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CCT (CCI) practice questions

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First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

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Question 1Patient Care and Preparation

When should hand hygiene be performed during patient care?

  1. Only after contact with blood or body fluids
  2. Once at the beginning of each shift
  3. Before and after every patient contact Correct answer.
  4. Only when gloves are not going to be worn

Explanation

Hand hygiene is required before and after every patient contact, regardless of whether gloves are worn. Gloves reduce contamination but do not replace hand washing. Contact with body fluids is one indication among many, not the only one.

Question 2Patient Care and Preparation

Which approach correctly verifies a patient's identity before a procedure?

  1. Checking that the name on the requisition matches the door card
  2. Asking the patient to state name and date of birth Correct answer.
  3. Asking the patient whether the name printed on the chart is correct
  4. Confirming the room number and bed assignment with the charge nurse

Explanation

Two independent identifiers, such as the patient's stated name and date of birth, must be matched against the identification band. Room numbers, bed assignments, and chart prompts are not acceptable identifiers. Confirming a name already printed on a document invites agreement rather than verification.

Question 3Patient Care and Preparation

For an adult patient with decision-making capacity, who must sign the informed consent for a procedure?

  1. The patient's closest available adult relative
  2. The patient, after the procedure is explained Correct answer.
  3. The clinician who will perform the procedure
  4. A licensed nurse who is caring for the patient

Explanation

An adult with capacity gives consent personally after the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives are explained. Relatives may sign only when the patient lacks capacity or is a minor. The clinician obtaining consent does not sign on the patient's behalf.

Question 4Patient Care and Preparation

Which value falls within the normal resting heart rate range for a healthy adult?

  1. 72 beats per minute Correct answer.
  2. 110 beats per minute
  3. 40 beats per minute
  4. 55 beats per minute

Explanation

The accepted normal resting adult heart rate is approximately 60 to 100 beats per minute, so 72 falls within range. Values below 60 indicate bradycardia and values above 100 indicate tachycardia.

Question 5Patient Care and Preparation

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for the patient's arm is most likely to produce which error?

  1. A falsely lowered reading
  2. A reading that fluctuates with each beat
  3. A reading with no systolic value
  4. A falsely elevated reading Correct answer.

Explanation

An undersized cuff requires higher pressure to occlude the artery, so the recorded value is falsely high. An oversized cuff tends to produce falsely low readings. Correct cuff sizing is based on arm circumference, not on convenience.

Question 6Patient Care and Preparation

How should orthostatic vital signs be obtained?

  1. Measure standing, then after the patient has lain flat for 5 minutes
  2. Measure supine, then after standing for 1 to 3 minutes Correct answer.
  3. Measure supine, then immediately after the patient sits up
  4. Measure seated, then after the patient has exercised for 2 minutes

Explanation

Orthostatic measurements compare a supine baseline with values obtained after the patient has been standing for about 1 to 3 minutes. This interval allows the cardiovascular response to posture change to develop. Immediate measurement after sitting misses the delayed fall in pressure.

Question 7Patient Care and Preparation

A pulse oximeter reading is unexpectedly low in a patient with cold, pale fingers and dark nail polish. What is the best first action?

  1. Apply a warm blanket and recheck in one hour
  2. Increase the oxygen flow rate immediately
  3. Document the value and continue the procedure
  4. Use an alternate site such as the earlobe Correct answer.

Explanation

Poor perfusion and nail polish are common sources of artifact in pulse oximetry. Moving the sensor to an alternate site such as the earlobe obtains a more reliable reading before any treatment decision. Oxygen should not be increased based on an artifact.

Question 8Patient Care and Preparation

Which technique is appropriate for counting the respiratory rate of an adult with regular breathing?

  1. Count for 10 seconds and multiply by six
  2. Count for 30 seconds and multiply by two Correct answer.
  3. Count for 15 seconds and multiply by four
  4. Count for 60 seconds and divide by two

Explanation

For regular respirations, counting for 30 seconds and doubling the result gives an acceptable estimate. A full 60-second count is preferred when the rhythm is irregular or the rate is abnormal. Short counts magnify error.

Question 9Patient Care and Preparation

Which temperature route is contraindicated for a patient with profuse diarrhea?

