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CRSS practice questions

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Question 1Safety and Health Management Systems

According to the hierarchy of controls, which strategy is the most reliable way to protect workers from a hazard?

  1. Engineering controls
  2. Personal protective equipment
  3. Elimination Correct answer.
  4. Administrative controls

Explanation

The hierarchy of controls ranks strategies by how much they depend on human behavior, with elimination at the top and PPE at the bottom. Eliminating the hazard removes the exposure entirely, so protection does not rely on worker action or vigilance. Lower-ranked controls such as PPE only work when equipment is correctly selected, fitted, and worn every time.

Question 2Safety and Health Management Systems

Which of the following is a leading indicator of safety performance?

  1. Workers' compensation claims paid
  2. Total recordable case rate
  3. Number of hazard reports submitted by crews Correct answer.
  4. Days away, restricted, or transferred rate

Explanation

Leading indicators measure preventive activities and conditions that occur before harm, such as hazard reports, inspections completed, or training hours delivered. Lagging indicators measure outcomes that have already happened, including injury rates and claim costs. Because hazard reporting is proactive, it can signal risk before an injury occurs.

Question 3Safety and Health Management Systems

What is the primary purpose of a job hazard analysis?

  1. To file employee training certificates
  2. To assign blame for recent incidents
  3. To break a job into steps to find hazards Correct answer.
  4. To calculate the cost of corrective actions

Explanation

A job hazard analysis divides a task into sequential steps, identifies the hazards present at each step, and specifies controls before work begins. It is a proactive planning tool used to write procedures and select controls. Records of incidents, costs, and training are separate documents that serve different purposes.

Question 4Safety and Health Management Systems

Under OSHA requirements, who must pay for required personal protective equipment that employees use on the job?

  1. The site owner
  2. The employee
  3. The PPE manufacturer
  4. The employer Correct answer.

Explanation

OSHA requires employers to provide required PPE at no cost to employees, with a narrow set of exceptions for items that employees may reasonably be expected to own, such as non-specialty safety footwear. The duty follows the employer's obligation to protect workers from recognized hazards. Manufacturers and site owners have no such payment obligation to the worker.

Question 5Safety and Health Management Systems

A near miss is best described as which of the following?

  1. Any injury requiring medical treatment
  2. An unplanned event that could have caused harm Correct answer.
  3. Damage to equipment above a set dollar value
  4. A first-aid case entered on the OSHA 300 log

Explanation

A near miss is an unplanned event that did not result in injury or damage but had the potential to do so. Reporting near misses gives an organization free information about hazards before someone is harmed. Cases involving treatment, damage thresholds, or log entries describe outcomes rather than near misses.

Question 6Safety and Health Management Systems

Within what time frame must an employer enter a newly identified recordable case on the OSHA 300 log?

  1. 1 business day
  2. 7 calendar days Correct answer.
  3. By the end of the calendar year
  4. 30 calendar days

Explanation

OSHA requires employers to record a case on the 300 log within seven calendar days after learning that it is recordable. The clock starts when the employer receives the information, not when the injury occurred. Waiting until year-end or a monthly cycle would not satisfy the requirement.

Question 7Safety and Health Management Systems

Which action most clearly demonstrates top management commitment to a safety and health management system?

  1. Posting the safety policy in the trailer
  2. Requiring signed attendance at meetings
  3. Managers join weekly walks and fix hazards Correct answer.
  4. Handing out PPE catalogs at orientation

Explanation

Visible, sustained participation by leaders in hazard identification and correction shows that safety is a real operational priority and allocates resources to it. Commitment is judged by what leaders do and fund, not by documents or attendance sheets. Posting policies and distributing materials are supporting activities but do not by themselves demonstrate commitment.

Question 8Safety and Health Management Systems

An emergency action plan for a construction site must include a procedure for which of the following?

  1. Calculating the experience modification rate
  2. Selecting subcontractors
  3. Scheduling toolbox talks
  4. Accounting for staff after evacuation Correct answer.

