I85PREP
⌘ K
CIDESCO Theory study materials
CIDESCO Theory study resources

CIDESCO Theory practice questions

One question at a time. Build your CIDESCO Theory understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which layer of the skin contains the hair follicles, sebaceous glands and sweat glands?

  1. Subcutaneous layer
  2. Epidermis
  3. Stratum corneum
  4. Dermis Correct answer.

Explanation

The dermis is the connective tissue layer beneath the epidermis and houses the hair follicles, sebaceous glands, sweat glands and blood vessels. The epidermis is an avascular epithelium, so the appendages it contains are only the openings of ducts that originate deeper. The subcutaneous layer consists mainly of adipose tissue and larger vessels.

Question 2Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

In which area of the body are eccrine sweat glands most numerous?

  1. The skin of the scalp
  2. The skin of the back
  3. The skin of the legs
  4. Palms and soles Correct answer.

Explanation

Eccrine glands are most densely distributed on the palms, soles and forehead, where their watery secretion supports grip and thermoregulation. The trunk and limbs carry far fewer per unit area. Their ducts open directly onto the skin surface.

Question 3Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Nail growth takes place at which structure?

  1. The lunula
  2. The nail plate
  3. Nail matrix Correct answer.
  4. The nail bed

Explanation

The nail matrix lies at the proximal end of the nail unit and produces the keratinised cells that become the nail plate. As cells are produced, the plate is pushed forward over the nail bed. The visible white lunula is simply the part of the matrix showing through the plate.

Question 4Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which phase of the hair growth cycle is the active growing phase?

  1. Catagen
  2. Exogen
  3. Telogen
  4. Anagen Correct answer.

Explanation

Anagen is the active phase in which cells of the hair bulb divide and the hair shaft lengthens. Catagen is a short transitional phase of regression, telogen is the resting phase, and exogen is the shedding of the old hair.

Question 5Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which statement best describes arteries?

  1. Are the site of exchange of gases and nutrients
  2. Are thin-walled reservoirs that store blood
  3. Carry blood towards the heart and contain valves
  4. Carry blood away from the heart Correct answer.

Explanation

Arteries are thick-walled, muscular vessels that carry blood away from the heart and withstand high pressure. Veins return blood to the heart and contain valves to prevent backflow, while exchange occurs in the capillaries.

Question 6Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which type of muscle is involuntary and found in the walls of blood vessels and internal organs?

  1. Smooth muscle Correct answer.
  2. Cardiac muscle
  3. Voluntary striated muscle
  4. Skeletal muscle

Explanation

Smooth muscle is non-striated and involuntary and forms the walls of hollow organs and blood vessels. Cardiac muscle is also involuntary but is striated and confined to the heart, while skeletal muscle is voluntary and striated.

Question 7Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

What is a primary function of the lymphatic system?

  1. Return of tissue fluid and immune defence Correct answer.
  2. Transport of oxygen from the lungs to the tissues
  3. Regulation of blood glucose by hormones
  4. Production of digestive enzymes in the gut

Explanation

Lymphatic vessels collect excess interstitial fluid and return it to the venous circulation, and lymphoid tissue houses lymphocytes that provide immune defence. Oxygen transport is a function of blood, and enzyme and hormone production belong to other organ systems.

Question 8Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which organ produces insulin?

  1. Adrenal gland
  2. Pancreas Correct answer.
  3. Pituitary gland
  4. Thyroid gland

Explanation

Insulin is secreted by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas and lowers blood glucose. The thyroid produces thyroxine, the adrenal glands produce cortisol and adrenaline, and the pituitary produces trophic hormones.

Question 9Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

What is the typical pH of healthy skin surface?

  1. Slightly alkaline, about pH 7.5 to 8.5
  2. Slightly acidic, about pH 4.5 to 5.5 Correct answer.
  3. Strongly acidic, about pH 1 to 2
  4. Neutral, about pH 7.0

Explanation

Healthy skin carries an acid mantle formed from sebum, sweat and breakdown products such as lactic acid and free fatty acids, giving a surface pH of roughly 4.5 to 5.5. This acidity helps suppress pathogenic bacteria and supports barrier function.

Question 10Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

In the healing of a clean surgical wound, which process occurs first?

