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Sale-Leaseback or Refinance for an Owner-Occupant

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Sale-Leaseback or Refinance for an Owner-Occupant

A 60,000 SF owner-occupied industrial building appraises at $9,000,000 on a 6.75% cap rate; the owner's imputed NOI is $607,500. The owner occupies 45,000 SF and leaves 15,000 SF vacant; market rent is $13.50/SF NNN and that space could be leased within about a year. A $6,300,000 balloon matures in eight months. The bank will refinance at 65% LTV, 7.00%, 25-year amortization, with $60,000 of costs, which forces a cash injection. An investor has offered $9,000,000 for a 15-year sale-leaseback of the 45,000 SF at $13.50/SF NNN with 2% annual bumps, taking the vacant space as-is. Adjusted basis is $4,000,000, including $2,200,000 of depreciation taken; combined tax on recapture and gain runs about 25%. Selling costs are 2%, defeasance $95,000. The owner has $500,000 of cash available.

1. Compute the cash required or received under each path, including after-tax proceeds from the sale.

Read the worked answer

Refinance path

  • New loan = 65% × $9,000,000 = $5,850,000.
  • Cash needed = $6,300,000 payoff + $60,000 costs − $5,850,000 = $510,000.
  • The owner has $500,000 - $10,000 short, which is a signal that the property is at its leverage limit for this lender.

Sale-leaseback path (pre-tax)

  • Price $9,000,000 − 2% selling costs ($180,000) − defeasance ($95,000) − payoff ($6,300,000) = $2,425,000.

After-tax

  • Amount realized = $8,820,000; gain = $8,820,000 − $4,000,000 = $4,820,000.
  • Unrecaptured depreciation: $2,200,000 × 25% = $550,000.
  • Remaining long-term gain: $2,620,000 × 25% = $655,000.
  • Total tax ≈ $1,205,000; after-tax cash ≈ $1,220,000.

The headline $2.4 million of sale proceeds shrinks to about $1.22 million after tax - roughly 13.6% of the asset's value. That is the number to compare, not the gross proceeds.

2. Compare year-1 and year-15 occupancy cost under each path. What happens to the owner's equity position?

Read the worked answer

Refinance

  • Annual debt service: $5,850,000 × 0.0070684 × 12 = $496,200 (fixed for 25 years).
  • Add non-recoverable owner costs and reserves of about $90,000 = $586,200 of cash cost in year 1.
  • Once the 15,000 SF is leased at $13.50, it contributes $202,500, dropping the net cost to about $383,700.

Leaseback

  • Year-1 rent = 45,000 × $13.50 = $607,500, escalating 2% annually.
  • Year 15 rent = $607,500 × 1.02^14 = about $801,600.

The comparison

  • Year 1 cash cost is nearly a wash ($586,200 owning versus $607,500 leasing), with the vacant space providing all of the ownership upside.
  • By year 15 the lease costs $801,600 while the mortgage payment is still $496,200 - a $305,000 annual gap that widens every year. Renting a 15-year term with 2% bumps against fixed-rate debt is the expensive way to finance occupancy.
  • The owner also loses the depreciation shield: roughly $7,200,000 of depreciable basis over 39 years is about $184,600 per year, worth about $46,000 annually at a 25% rate.
  • Equity position: under the refinance, the loan amortizes to roughly $3,560,000 by year 15 - about $2,290,000 of principal build-up - and the owner still holds an asset likely worth well over $9,000,000. Under the leaseback the owner holds $1.22 million of after-tax cash and no residual.

On cost and wealth accumulation, refinancing is materially better if the property is held long term.

3. Make a recommendation and list the conditions that would flip it.

Read the worked answer

Recommendation: refinance, not sell - provided the owner can close the roughly $510,000 gap and lease the 15,000 SF within 12–18 months.

Why

  • The sale-leaseback converts a $9 million asset into $1.22 million of after-tax cash, gives up $2.7 million of current equity and all future appreciation, and replaces fixed-rate debt with rent that grows 2% per year for 15 years.
  • The apparent cheapness of the leaseback - $607,500 of rent on $9,000,000 of value, or 6.75% - is misleading. That 6.75% buys no residual, escalates, and is paid for 15 years; the mortgage costs 7.00% but amortizes, is fixed, and leaves the owner the building.
  • The 15,000 SF of vacant space is worth $202,500 per year; in the sale-leaseback the buyer captures that upside, not the owner.

What would flip the recommendation

  1. The owner cannot close the $510,000 gap and cannot find a subordinate lender or equity partner for it.
  2. The business needs growth capital now - $1.22 million of after-tax, covenant-free cash may be worth more inside the business than inside the real estate.
  3. The 15,000 SF cannot be leased within 12–18 months, turning the ownership case into a purely imputed-rent argument.
  4. Cap rates are believed to be near a cyclical low; locking a 6.75% cap on aging industrial space may beat holding through a repricing.
  5. The owner's realistic horizon is under seven years, where the leaseback's cost escalation has not yet compounded and the mortgage amortization has not built meaningful equity.
  6. Deferred capital needs exist that the owner cannot fund but the new buyer will price into the cap rate anyway.

Structural note: if the owner does sell, negotiate rent at a fixed rate for the first five years, a purchase option or right of first refusal at year 10, and a cap on the buyer's ability to finance against the lease - an all-cash buyer with a 6.75% yield requirement is a very different landlord than a leveraged one.