Explanation

An emergency action plan must describe evacuation routes, emergency roles, alarm systems, and a way to account for everyone after an evacuation. Head counts and designated assembly areas let rescuers know whether anyone is missing. The other items are unrelated to emergency response.

Question 9Safety and Health Management Systems

Concrete saws on a site expose operators to noise above 95 dBA, and the task cannot be eliminated. Following the hierarchy of controls, which action should be taken first?

  1. Issue hearing protection and train on its use
  2. Post a hearing conservation sign at the work area
  3. Purchase quieter saws with shrouded blades Correct answer.
  4. Rotate operators to limit exposure time

Explanation

Once elimination is ruled out, the hierarchy directs the employer to engineering controls before administrative controls and PPE. Buying quieter equipment reduces noise at the source, protecting everyone nearby without relying on worker behavior. Rotation, training, and signage are lower-order measures that leave the hazard in place.

Question 10Safety and Health Management Systems

An employer recorded 6 OSHA recordable cases during a year in which employees worked 250,000 hours. What is the total recordable case rate per 200,000 hours worked?

  1. 2.4
  2. 6.0
  3. 4.8 Correct answer.
  4. 12.0

Explanation

The recordable case rate equals the number of cases multiplied by 200,000 and divided by hours worked, which is 6 x 200,000 / 250,000 = 4.8. The 200,000-hour base represents roughly 100 full-time workers for a year. Using the case count alone ignores exposure hours and cannot be compared across employers.

Question 11Safety and Health Management Systems

In an incident investigation, which finding is a root cause rather than a direct cause?

  1. The saw was running at full speed when contact occurred
  2. The operator's hand contacted the rotating blade
  3. The site had no process for restoring guards after maintenance Correct answer.
  4. The guard was removed the day before the incident

Explanation

A root cause is a system-level condition that allowed the event to happen and would allow it to recur, such as the absence of a process for reinstalling guards. Direct causes describe the immediate mechanism of the event. Correcting only direct causes leaves the underlying gap in place.

Question 12Safety and Health Management Systems

After a scaffold collapse, a company revises its scaffold inspection procedure and retrains its competent persons. This step is best classified as which of the following?

  1. A management review input
  2. A lagging indicator
  3. A hazard elimination control
  4. A corrective action Correct answer.

Explanation

A corrective action addresses the underlying cause of an identified nonconformity so that it does not recur. Revising the inspection procedure and retraining competent persons corrects the system gap that allowed the collapse. A preventive action, by contrast, addresses a potential problem before it occurs.

Question 13Safety and Health Management Systems

Which activity is required as part of worker participation in a safety management system conforming to ISO 45001?

  1. Certifying the internal audit results
  2. Signing off on the legal register
  3. Approving the annual safety budget
  4. Participating in incident investigations Correct answer.

Explanation

ISO 45001 requires consultation and participation of workers in areas such as hazard identification, risk assessment, incident investigation, and the development of safety policy. These activities give workers direct influence over the conditions they face. Budget approval, audit certification, and legal register sign-off remain management responsibilities.

Question 14Safety and Health Management Systems

Which statement best distinguishes a safety audit from a routine safety inspection?

  1. Audits are performed only by regulators
  2. Inspections are annual and audits are weekly
  3. Audits check system conformance; inspections check conditions Correct answer.
  4. Inspections always require a written report and audits never do

Explanation

An audit evaluates whether the management system conforms to its own requirements and to a standard, using sampling and documented evidence. An inspection typically examines physical conditions and work practices at a point in time. Both can be conducted internally and both should produce documented findings.

Question 15Safety and Health Management Systems

A risk matrix used in a safety management system combines which two factors?

  1. Likelihood and severity Correct answer.
  2. Severity and duration of exposure
  3. Cost and schedule impact
  4. Frequency and cost

Explanation

Risk is conventionally assessed as the combination of the likelihood that a hazardous event occurs and the severity of the harm if it does. Plotting those two dimensions on a matrix yields a risk rating that guides control selection. Cost and schedule are business considerations, not risk dimensions.