  1. Formation of a platelet clot Correct answer.
  2. Proliferation of fibroblasts and new collagen
  3. Contraction of the wound edges
  4. Remodelling of collagen fibres

Explanation

Healing begins with haemostasis, in which platelets aggregate and a fibrin clot seals the wound. Fibroblast proliferation and new collagen belong to the proliferative phase, and remodelling and wound contraction occur later still.

Question 11Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which cell structure controls the activities of the cell and contains the genetic material?

  1. Ribosome
  2. Nucleus Correct answer.
  3. Mitochondrion
  4. Golgi apparatus

Explanation

The nucleus contains the chromosomes, made of DNA, which direct protein synthesis and therefore all cell activities. Mitochondria generate energy, ribosomes build proteins and the Golgi apparatus modifies and packages secretions.

Question 12Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which receptors in the skin detect light touch?

  1. Meissner's corpuscles Correct answer.
  2. Cutaneous nociceptors
  3. Deep dermal Pacinian corpuscles
  4. Dermal thermoreceptors

Explanation

Meissner's corpuscles lie in the dermal papillae of hairless skin and respond to light touch and low-frequency vibration. Pacinian corpuscles detect deep pressure and vibration, nociceptors detect pain and thermoreceptors detect temperature.

Question 13Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Acne vulgaris develops primarily from which combination of factors?

  1. Excess sebum, blocked ducts and bacteria Correct answer.
  2. Allergic reaction to cosmetic ingredients
  3. Autoimmune destruction of the sebaceous gland
  4. Viral infection of the hair follicle

Explanation

Acne arises when increased sebum production is combined with hyperkeratinisation of the follicle, colonisation by Cutibacterium acnes and resulting inflammation. It is not infectious, allergic or autoimmune in origin.

Question 14Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which response of the skin helps to lower body temperature in a hot environment?

  1. Contraction of the arrector pili muscles
  2. Constriction of the dermal arterioles
  3. Increased secretion of sebum by glands
  4. Vasodilation and increased sweating Correct answer.

Explanation

In heat, dermal arterioles dilate so more warm blood reaches the surface and loses heat by radiation, while sweat evaporation removes further heat. Vasoconstriction and arrector pili contraction conserve heat in the cold.

Question 15Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which change in the skin is most associated with intrinsic ageing?

  1. Increased sebum production
  2. Loss of collagen and elastin Correct answer.
  3. Increase in subcutaneous fat
  4. Thickening of the epidermis

Explanation

Intrinsic ageing reduces the number and quality of collagen and elastin fibres, so the skin loses firmness and elasticity. The epidermis thins, sebum production falls and subcutaneous fat is lost rather than increased.

Question 16Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

A verruca (plantar wart) is caused by which organism?

  1. Herpes simplex virus
  2. A dermatophyte fungus
  3. Staphylococcus aureus
  4. Papillomavirus Correct answer.

Explanation

Verrucae are caused by human papillomavirus, which infects keratinocytes of the epidermis and produces a thickened, rough lesion. Dermatophytes cause tinea infections, Staphylococcus aureus causes impetigo and herpes simplex causes cold sores.

Question 17Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Where does gas exchange take place in the lungs?

  1. In the bronchi
  2. In the trachea
  3. In the pleural cavity
  4. In the alveoli Correct answer.

Explanation

Alveoli are tiny air sacs with walls only one cell thick, surrounded by capillaries, allowing oxygen and carbon dioxide to diffuse between air and blood. The bronchi and trachea are conducting airways, and the pleural cavity is the space around the lungs.

Question 18Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

The main barrier function of the epidermis is provided by which layer?

  1. Stratum spinosum
  2. Stratum basale
  3. Stratum granulosum
  4. Stratum corneum Correct answer.

Explanation

The stratum corneum consists of flattened, keratinised cells surrounded by lipid, forming the main physical and water-retaining barrier. The deeper layers are living cells concerned with division, keratin production and cell cohesion.

Question 19Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Allergic contact dermatitis is best described as which type of reaction?

  1. A bacterial infection of the dermis
  2. An immediate antibody response to pollen
  3. A hereditary disorder of keratin formation
  4. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction Correct answer.

Explanation

Allergic contact dermatitis is a delayed, T-cell-mediated type IV hypersensitivity reaction to a contact allergen. It differs from an immediate antibody-mediated allergy and is not a bacterial infection or inherited keratin disorder.

Question 20Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

In the ABCDE rule for assessing a pigmented lesion, what does the letter E stand for?