  1. Axillary
  2. Tympanic
  3. Oral
  4. Rectal Correct answer.

Explanation

The rectal route is avoided when the patient has diarrhea, recent rectal surgery, or bleeding risk because it can introduce infection and cause trauma. Oral, axillary, and tympanic routes remain available alternatives.

Question 10Patient Care and Preparation

In which order should personal protective equipment be removed after patient care?

  1. Mask, gown, gloves, then face shield
  2. Face shield, mask, gloves, then gown
  3. Gown, gloves, mask, then face shield
  4. Gloves, face shield or goggles, gown, then mask Correct answer.

Explanation

Doffing proceeds from the most contaminated item to the least: gloves first, then eye protection, then gown, and the mask last. Removing the mask last limits exposure to respiratory pathogens. Gloves are removed first because they are the most heavily contaminated.

Question 11Patient Care and Preparation

Standard precautions require that gloves be worn in which situation?

  1. Only when the patient requests that staff wear them
  2. Only during procedures performed in the operating room
  3. Only when the patient has a known bloodborne infection
  4. Whenever contact with blood or body fluids is anticipated Correct answer.

Explanation

Standard precautions apply to all patients and require gloves whenever contact with blood, body fluids, secretions, or nonintact skin is anticipated. The approach is based on anticipated exposure, not on a known diagnosis. Patient preference and procedure location do not determine glove use.

Question 12Patient Care and Preparation

Which action breaks the sterile field during a procedure?

  1. Reaching across the field with sterile gloves
  2. Keeping the sterile drape dry throughout
  3. Allowing a sterile item to touch a nonsterile surface Correct answer.
  4. Holding sterile items above waist level

Explanation

A sterile item that contacts a nonsterile surface becomes contaminated and must be replaced. Sterile objects must be kept above waist level and the field must remain dry. Reaching across the field with sterile gloves is acceptable if the gloves stay within the field.

Question 13Patient Care and Preparation

The supine position places the patient in which orientation?

  1. Sitting upright at a 90-degree angle
  2. Flat on the back with the face upward Correct answer.
  3. On the side with the knees drawn up
  4. Face down with the head turned

Explanation

Supine means lying flat on the back with the face directed upward. The side-lying position is lateral, face down is prone, and sitting upright is described as Fowler or high-Fowler.

Question 14Patient Care and Preparation

What is the correct skin preparation before applying ECG electrodes?

  1. Apply a thin layer of lotion to improve adhesion
  2. Cleanse and dry the skin, then lightly abrade Correct answer.
  3. Place the electrodes directly over bony prominences
  4. Shave all body hair from the chest and both limbs

Explanation

Cleansing and drying the skin and lightly abrading the stratum corneum lowers impedance and improves signal quality. Lotion interferes with adhesion, and electrodes over bone produce more artifact. Shaving is limited to sites where hair prevents contact, not performed indiscriminately.

Question 15Patient Care and Preparation

Which practice best protects patient privacy during a procedure?

  1. Closing the curtain or door and limiting exposure Correct answer.
  2. Posting the procedure schedule at the nurses' station
  3. Leaving the patient's chart open on the counter
  4. Discussing the patient's results with a colleague in the elevator

Explanation

Privacy is protected by limiting who can see or hear patient information, including closing doors or curtains and exposing only the area being treated. Conversations in public areas and visible charts breach confidentiality. Schedules posted in public view also disclose protected information.

Question 16Patient Care and Preparation

Which approach best communicates with a patient who has significant hearing loss?

  1. Write everything on paper and avoid speaking
  2. Speak loudly from another room
  3. Face the patient and speak clearly at normal volume Correct answer.
  4. Turn away to reduce visual distractions

Explanation

Facing the patient allows lip reading and facial cues, and clear speech at normal volume is more intelligible than shouting. Speaking from another room removes visual cues, and writing alone is unnecessary when speech is effective. Turning away hides the face and impairs understanding.

Question 17Patient Care and Preparation

Which measure best reduces fall risk during a patient's transfer?

  1. Encourage the patient to walk without assistance
  2. Keep the bed in the lowest position with brakes locked Correct answer.
  3. Raise the bed rails and leave the patient alone
  4. Place the call light out of reach to prevent tampering

Explanation

A low bed with locked brakes prevents the bed from moving and reduces injury if the patient falls. Leaving a patient unattended and encouraging unassisted walking increase risk. The call light must remain within reach.