Question 16Safety and Health Management Systems

Before awarding a contract, a general contractor reviews subcontractors' injury rates, written safety program, and citation history. This practice is known as which of the following?

  1. A job hazard analysis
  2. Contractor prequalification Correct answer.
  3. A toolbox talk
  4. A management review

Explanation

Contractor prequalification screens prospective subcontractors on safety performance and program elements before work is awarded. The purpose is to select firms whose safety capabilities match the risk of the scope of work. The other activities occur after selection or relate to individual tasks.

Question 17Safety and Health Management Systems

Which event most clearly triggers refresher hazard training for an individual worker?

  1. The company hires a new safety manager
  2. The project schedule slips by two weeks
  3. The worker's annual performance review is scheduled
  4. The worker is reassigned to a task with new hazards Correct answer.

Explanation

Training must match the hazards a worker actually faces, so a change in assignment that introduces unfamiliar hazards requires new or refresher training before the work starts. Training tied to calendar events or staffing changes unrelated to the worker's tasks does not address a knowledge gap. The trigger is the change in exposure, not the passage of time alone.

Question 18Safety and Health Management Systems

A management review of a safety and health management system should include which of the following?

  1. Individual disciplinary records of workers
  2. System performance data and progress on objectives Correct answer.
  3. Only the injury rate for the past month
  4. The organization's marketing plan for the coming year

Explanation

Management review considers whether the system remains suitable and effective, using inputs such as performance against objectives, audit results, incident trends, and changes affecting the organization. It then produces decisions and actions for improvement. A single metric or unrelated business document does not support that judgment.

Question 19Safety and Health Management Systems

During a behavioral safety observation, an observer sees a worker grinding without eye protection. What is the most appropriate immediate response?

  1. Wait until the end of the shift to note it on the weekly report
  2. Stop the task, discuss the hazard, and correct the exposure Correct answer.
  3. Say nothing so the observation data stays unbiased
  4. Record the worker's name and report it for discipline

Explanation

Behavior-based observation relies on immediate, respectful feedback that removes the exposure and explores why the behavior occurred, such as missing equipment or a poor fit. Correcting the condition at the moment prevents injury and builds trust in the process. Punitive or delayed responses undermine reporting and leave the worker exposed.

Question 20Safety and Health Management Systems

What is the attendant's role during entry into a permit-required confined space?

  1. Enter with the entrant to monitor the atmosphere
  2. Approve the hot work permit for the space
  3. Stay outside and monitor entrants and conditions Correct answer.
  4. Perform the rescue if the entrant is overcome

Explanation

The attendant remains outside the space, tracks the number and identity of entrants, monitors conditions, and summons help or initiates rescue without entering. Entering to attempt rescue is a leading cause of multiple-fatality confined space incidents. Atmospheric monitoring inside is performed by the entrant before and during entry.

Question 21Safety and Health Management Systems

An employee lacerates a hand at work; a clinic closes the wound with sutures and the employee returns to full duty the same day. How should the case be handled under OSHA recordkeeping rules?

  1. Not recordable, since no days were lost
  2. Recordable, since sutures exceed first aid Correct answer.
  3. Recordable only if the employee files a claim
  4. Not recordable, since the employee returned to work

Explanation

OSHA's first-aid list does not include sutures, so wound closure with sutures counts as medical treatment beyond first aid and makes the case recordable. Recordability depends on the treatment provided, not on whether the employee lost time or returned to full duty. Workers' compensation claim status does not determine recordability.

Question 22Safety and Health Management Systems

A site worked 40,000 hours last year and recorded two OSHA recordable cases. Which statement about the result is most defensible?

  1. The rate is 10.0, but the small sample makes year-to-year comparison unreliable Correct answer.
  2. The rate matches the company average, so performance is stable
  3. The rate proves the safety program has failed
  4. The rate cannot be computed without three years of data

Explanation

The rate is 2 x 200,000 / 40,000 = 10.0, but with such a small hours base a single case shifts the rate dramatically, so year-to-year comparisons carry little meaning. Rate comparisons require enough exposure hours to be statistically stable. A single high or low value should not be used to judge program effectiveness.

