. 55 V
  3. 0.88 V
  4. 8.8 V

Explanation

Ohm's law states that voltage equals current multiplied by resistance. Converting 25 mA to 0.025 A and multiplying by 220 Ω gives 5.5 V.

Question 16Fundamentals of Electricity and Electronics

Two 100 Ω resistors are connected in parallel, and that combination is connected in series with a 50 Ω resistor. What is the total resistance of the circuit?

  1. 250 Ω
  2. 100 Ω Correct answer.
  3. 150 Ω
  4. 75 Ω

Explanation

Two equal resistors in parallel have an equivalent resistance of half that value, so the parallel pair equals 50 Ω. Adding the series 50 Ω resistor gives 100 Ω total.

Question 17Fundamentals of Electricity and Electronics

A 24 Ω resistor is connected directly across a 12 V DC source. How much power is dissipated in the resistor?

  1. 0.06 W
  2. 24 W
  3. 12 W
  4. 6 W Correct answer.

Explanation

The current is 12 V divided by 24 Ω, which is 0.5 A. Power equals voltage times current, so 12 V × 0.5 A = 6 W.

Question 18Fundamentals of Electricity and Electronics

A 10 µF capacitor is charged to 50 V. How much charge is stored?

  1. 5 µC
  2. 500 µC Correct answer.
  3. 50 mC
  4. 0.2 µC

Explanation

Charge equals capacitance multiplied by voltage. Multiplying 10 µF by 50 V gives 500 µC.

Question 19Fundamentals of Electricity and Electronics

A 12 V source is connected across three resistors in series. The voltage drops across the first two resistors are 4 V and 5 V. What is the voltage drop across the third resistor?

  1. 1 V
  2. 9 V
  3. 3 V Correct answer.
  4. 12 V

Explanation

Kirchhoff's voltage law requires the sum of the series voltage drops to equal the applied voltage. The first two drops total 9 V, so the remaining drop is 12 V − 9 V = 3 V.

Question 20Fundamentals of Electricity and Electronics

What is the capacitive reactance of a 1 µF capacitor at 1 kHz?

  1. 159 Ω Correct answer.
  2. 62.8 Ω
  3. 318 Ω
  4. 1.59 kΩ

Explanation

Capacitive reactance is given by Xc = 1/(2πfC). Substituting 1 kHz and 1 µF gives about 159 Ω.

Question 21Fundamentals of Electricity and Electronics

What is the approximate forward barrier voltage of a silicon diode?

  1. 0.7 V Correct answer.
  2. 5.0 V
  3. 0.2 V
  4. 1.5 V

Explanation

A silicon PN junction begins to conduct appreciably at roughly 0.6 to 0.7 V in the forward direction. This barrier must be overcome before forward current rises steeply.

Question 22Fundamentals of Electricity and Electronics

A resistor is marked with the color bands red, red, brown, gold. What is its nominal value?

  1. 220 Ω Correct answer.
  2. 22 Ω
  3. 220 kΩ
  4. 2.2 kΩ

Explanation

The first two bands give the digits 2 and 2, and the third band (brown) is a multiplier of 10. This yields 220 Ω with a gold tolerance band of ±5%.

Question 23Fundamentals of Electricity and Electronics

A 30 Ω resistor is in series with an inductor whose reactance is 40 Ω at the operating frequency. What is the magnitude of the total impedance?

  1. 10 Ω
  2. 70 Ω
  3. 50 Ω Correct answer.
  4. 1.2 kΩ

Explanation

Resistance and inductive reactance are 90 degrees out of phase, so impedance magnitude is the square root of R² + XL². Here that is the square root of 900 + 1600, which equals 50 Ω.

Question 24Fundamentals of Electricity and Electronics

Three resistors of different values are connected in parallel across a 24 V source. What is the voltage across the 8 Ω resistor?

  1. 3 V
  2. 24 V Correct answer.
  3. 8 V
  4. 12 V

Explanation

In a parallel circuit every branch is connected directly across the source, so each branch sees the full source voltage. The branch currents differ, but the voltages do not.

Question 25Fundamentals of Electricity and Electronics

A 10 kΩ resistor is in series with a 100 µF capacitor. What is the RC time constant of this circuit?