  1. Elevation
  2. Elasticity
  3. Erythema
  4. Evolving Correct answer.

Explanation

The ABCDE rule covers Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, Diameter over 6 mm and Evolving, meaning any change in size, shape or colour or the appearance of new symptoms. Evolution is the most important warning sign of possible melanoma.

Question 21Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which is a function of red blood cells?

  1. Clotting of blood at a wound site
  2. Phagocytosis of invading bacteria
  3. Production of antibodies by lymphocytes
  4. Oxygen transport by haemoglobin Correct answer.

Explanation

Red blood cells are packed with haemoglobin, which binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it in the tissues. Antibodies are made by plasma cells, clotting involves platelets and clotting factors, and phagocytosis is carried out by neutrophils and macrophages.

Question 22Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which structure supplies nutrients to the cells of the hair bulb?

  1. Medulla
  2. Sebaceous gland
  3. Arrector pili muscle
  4. Dermal papilla Correct answer.

Explanation

The dermal papilla sits at the base of the follicle and contains capillaries that deliver oxygen and nutrients to the actively dividing cells of the hair bulb. The arrector pili is a muscle, the sebaceous gland secretes sebum and the medulla is the central core of the hair shaft.

Question 23Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

A keratolytic agent is used in cosmetic practice to do what?

  1. Increase the secretion of sebum
  2. Numb the sensory nerve endings
  3. Soften and loosen the horny layer Correct answer.
  4. Constrict the blood vessels of the dermis

Explanation

Keratolytics break down the bonds between corneocytes so thickened keratin can be shed, which is useful in hyperkeratotic conditions. They do not act on blood vessels, sebum production or nerve sensation.

Question 24Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

What is the main function of the kidneys?

  1. Secrete insulin
  2. Produce digestive enzymes
  3. Store urine until it is excreted
  4. Filter blood and remove waste Correct answer.

Explanation

The kidneys filter plasma through the glomeruli, reabsorb useful substances and excrete waste and excess water as urine, while also regulating fluid balance and blood pressure. Urine storage is the role of the bladder.

Question 25Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

After a primary infection, herpes simplex virus typically does what?

  1. Remains dormant in nerve ganglia Correct answer.
  2. Is completely eliminated by the immune system
  3. Multiplies only on the stratum corneum surface
  4. Spreads only through the bloodstream

Explanation

After the primary infection the virus travels along sensory nerves and becomes latent in the dorsal root or trigeminal ganglia, where it can reactivate to cause recurrent lesions. It is never fully cleared, and spread is by direct contact rather than by blood.

Question 26Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which type of joint allows movement in only one plane, such as the elbow?

  1. Saddle joint
  2. Ball-and-socket joint
  3. Pivot joint
  4. Hinge joint Correct answer.

Explanation

Hinge joints permit flexion and extension in a single plane, and the elbow is the classic example. Ball-and-socket joints allow movement in multiple axes, pivot joints allow rotation, and saddle joints allow two planes of movement.

Question 27Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart?

  1. Vena cava
  2. Pulmonary vein Correct answer.
  3. Pulmonary artery
  4. Aorta

Explanation

The pulmonary vein returns oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium. The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs, while the aorta and vena cava serve the systemic circulation.

Question 28Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which layer of the skin contains sweat glands, hair follicles and sebaceous glands?

  1. Epidermis
  2. Dermis Correct answer.
  3. Subcutaneous layer
  4. Stratum corneum

Explanation

The dermis is the connective tissue layer that houses sweat glands, hair follicles, sebaceous glands, blood vessels and nerve endings. The epidermis is avascular epithelium, and the subcutaneous layer is mainly adipose tissue.

Question 29Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which muscle is the principal muscle of inspiration during quiet breathing?

  1. Diaphragm Correct answer.
  2. External intercostal
  3. Rectus abdominis
  4. Sternocleidomastoid

Explanation

The diaphragm contracts and flattens during quiet inspiration, increasing thoracic volume and drawing air into the lungs. The external intercostals assist, while sternocleidomastoid and rectus abdominis are accessory or expiratory muscles.

Question 30Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which cells in the epidermis are responsible for producing the pigment melanin?

  1. Melanocytes Correct answer.
  2. Langerhans cells
  3. Merkel cells
  4. Keratinocytes

Explanation

Melanocytes synthesise melanin and transfer it to surrounding keratinocytes, providing protection against ultraviolet radiation. Keratinocytes produce keratin, Langerhans cells are immune cells, and Merkel cells are touch receptors.