Question 18Patient Care and Preparation

During a blood draw a patient becomes pale, diaphoretic, and reports feeling faint. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

  1. Sit the patient upright and offer a glass of water
  2. Leave the room to obtain a blood pressure cuff
  3. Complete the draw quickly and then reassess the patient
  4. Stop, lay the patient flat, and elevate the legs Correct answer.

Explanation

These signs suggest a vasovagal response, so the procedure is stopped and the patient is placed supine with the legs elevated to restore cerebral perfusion. Sitting upright worsens venous pooling, and oral fluids are unsafe while the patient is symptomatic. Leaving the patient unattended is unsafe.

Question 19Patient Care and Preparation

A patient becomes unresponsive and is not breathing normally. What should be done first?

  1. Call for help and begin CPR Correct answer.
  2. Place the patient in the recovery position
  3. Give two rescue breaths
  4. Obtain a 12-lead ECG

Explanation

Unresponsiveness with abnormal or absent breathing indicates cardiac arrest, so help is summoned and high-quality CPR started immediately. Rescue breaths without compressions delay circulation, and an ECG does not treat arrest. The recovery position is for a breathing, unresponsive patient.

Question 20Patient Care and Preparation

Which entry is most appropriate for a patient care record?

  1. Patient seemed difficult during the procedure.
  2. At 14:05, patient reported pain rated 6 of 10. Correct answer.
  3. Patient probably had pain but did not say so.
  4. Patient was uncooperative and rude.

Explanation

Documentation should be objective, factual, timed, and free of judgment or speculation. Quoting the patient's own report with a time and a measured value meets these standards. Subjective labels and guesses about the patient's experience are inappropriate.

Question 21Patient Care and Preparation

Before assisting a patient out of bed, which information is most important to confirm?

  1. Preferred television channel and room temperature
  2. Insurance coverage and billing information
  3. Time of the last meal and fluid intake
  4. Weight-bearing status and needed assistive devices Correct answer.

Explanation

Safe transfer depends on knowing how much weight the patient may bear and what devices, such as a walker or gait belt, are needed. Comfort preferences and administrative details do not affect transfer safety. Mealtime may matter for some conditions but is not the primary transfer consideration.

Question 22Patient Care and Preparation

Which approach is best when preparing a young child for a minor procedure?

  1. Use simple words and let the parent stay nearby Correct answer.
  2. Restrain the child before explaining the procedure
  3. Explain the procedure to the parent only
  4. Tell the child the procedure will not hurt at all

Explanation

Children benefit from brief, honest explanations in simple language with a familiar caregiver present for reassurance. Excluding the child or making false promises erodes trust, and restraint before any explanation increases fear.

Question 23Patient Care and Preparation

Which precaution is most important when applying electrodes to an older adult with thin, fragile skin?

  1. Rub the skin vigorously before each electrode
  2. Use the strongest adhesive available to ensure contact
  3. Leave electrodes in place for several days
  4. Use minimal adhesive and remove it gently Correct answer.

Explanation

Fragile skin tears easily, so minimal adhesive and gentle removal prevent skin injury. Strong adhesive and vigorous rubbing increase the risk of tearing and breakdown. Leaving electrodes in place for days raises the risk of irritation and poor contact.

Question 24Patient Care and Preparation

Which precautions are required for a patient with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis?

  1. Airborne precautions with an N95 respirator Correct answer.
  2. Droplet precautions with a surgical mask
  3. Standard precautions only
  4. Contact precautions with gown and gloves

Explanation

Tuberculosis spreads by airborne droplet nuclei, so airborne precautions with a fit-tested N95 or higher respirator and a negative-pressure room are required. Surgical masks and contact precautions alone do not protect against airborne transmission.

Question 25Patient Care and Preparation

During blood pressure measurement, the patient's arm should be positioned in which way?

  1. Supported at the level of the heart Correct answer.
  2. Hanging freely below the waist
  3. Extended and unsupported at shoulder height
  4. Raised above the level of the head

Explanation

The cuff must be at heart level and the arm supported, because hydrostatic effects alter the reading when the arm is above or below the heart. An unsupported arm also adds muscle tension that raises the value.

Question 26Patient Care and Preparation

Before applying ECG electrodes, the technician should confirm the patient's identity using which approach?