  1. 1 ms
  2. 1 s Correct answer.
  3. 100 s
  4. 10 ms

Explanation

The time constant equals resistance multiplied by capacitance. Multiplying 10,000 Ω by 0.0001 F gives 1 second.

Question 26Fundamentals of Electricity and Electronics

A 20 V DC source feeds a 5 Ω series resistor that connects to a node. A 20 Ω resistor connects from that node back to the source return, and the output terminals are taken across the 20 Ω resistor. What is the Thevenin resistance seen at those terminals?

  1. 4 Ω Correct answer.
  2. 20 Ω
  3. 5 Ω
  4. 25 Ω

Explanation

To find the Thevenin resistance, the voltage source is replaced by a short circuit. The 5 Ω and 20 Ω resistors then appear in parallel, giving (5 × 20)/(5 + 20) = 4 Ω.

Question 27Healthcare Information Technology

In an HL7 v2 pipe-delimited message, which character separates the individual fields within a segment?

  1. ~ (tilde)
  2. ^ (caret)
  3. & (ampersand)
  4. | (pipe) Correct answer.

Explanation

HL7 v2 uses a strict hierarchy of delimiters: a carriage return ends a segment, the pipe separates fields, the caret separates components, the tilde separates repetitions, and the ampersand separates subcomponents.

Question 28Healthcare Information Technology

What is the primary purpose of the DICOM standard?

  1. To define ADT and order messaging between hospital systems
  2. To standardize medical image format and exchange Correct answer.
  3. To govern the privacy of protected health information
  4. To specify electrical safety requirements for medical devices

Explanation

DICOM defines both the file format for medical images and the network services used to exchange them, such as query/retrieve and modality worklist. Image headers also carry patient and acquisition attributes used by viewing systems.

Question 29Healthcare Information Technology

Under the HIPAA Security Rule, encryption of electronic protected health information at rest belongs to which safeguard category?

  1. Technical safeguards Correct answer.
  2. Physical safeguards
  3. Administrative safeguards
  4. Breach notification requirements

Explanation

The Security Rule organizes protections into administrative, physical, and technical safeguards. Encryption of ePHI at rest and in transit is addressed under technical safeguards, which cover access control, audit controls, integrity, and transmission security.

Question 30Healthcare Information Technology

Which transport protocol provides connection-oriented, acknowledged, ordered delivery of data?

  1. UDP
  2. TCP Correct answer.
  3. SNMP
  4. ICMP

Explanation

TCP establishes a session, numbers segments, acknowledges receipt, and retransmits lost data, which is why clinical messaging protocols ride on it. UDP is connectionless and does not guarantee delivery or ordering.

Question 31Healthcare Information Technology

What is the role of the Network Time Protocol in a clinical network?

  1. Encrypt traffic between networked devices on the VLAN
  2. Synchronize device clocks to a reference source Correct answer.
  3. Assign IP addresses to devices dynamically from a pool
  4. Resolve host names into IP addresses across the enterprise

Explanation

NTP aligns device and server clocks to a common time reference so that device logs, EHR entries, and audit trails can be correlated in the correct sequence. Accurate time is also required for certificate validation and for reconstructing clinical events.

Question 32Healthcare Information Technology

Which wireless security method authenticates each user against a centralized server such as RADIUS?

  1. WEP with a shared key
  2. Open authentication with MAC filtering
  3. WPA2-Personal with a pre-shared key
  4. WPA2-Enterprise Correct answer.

Explanation

WPA2-Enterprise uses IEEE 802.1X with EAP so each user or device authenticates with unique credentials to a RADIUS server. WPA2-Personal instead relies on one pre-shared key that every user of the network knows.

Question 33Healthcare Information Technology

Which TCP port is used by HTTPS by default?

  1. 3389
  2. 443 Correct answer.
  3. 21
  4. 80

Explanation

HTTPS is HTTP carried over TLS and uses TCP 443 by default. Port 80 carries unencrypted HTTP, so protected clinical web applications should be published on 443.

Question 34Healthcare Information Technology

What does the 3-2-1 rule specify for backups?