Question 23Safety and Health Management Systems

After controls are applied, a task still scores high on the risk matrix. What is the most appropriate next step?

  1. Accept the risk because controls were applied
  2. Reclassify the severity to lower the rating
  3. Proceed with a signed waiver from the crew
  4. Do not proceed until further controls reduce the risk Correct answer.

Explanation

Residual risk that remains high after controls indicates the work is not yet adequately controlled, so additional controls are required or the task should not proceed. Risk ratings must reflect actual conditions rather than be adjusted to justify work. Waivers signed by the crew do not transfer the employer's duty to provide a safe workplace.

Question 24Safety and Health Management Systems

Which audit finding points to a weakness in the safety management system itself rather than to an isolated worker or condition failure?

  1. Corrective actions from last year's audit were never verified Correct answer.
  2. A ladder was set at the wrong angle
  3. A crew skipped a scheduled toolbox talk
  4. A worker walked beneath a suspended load

Explanation

A system weakness is a failure in how the organization plans, checks, and closes out its own processes. Unverified corrective actions show that the follow-up and verification step of the management system is not functioning, which allows problems to persist. Individual unsafe acts and conditions are symptoms that may or may not indicate such a gap.

Question 25Safety and Health Management Systems

Which situation most clearly calls for a formal management-of-change review?

  1. Hiring a replacement operator for an unchanged process
  2. Substituting a solvent with a more hazardous one Correct answer.
  3. Repainting the interior of the site office
  4. Renting an additional office trailer

Explanation

Management of change evaluates proposed changes for new or increased hazards before implementation and updates risk assessments, procedures, and training accordingly. Swapping in a more hazardous chemical changes the risk profile of the task and must be reviewed in advance. Administrative and non-process changes with no effect on hazards do not require the same review.

Question 26Safety and Health Management Systems

Under OSHA recordkeeping rules, an employer must post the annual summary of occupational injuries and illnesses (OSHA Form 300A) in the workplace during which period?

  1. December 1 through January 31
  2. January 1 through March 31
  3. April 1 through June 30
  4. February 1 through April 30 Correct answer.

Explanation

The annual summary must be posted no later than February 1 and must remain posted until April 30 of the year following the reporting year. The posting must be in a location where notices to employees are customarily placed.

Question 27Safety and Health Management Systems

An employee dies as a result of a work-related incident. Within what time must the employer report the fatality to OSHA?

  1. Within 24 hours
  2. Within 72 hours
  3. Within 7 calendar days
  4. Within 8 hours Correct answer.

Explanation

OSHA requires that a work-related fatality be reported within 8 hours of the employer learning of it. The 24-hour timeline applies to in-patient hospitalizations, amputations, and losses of an eye.

Question 28Safety and Health Management Systems

Which of the following is a leading indicator of safety and health performance?

  1. Days-away-from-work incidence rate
  2. Number of OSHA recordable injuries
  3. Number of completed workplace inspections Correct answer.
  4. Workers' compensation claim costs

Explanation

Leading indicators measure proactive activities and conditions that predict future performance, such as inspections completed, training hours delivered, or hazards closed out. Lagging indicators measure outcomes that have already occurred.

Question 29Safety and Health Management Systems

When conducting a job hazard analysis, what should be done first?

  1. Break the job into a sequence of steps Correct answer.
  2. Select personal protective equipment for the task
  3. Rank the hazards using a risk matrix
  4. Determine the appropriate controls for each hazard

Explanation

A job hazard analysis begins by selecting a job and breaking it into a logical sequence of steps. Hazards are then identified for each step, and controls are selected afterward.

Question 30Safety and Health Management Systems

After a corrective action has been implemented following an incident, what is the most important next step in a safety management system?