Question 31Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which hormone is released from the adrenal medulla as part of the fight-or-flight response?

  1. Cortisol
  2. Aldosterone
  3. Thyroxine
  4. Adrenaline Correct answer.

Explanation

The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines, mainly adrenaline, which raise heart rate and mobilise energy during stress. Cortisol and aldosterone come from the adrenal cortex, and thyroxine comes from the thyroid gland.

Question 32Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

What is the primary function of platelets in the blood?

  1. Carry oxygen
  2. Cause clotting Correct answer.
  3. Make antibodies
  4. Digest microbes

Explanation

Platelets are cell fragments that aggregate at damaged vessel walls and release factors that initiate clot formation. Oxygen transport is carried out by red blood cells, antibodies are made by plasma cells, and microbes are digested by phagocytes.

Question 33Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which phase of the hair growth cycle is the active growth phase?

  1. Anagen Correct answer.
  2. Exogen
  3. Catagen
  4. Telogen

Explanation

Anagen is the active growth phase in which cells in the hair bulb divide and the hair shaft lengthens. Catagen is transitional, telogen is resting, and exogen is shedding.

Question 34Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which vitamin is essential for collagen synthesis during wound healing?

  1. Vitamin D
  2. Vitamin C Correct answer.
  3. Vitamin A
  4. Vitamin K

Explanation

Vitamin C is required for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine in collagen, so deficiency impairs wound healing. Vitamin K is needed for clotting, vitamin D for calcium metabolism, and vitamin A for epithelialisation.

Question 35Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which type of immunity is present from birth and provides immediate, non-specific defence?

  1. Active immunity
  2. Passive immunity
  3. Acquired immunity
  4. Innate immunity Correct answer.

Explanation

Innate immunity is present at birth and acts immediately but non-specifically, through barriers, phagocytes and inflammation. Acquired immunity develops after exposure, and active and passive immunity are subdivisions of acquired immunity.

Question 36Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

A patient presents with well-defined plaques covered by silvery scales on the elbows and knees. Which condition is most likely?

  1. Tinea corporis
  2. Eczema
  3. Urticaria
  4. Psoriasis Correct answer.

Explanation

Psoriasis classically produces well-demarcated plaques with silvery scale on extensor surfaces such as elbows and knees. Eczema is usually itchy and flexural, tinea corporis has an active scaly border, and urticaria causes transient wheals.

Question 37Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

What is the main function of sebaceous glands?

  1. Produce sweat
  2. Detect pressure
  3. Regulate body temperature
  4. Secrete sebum Correct answer.

Explanation

Sebaceous glands secrete sebum, an oily substance that lubricates skin and hair and helps maintain the skin barrier. Sweat production and thermoregulation are functions of sweat glands, while pressure detection is a function of sensory receptors.

Question 38Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Anaphylaxis is an example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

  1. Type I (immediate) Correct answer.
  2. Type III (immune complex)
  3. Type II (cytotoxic)
  4. Type IV (delayed)

Explanation

Anaphylaxis is a Type I immediate hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE antibodies and mast cell degranulation. Type II involves cell-bound antigen, Type III involves immune complexes, and Type IV is T-cell mediated and delayed.

Question 39Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which part of the brain regulates body temperature, hunger and thirst?

  1. Hypothalamus Correct answer.
  2. Cerebrum
  3. Medulla oblongata
  4. Cerebellum

Explanation

The hypothalamus is the homeostatic control centre that regulates temperature, hunger, thirst and endocrine activity. The cerebrum handles conscious thought, the cerebellum coordinates movement, and the medulla controls vital reflexes.

Question 40Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology

Which structure anchors the epidermis to the underlying dermis?

  1. Arrector pili muscle
  2. Stratum basale
  3. Basement membrane Correct answer.
  4. Papillary dermis

Explanation

The basement membrane is a specialised layer at the dermo-epidermal junction that attaches basal keratinocytes to the dermis. The stratum basale is the deepest epidermal layer, the arrector pili muscle attaches to hair follicles, and the papillary dermis is the upper dermal layer.

Question 41Skin Care & Facial Treatments

A client's skin has a smooth, fine texture, pores that are barely visible, and no areas of oiliness or dryness. How is this skin type best classified?