  1. Three administrators, two approvals, one change window
  2. Three copies, two media types, one offsite Correct answer.
  3. Three copies on the same server, two encrypted and one unencrypted
  4. Three full backups per week, two stored offsite, one onsite

Explanation

The 3-2-1 rule calls for three copies of data, stored on two different media types, with one copy kept offsite. This protects against drive failure, site-wide loss, and ransomware that encrypts online copies.

Question 35Healthcare Information Technology

A hospital wants to keep infusion pumps off the guest Wi-Fi network while still letting them reach a device management server. Which approach best accomplishes this?

  1. Put the devices on a dedicated VLAN with ACLs Correct answer.
  2. Place the pumps on the guest network behind a shared password
  3. Give each pump a public IP address so it can be reached directly
  4. Disable the pumps' wireless radios and rely on manual charting

Explanation

A dedicated VLAN creates a separate broadcast domain, and access control lists define exactly which destinations the devices may reach. This limits lateral movement from general networks while still permitting the management server.

Question 36Healthcare Information Technology

A vital signs monitor must always receive the same IP address but should not be configured manually. What is the best solution?

  1. Shorten the DHCP lease time to one hour for the whole subnet
  2. Assign the device to the guest VLAN with a shared key
  3. Configure the device with a public IP address and no gateway
  4. Create a DHCP reservation bound to the device MAC address Correct answer.

Explanation

A reservation ties a specific address to the device's MAC address, so the device keeps receiving the same address automatically at each lease renewal. This avoids manual entry errors while keeping addressing under central management.

Question 37Healthcare Information Technology

What is the primary function of an interface engine in a hospital integration architecture?

  1. Provides power conditioning for bedside patient monitors
  2. Routes and transforms messages between clinical systems Correct answer.
  3. Stores and archives medical images for the radiology department
  4. Authenticates clinicians at the bedside workstation

Explanation

An interface engine sits between systems and handles routing, translation, and queuing of messages. Typical transformations include converting HL7 v2 to FHIR or mapping local codes to standard terminologies.

Question 38Healthcare Information Technology

Which statement describes how an SNMP trap works?

  1. The device polls the management station on a fixed schedule
  2. The agent sends an unsolicited alert on a threshold breach Correct answer.
  3. The manager queries each device's uptime once per day
  4. The device writes alerts to a local log that is never read

Explanation

In SNMP, an agent on the managed device sends a trap without being asked when a defined condition occurs. Polling is the alternative model, in which the manager requests values on a schedule.

Question 39Healthcare Information Technology

Which action best preserves telehealth video quality when the wide area link is congested?

  1. Prioritize real-time video traffic with QoS Correct answer.
  2. Increase the MTU to 9000 bytes on every switch in the path
  3. Move the video endpoints to the guest wireless network
  4. Disable encryption on the video stream to reduce overhead

Explanation

QoS classifies and marks real-time flows so routers and switches can schedule them ahead of bulk traffic. Video and voice are sensitive to jitter and loss rather than to raw bandwidth alone.

Question 40Healthcare Information Technology

A networked patient monitor runs an operating system with a known vulnerability, but the manufacturer has not yet validated a patch. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Disable all logging on the device to reduce network traffic
  2. Install the newest operating system on the device without vendor approval
  3. Remove the device from the asset inventory so it is out of scope
  4. Isolate the device on a restricted VLAN until a patch is validated Correct answer.

Explanation

When a vendor has not validated a patch, the organization applies compensating controls such as network isolation or strict ACLs and documents the residual risk. Unapproved operating system changes can void support and alter the device's cleared configuration.

Question 41Healthcare Information Technology

What does IEEE 802.1X network access control accomplish on a wired switch port?

  1. It provides battery backup power during an electrical outage
  2. It assigns the device a static IP address from the server
  3. It encrypts the device's internal hard drive while at rest
  4. It authenticates the device before granting port access Correct answer.

Explanation

With 802.1X, a supplicant on the device authenticates to the switch or wireless controller before the port passes normal traffic. Devices that fail authentication are placed in a quarantine or guest VLAN.

Question 42Healthcare Information Technology

What is the primary benefit of alarm middleware in an intensive care unit?

  1. It eliminates the need for scheduled preventive maintenance
  2. It replaces the need for clinician alarm training
  3. It stores electrical safety test results for each device
  4. It routes alarms to the assigned caregiver's mobile device Correct answer.