  1. Asking the patient to state full name and date of birth Correct answer.
  2. Reading the name band aloud without asking the patient
  3. Confirming the patient's age and home street address
  4. Checking the name written on the room assignment board

Explanation

Two independent identifiers, such as the patient's own statement of name and date of birth matched against the identification band, are required before any procedure. Room boards and verbal band reading alone are not reliable identifiers.

Question 27Patient Care and Preparation

When should the technician perform hand hygiene during a patient encounter?

  1. Only when the hands are visibly soiled with blood or body fluids
  2. Once at the start of the shift, covering all patients that day
  3. Only after removing gloves at the end of the encounter
  4. Before touching the patient and after removing gloves Correct answer.

Explanation

Hand hygiene is required at the start of patient contact and again after glove removal, because gloves do not eliminate the need for hand cleansing. Visible soiling determines the method of hand hygiene, not whether it is performed.

Question 28Patient Care and Preparation

Which instruction should a patient receive when scheduling a treadmill exercise stress test?

  1. Wear tight compression garments to support circulation
  2. Wear loose clothing and comfortable walking shoes Correct answer.
  3. Bring dress shoes to change into at the appointment
  4. Fast for at least twelve hours before the appointment

Explanation

Comfortable clothing and supportive walking or running shoes allow safe ambulation on the treadmill and permit access for electrode placement. Prolonged fasting is not routinely required for exercise testing.

Question 29Patient Care and Preparation

A patient awaiting an ECG reports shortness of breath and prefers to sit upright. Which position should the technician help the patient into?

  1. High Fowler position with the head of the bed elevated Correct answer.
  2. Prone position with the arms at the sides
  3. Trendelenburg position with the head below the feet
  4. Supine position with both legs raised on pillows

Explanation

An upright position such as high Fowler lowers the work of breathing and is the position of comfort for a dyspneic patient. The patient's breathing takes priority, and leads can be adapted to the chosen position.

Question 30Patient Care and Preparation

Which instruction is most important when a patient is sent home wearing a Holter monitor?

  1. Press the event button only when chest pain is severe
  2. Remove the monitor before showering each day
  3. Change the electrodes every four hours on a schedule
  4. Record activities and symptoms along with the time they occur Correct answer.

Explanation

The diary links the patient's symptoms and activities to the recorded rhythm, which is what makes the study interpretable. Electrodes are left undisturbed and the event marker is used for any symptom of interest.

Question 31Patient Care and Preparation

Before applying electrodes for a 24-hour Holter monitor, which action best supports a reliable recording?

  1. Reuse the electrodes left on from the earlier resting ECG
  2. Place all electrodes close together on the sternum
  3. Apply a thin layer of lotion to protect the skin under the pads
  4. Cleanse the skin and clip excessive hair at the electrode sites Correct answer.

Explanation

Clean, dry, hair-free skin gives consistent contact and reduces artifact over a prolonged recording. Lotions, clustered electrodes, and previously used pads all degrade signal quality.

Question 32Patient Care and Preparation

A patient is scheduled for a transesophageal echocardiogram with sedation. Which preparation instruction is correct?

  1. Drink clear fluids freely up to one hour before the test
  2. Eat a light breakfast on the morning of the test
  3. Take nothing by mouth for about six to eight hours before the test Correct answer.
  4. Take all oral medications with a full glass of water just before the test

Explanation

Sedation and passage of the probe into the esophagus create a risk of aspiration, so the stomach must be empty. Food and drink, including clear fluids, are withheld for the interval specified by protocol.

Question 33Patient Care and Preparation

During preparation for a cardiac procedure, a patient reports a latex allergy. Which action should the technician take first?

  1. Continue with latex gloves but double-glove for protection
  2. Apply a barrier cream to the patient's hands before contact
  3. Remove latex items from the area and use latex-free supplies Correct answer.
  4. Record the allergy after the procedure has been completed

Explanation

Latex avoidance is the primary intervention: gloves, tourniquets, blood pressure cuffs, and other latex-containing items are replaced with latex-free alternatives. The allergy must also be documented and communicated to the team.

Question 34Patient Care and Preparation

An adult patient is confused and unable to give informed consent for a procedure. Who is the appropriate person to provide consent?

  1. The person with legal authority to decide for the patient Correct answer.
  2. Any adult family member who happens to be in the room
  3. The technician who will be performing the procedure
  4. The patient's primary care physician

Explanation

When a patient lacks decision-making capacity, consent comes from a legally authorized surrogate, such as a health care agent or court-appointed guardian. Staff performing the procedure cannot consent on the patient's behalf.