  1. Combination
  2. Normal Correct answer.
  3. Oily
  4. Dry

Explanation

Normal skin has a balanced sebum and moisture level, which gives it a fine, even texture and small, inconspicuous pores. It shows no greasy shine in the T-zone and no flaking or tightness on the cheeks.

Question 42Skin Care & Facial Treatments

The surface pH of healthy skin is approximately:

  1. 5.5 Correct answer.
  2. 7.0
  3. 9.0
  4. 3.0

Explanation

Healthy skin surface sits at about pH 4.5 to 5.5, which is mildly acidic and supports the barrier and resident flora. Products formulated near this range are best tolerated.

Question 43Skin Care & Facial Treatments

Which product is applied at the start of a basic facial to lift makeup, surface oil and debris?

  1. Exfoliating scrub
  2. Moisturising cream
  3. Cleansing milk or gel Correct answer.
  4. Clay mask

Explanation

Cleansing is the first active step of a facial and uses a surfactant-based milk, gel or cream to emulsify makeup, sebum and debris. Later steps such as exfoliation and masking depend on a clean surface to work effectively.

Question 44Skin Care & Facial Treatments

What is the main purpose of facial steaming within a treatment?

  1. Chemically dissolving dead surface cells
  2. Shrinking the pores permanently
  3. Softening sebum and keratin for easier extraction Correct answer.
  4. Reducing sebum production in the gland

Explanation

Warm steam hydrates and softens the keratin layer and liquefies sebum, so comedones release more easily during extraction. Pores are anatomical openings and cannot be shrunk permanently by steam or cold.

Question 45Skin Care & Facial Treatments

Which classical massage movement uses light, rapid, alternating tapping movements to stimulate the skin?

  1. Friction
  2. Effleurage
  3. Petrissage
  4. Tapotement Correct answer.

Explanation

Tapotement (percussion) is a brisk, rhythmic tapping or hacking movement used briefly to stimulate circulation and nerve endings. It is used sparingly on the face and is avoided on sensitive or couperose skin.

Question 46Skin Care & Facial Treatments

In which direction is facial lymphatic drainage massage performed?

  1. Outward from the lymph nodes towards the fingertips
  2. Upward from the clavicle towards the forehead
  3. In firm circles directly over the lymph nodes
  4. From the periphery of the face towards the regional lymph nodes Correct answer.

Explanation

Lymph flows towards the regional nodes, so drainage strokes travel from the periphery of the face towards the pre-auricular, submandibular and cervical nodes. Pressure is very light, since lymph vessels lie superficially.

Question 47Skin Care & Facial Treatments

Which finding is an absolute contraindication for facial massage?

  1. Mild seborrhoea of the T-zone
  2. Skin with visible blackheads
  3. Mature skin with fine lines
  4. An active cold sore lesion Correct answer.

Explanation

An active herpes simplex lesion is infectious and massage would spread the virus across the face and to the therapist's hands. Massage is deferred until the lesion has completely healed.

Question 48Skin Care & Facial Treatments

What is the role of desincrustation in a galvanic facial treatment?

  1. Removing fine vellus hair from the face
  2. Softening and saponifying sebum within the follicle Correct answer.
  3. Producing a cooling, vasoconstricting effect
  4. Driving water-soluble actives into the skin

Explanation

Desincrustation uses the negative (alkaline) pole to saponify sebum and loosen follicular contents, preparing congested skin for extraction. It is followed by extraction and then by a soothing, often positive-pole, application.

Question 49Skin Care & Facial Treatments

How should manual comedone extraction be carried out?

  1. Squeezing every lesion regardless of the skin's reaction
  2. Piercing the lesion with a needle before squeezing
  3. Firm pressure with the fingernails until the contents are expelled
  4. Gentle pressure after the skin has been softened with warm steam Correct answer.

Explanation

Extraction is performed with two fingers wrapped in tissue or with a comedo extractor, using controlled pressure on pre-softened skin. If the contents do not release easily, the attempt is abandoned to avoid trauma and scarring.

Question 50Skin Care & Facial Treatments

What is the primary action of an exfoliant used during a facial?

  1. Hydrating the stratum corneum
  2. Constricting the superficial blood vessels
  3. Removing dead cells from the stratum corneum Correct answer.
  4. Increasing sebum production

Explanation

Exfoliants loosen and remove corneocytes from the outermost layer, leaving a smoother surface and improving the penetration of subsequent products. Over-exfoliation damages the barrier, so frequency and strength must be matched to the skin.