  1. Verify that the control reduced the risk as intended Correct answer.
  2. Remove the case from the OSHA 300 log once the corrective action is complete
  3. Wait for the next scheduled external audit to check whether the action worked
  4. Close the record and archive it in the incident file for the audit cycle

Explanation

Corrective actions must be followed by verification of effectiveness, confirming that the chosen control actually reduced or eliminated the risk. Without this check, a system cannot tell whether the same incident is likely to recur.

Question 31Safety and Health Management Systems

A periodic inspection of a lockout/tagout energy control procedure must be performed at least how often?

  1. Every five years
  2. Monthly
  3. Annually Correct answer.
  4. Every two years

Explanation

The lockout/tagout standard requires a periodic inspection of the energy control procedure at least annually. The inspection must be performed by an authorized employee other than the one using the procedure being reviewed.

Question 32Safety and Health Management Systems

In a required respiratory protection program, how often must fit testing be repeated for a tight-fitting respirator?

  1. Every six months
  2. Annually Correct answer.
  3. Every two years
  4. Only when the respirator model changes

Explanation

Tight-fitting respirators require fit testing before initial use and at least annually thereafter. Additional fit testing is also required when a different facepiece size, model, or style is used.

Question 33Safety and Health Management Systems

A new chemical with newly identified health hazards is introduced into a work area. What does the hazard communication program require before employees are exposed?

  1. Train only the employees who ask questions about the new chemical
  2. Wait until the next scheduled annual hazard communication training cycle
  3. File the safety data sheet in the binder and take no further action until the next review
  4. Train affected employees on the new hazards before they are exposed Correct answer.

Explanation

Hazard communication requires that employees receive information and training on new hazards before they are exposed to them. The chemical inventory and written program should also be updated to reflect the new material.

Question 34Safety and Health Management Systems

Why are near-miss reports valuable in a safety and health management system?

  1. They reveal failures in controls before harm occurs Correct answer.
  2. They must be recorded as OSHA recordable cases on the 300 log
  3. They can substitute for a formal incident investigation
  4. They are required to be posted with the annual summary

Explanation

A near miss shows that a barrier or control failed even though no one was injured, giving the organization a chance to correct the problem before harm occurs. Systems that encourage near-miss reporting learn faster than those that only react to injuries.

Question 35Safety and Health Management Systems

A risk assessment shows that, after planned controls, a task still carries a serious but low-probability hazard, and the task cannot be eliminated. What does good practice require?

  1. Apply a less effective control so the team can show effort was made
  2. Reclassify the risk as low so that the task can proceed as planned
  3. Accept the risk without further action or documentation
  4. Document the justification and have senior management accept the risk Correct answer.

Explanation

Residual risk that cannot be reduced further must be explicitly accepted at an appropriate level of authority and the reasoning documented. The accepted risk should then be monitored so that it stays visible and can be revisited if conditions change.

Question 36Safety and Health Management Systems

A construction site offers a bonus to work groups that record zero injuries. What is the most likely effect on the safety management system?

  1. It will improve hazard reporting because workers want the bonus
  2. It can suppress injury and near-miss reporting, distorting risk data Correct answer.
  3. It will have no measurable effect on reporting behavior or data quality
  4. It satisfies the worker participation requirement of the system

Explanation

Incentives tied to the absence of reported injuries reward not reporting, which can drive injuries and near misses underground. The resulting data understate risk and undermine the decisions the management system depends on.

Question 37Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment

Which statement correctly distinguishes a hazard from a risk?

  1. A hazard is a source of potential harm; risk is the likelihood of that harm Correct answer.
  2. A hazard applies only to chemical agents; risk applies only to biological ones
  3. A hazard is a measured probability; risk is an agent that causes injury
  4. A hazard is always unacceptable; risk is always a legally permitted level

Explanation

A hazard is anything with the potential to cause harm, while risk describes how likely that harm is and how serious it would be. The same hazard can carry very different risks depending on exposure and circumstances.

Question 38Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment

Which item is best classified as a physical hazard?