Question 35Patient Care and Preparation

A patient on continuous cardiac monitoring must be transported to another department. Which action is most appropriate?

  1. Send the patient with a written note of the last recorded rhythm
  2. Remove the leads so they are not dislodged in the hallway
  3. Disconnect the monitor and document the rhythm before leaving
  4. Arrange continued monitoring during transport and at the destination Correct answer.

Explanation

Monitoring must be uninterrupted so that any arrhythmia occurring during transport is detected and treated. A transport monitor or receiving-unit monitor keeps the patient under surveillance.

Question 36Patient Care and Preparation

A 12-lead ECG must be recorded on a patient whose left arm has been amputated at the shoulder. How should the left arm electrode be placed?

  1. Cancel the ECG and document that it cannot be performed
  2. Attach it to the right arm electrode to complete the circuit
  3. Omit the left arm electrode because the tracing remains interpretable
  4. Place it on the remaining tissue of the left shoulder area Correct answer.

Explanation

When a limb is absent, limb electrodes are moved proximally to the shoulder or hip region on that side to preserve the electrical vectors. The tracing remains diagnostic when placement is adapted this way.

Question 37Patient Care and Preparation

A patient who speaks limited English is scheduled for an exercise stress test. Which approach is best for explaining the procedure?

  1. Ask the patient's young adult child to interpret the instructions
  2. Use a qualified medical interpreter, in person or by telephone Correct answer.
  3. Speak louder and use simple words in English
  4. Hand the patient a written English pamphlet and proceed

Explanation

Meaningful consent and safe cooperation depend on accurate communication through a trained medical interpreter. Untrained interpreters and written English material do not reliably convey procedural instructions.

Question 38Patient Care and Preparation

A patient scheduled for an exercise stress test mentions taking sildenafil the previous evening. Why does this matter for the test?

  1. Sildenafil shortens the QT interval and distorts the ECG
  2. The drug must be restarted as soon as the test is finished
  3. Sildenafil raises the resting heart rate and invalidates the test
  4. Nitroglycerin given during the test could cause profound hypotension Correct answer.

Explanation

Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors markedly potentiate the vasodilator effect of nitrates, producing severe, sometimes refractory hypotension. Nitrates are withheld within the recommended interval after these drugs, and the prescribing provider is notified.

Question 39Patient Care and Preparation

A patient with diabetes who uses insulin is scheduled for a morning exercise stress test. Which preparation is most important?

  1. Give the usual insulin dose and let the patient eat as usual
  2. Skip breakfast and insulin so the test is not delayed
  3. Check the blood glucose before the test and follow the hypoglycemia protocol Correct answer.
  4. Have the patient exercise beforehand to lower blood glucose

Explanation

Exercise increases glucose uptake, so a patient on insulin can become hypoglycemic during or after the test. Glucose is measured beforehand, and the result determines whether the study proceeds and whether a snack or protocol adjustment is needed.

Question 40Patient Care and Preparation

A patient scheduled for a diagnostic exercise stress test takes a beta-blocker. Why might the protocol direct that the drug be withheld before the test?

  1. Beta-blockers interfere with correct placement of the limb leads
  2. Beta-blockers increase the risk of ventricular arrhythmia during exercise
  3. Beta-blockers blunt the heart rate response and can limit the test's value Correct answer.
  4. Beta-blockers commonly cause skin irritation beneath electrodes

Explanation

Beta-blockade suppresses the chronotropic response, so the patient may not reach the target heart rate and the test may be nondiagnostic. Whether to hold the dose is decided by the ordering provider according to protocol, never by the technician alone.

Question 41Basic and Advanced Electrocardiography

At the standard paper speed of 25 mm/s, one small box on the ECG paper represents which time interval?

  1. 0.10 second
  2. 0.04 second Correct answer.
  3. 0.02 second
  4. 0.20 second

Explanation

At 25 mm/s each 1 mm small box equals 0.04 s, and each 5 mm large box equals 0.20 s. Intervals are calculated by counting boxes and multiplying by these values.

Question 42Basic and Advanced Electrocardiography

Which range represents a normal adult PR interval?