Explanation

Alarm middleware consolidates alarms from multiple devices and distributes them by rule to the responsible clinician's mobile device. This shortens response time and supports escalation when an alarm is not acknowledged.

Question 43Healthcare Information Technology

Approximately how long does a 500 MB imaging study take to transfer over a dedicated 100 Mbps link, ignoring protocol overhead?

  1. About 4 minutes
  2. About 20 minutes
  3. About 5 seconds
  4. About 40 seconds Correct answer.

Explanation

500 MB equals about 4000 megabits, and 4000 megabits divided by 100 megabits per second gives about 40 seconds. Doubling the study size or halving the link speed doubles the transfer time.

Question 44Healthcare Information Technology

A hospital wants clinicians to use one set of credentials for the EHR, the image viewer, and the scheduling system. Which approach supports this?

  1. A shared departmental login posted at each workstation
  2. A separate local account maintained on each application server
  3. Single sign-on federated with the enterprise directory Correct answer.
  4. Local accounts stored only on each thin client

Explanation

Single sign-on lets a clinician authenticate once against a central directory and then reach multiple applications through trust relationships such as SAML or Kerberos. Separate local accounts multiply password management burden and are difficult to deprovision.

Question 45Healthcare Information Technology

Which standard defines a RESTful API built from resources such as Patient and Observation for exchanging healthcare data?

  1. IEEE 11073
  2. DICOM
  3. HL7 v2 pipe-delimited messaging
  4. FHIR Correct answer.

Explanation

FHIR defines a RESTful interface with discrete resources, typically exchanged as JSON or XML over HTTPS. HL7 v2 is segment-based messaging, DICOM handles imaging, and IEEE 11073 handles device data.

Question 46Healthcare Information Technology

Which framework addresses risk management when medical devices are connected to an IT network?

  1. IEC 60601-1
  2. IEC 80001-1 Correct answer.
  3. IEC 62304
  4. NFPA 99

Explanation

IEC 80001-1 defines risk management for medical IT networks that incorporate medical devices, covering safety, effectiveness, and data security. It divides responsibilities among the device manufacturer, the IT organization, and the healthcare provider.

Question 47Healthcare Information Technology

In an IHE cross-enterprise document sharing (XDS) affinity domain, which actor stores the actual clinical documents?

  1. Patient Identifier Cross-Referencing Manager
  2. Document Repository Correct answer.
  3. Audit Record Repository
  4. Document Registry

Explanation

In XDS, the Document Repository stores the documents themselves while the Document Registry holds the metadata used for discovery. A query hits the registry, which returns references the consumer then uses to retrieve from the repository.

Question 48Healthcare Information Technology

An interface must convey device identity and measurement values from a bedside monitor in a vendor-neutral way. Which standard family provides the nomenclature and object model for this?

  1. HL7 v2
  2. ASC X12
  3. DICOM
  4. ISO/IEEE 11073 Correct answer.

Explanation

ISO/IEEE 11073 defines the nomenclature, domain information model, and service model for communicating with point-of-care devices such as monitors and infusion pumps. Its device specializations describe specific device types and their attributes.

Question 49Healthcare Information Technology

A hospital is selecting a frequency band for a new telemetry system to avoid Wi-Fi interference. Which band is allocated to the Wireless Medical Telemetry Service in the United States?

  1. 608-614 MHz Correct answer.
  2. 900 MHz ISM
  3. 5 GHz U-NII
  4. 2.4 GHz ISM

Explanation

The FCC allocates the Wireless Medical Telemetry Service in the 608-614, 1395-1400, and 1427-1432 MHz bands, which are protected from interference and shared with limited other users. Wi-Fi operates in the unlicensed ISM and U-NII bands.

Question 50Healthcare Information Technology

An interface engine accepts an ORU message from a laboratory system but never returns an acknowledgment. What is the likely operational consequence?

  1. The sending system may retransmit, creating duplicate results Correct answer.
  2. The receiving system automatically converts the message to DICOM
  3. The sending system marks the message as delivered and immediately deletes it
  4. The message is encrypted and stored in the archive

Explanation

HL7 v2 application acknowledgments confirm that the receiving application accepted and processed the message. Without an ACK, the sender's interface engine typically holds the message and retries, which can produce duplicate results if the original actually arrived.