  1. 0.20 to 0.24 second
  2. 0.24 to 0.32 second
  3. 0.12 to 0.20 second Correct answer.
  4. 0.06 to 0.10 second

Explanation

The PR interval is measured from the beginning of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex. A normal adult value is 0.12 to 0.20 second, corresponding to three to five small boxes.

Question 43Basic and Advanced Electrocardiography

A QRS duration of 0.16 second in an adult is best described as which of the following?

  1. A normal variant in young adults
  2. Normal at any heart rate
  3. Prolonged ventricular conduction Correct answer.
  4. Evidence of atrial enlargement

Explanation

A normal adult QRS complex is less than 0.12 second. A duration of 0.12 second or more means ventricular depolarisation is slowed, as in bundle branch block, ventricular pacing or a ventricular origin.

Question 44Basic and Advanced Electrocardiography

Two consecutive R waves are separated by exactly four large boxes at a standard paper speed. What is the heart rate?

  1. 60 bpm
  2. 150 bpm
  3. 100 bpm
  4. 75 bpm Correct answer.

Explanation

The 300 method divides 300 by the number of large boxes between R waves. Four large boxes therefore give 300 ÷ 4 = 75 bpm.

Question 45Basic and Advanced Electrocardiography

In normal sinus rhythm, the P wave is expected to be upright in which group of leads?

  1. aVL, V1 and aVR
  2. I, II and aVF Correct answer.
  3. V1, V2 and V3
  4. aVR, III and V1

Explanation

Sinus node activation spreads leftward and inferiorly, producing an upright P wave in leads I, II and aVF. A negative P wave in lead I or aVF suggests an ectopic atrial or junctional focus.

Question 46Basic and Advanced Electrocardiography

Where is the V1 electrode correctly positioned for a standard 12-lead ECG?

  1. Fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border
  2. Fifth intercostal space in the anterior axillary line
  3. Second intercostal space at the right sternal border
  4. Fourth intercostal space at the right sternal border Correct answer.

Explanation

The precordial electrodes follow a fixed sequence: V1 sits at the fourth intercostal space at the right sternal border, V2 opposite at the left sternal border, and V4 at the fifth intercostal space in the midclavicular line.

Question 47Basic and Advanced Electrocardiography

Which feature best distinguishes a premature ventricular complex from a premature atrial complex?

  1. It is preceded by an early, abnormally shaped P wave
  2. It resets the sinus node and alters the next P wave timing
  3. It is wide and bizarre with no preceding P wave Correct answer.
  4. It is always followed by a normal sinus beat

Explanation

A premature ventricular complex originates below the AV node, so ventricular activation is slow and produces a wide, bizarre QRS with a discordant T wave and no preceding P wave. A premature atrial complex conducts normally and is preceded by an ectopic P wave.

Question 48Basic and Advanced Electrocardiography

Which factor most commonly produces a wandering baseline on an ECG tracing?

  1. Skeletal muscle tremor
  2. Respiration and patient movement Correct answer.
  3. An incorrect paper speed setting
  4. Sixty-hertz electrical interference

Explanation

Wandering baseline is a low-frequency drift caused by respiration, sweating or patient movement altering electrode-to-skin contact. It is recognised by its slow, rolling character rather than rapid spiky noise.

Question 49Basic and Advanced Electrocardiography

Which combination of findings is most characteristic of atrial fibrillation?

  1. Regular rhythm with sawtooth flutter waves
  2. Grouped beating with progressive PR prolongation
  3. Irregularly irregular rhythm with absent P waves Correct answer.
  4. Regular rhythm with a P wave before every QRS

Explanation

In atrial fibrillation the atria fibrillate instead of contracting in a coordinated way, so no discrete P waves are seen and AV conduction is random, producing an irregularly irregular ventricular response.

Question 50Basic and Advanced Electrocardiography

A regular narrow-complex tachycardia at 150 bpm shows continuous sawtooth waves in leads II, III and aVF. What is the most likely rhythm?

  1. Ventricular tachycardia
  2. Atrioventricular nodal reentry tachycardia
  3. Atrial flutter with 2:1 conduction Correct answer.
  4. Sinus tachycardia

Explanation

Atrial flutter usually has an atrial rate near 300 bpm, so 2:1 AV conduction yields a ventricular rate of about 150 bpm. Sawtooth flutter waves in the inferior leads confirm the diagnosis.