  1. A metal shaving from worn equipment Correct answer.
  2. Listeria on a cutting surface
  3. Residual chlorine in wash water
  4. Norovirus on a worker's hands

Explanation

Physical hazards are hard, sharp, or energy-releasing agents that can injure directly; a metal shaving from worn equipment can cause injury if it enters product. Chemical and microbial contaminants belong to other hazard classes.

Question 39Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment

Which of the following is a biological hazard?

  1. Noise from a packaging line
  2. A wet floor in a walk-in cooler
  3. Salmonella on a cutting board Correct answer.
  4. Carbon monoxide in a boiler room

Explanation

Biological hazards are living organisms or their toxins that can cause illness, and Salmonella is a bacterium. Carbon monoxide is chemical, a wet floor is a safety hazard, and noise is a physical hazard.

Question 40Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment

Which situation represents a chemical hazard?

  1. Heat stress in a hot kitchen
  2. Mold growth on a ceiling tile
  3. A frayed cord on a mixer
  4. Ammonia vapor from a cleaning solution Correct answer.

Explanation

Chemical hazards are substances that harm through toxicity, corrosivity, or irritation, and ammonia vapor is a chemical exposure. Heat, electricity, and mold belong to other hazard classes.

Question 41Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment

Which task is best described as an ergonomic hazard?

  1. Poor lighting that causes glare
  2. Repeated lifting of heavy crates Correct answer.
  3. Loud noise from a conveyor
  4. Lead dust from old paint

Explanation

Ergonomic hazards arise from the design of work, such as forceful or repetitive lifting, that strains the musculoskeletal system. Noise, lighting, and lead dust act through other mechanisms.

Question 42Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment

In risk assessment, risk is best understood as which of the following?

  1. The total number of reported injuries in a year
  2. A combination of likelihood of harm and severity of harm Correct answer.
  3. The number of hazards present in a facility
  4. A fixed property of an agent that exposure cannot change

Explanation

Risk is a function of both the likelihood that harm occurs and the severity of the resulting harm, so it depends on exposure as well as on the intrinsic hazard.

Question 43Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment

Which exposure scenario is an example of an acute exposure?

  1. Working 15 years beside a solvent degreaser
  2. Long-term low-level radon exposure in a basement
  3. Drinking water with 2 ppb arsenic daily for 20 years
  4. A single splash of concentrated acid on the skin Correct answer.

Explanation

Acute exposure is a short, high-level contact occurring over minutes to days, as with a single acid splash. Chronic exposure is repeated or continuous contact over months to years.

Question 44Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment

Within the hierarchy of controls, which measure serves as the last line of defense?

  1. Elimination of the hazard
  2. Personal protective equipment Correct answer.
  3. Engineering controls such as ventilation
  4. Substitution of a safer chemical

Explanation

The hierarchy ranks controls from most to least effective: elimination, substitution, engineering controls, administrative controls, then PPE. PPE depends on correct selection, fit, and use, so it is the last line of defense.

Question 45Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment

Air monitoring that measures a contaminant in a worker's breathing zone across an entire shift is called:

  1. personal sampling Correct answer.
  2. area sampling
  3. source sampling
  4. blank sampling

Explanation

Personal sampling places the collection device in the worker's breathing zone for the shift, so the result represents that individual's exposure. Area samples describe a location, source samples describe emissions, and blanks are quality-control devices.

Question 46Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment

In exposure assessment, inhalation, ingestion, and dermal contact are examples of:

  1. dose-response thresholds
  2. routes of exposure Correct answer.
  3. sources of contamination
  4. susceptibility factors

Explanation

Inhalation, ingestion, and dermal contact are the routes by which contaminants enter the body. Exposure assessment links sources to receptors through these routes.

Question 47Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment

A dose-response assessment shows that a health effect appears only above a certain intake level. That level is called the:

  1. bioaccumulation factor
  2. threshold dose Correct answer.
  3. exposure duration
  4. biological half-life

Explanation

A threshold dose is the intake below which no adverse effect is observed. It is derived from dose-response data and is often divided by uncertainty factors to set acceptable intake levels.

Question 48Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment

Risk characterization integrates hazard identification, dose-response, and exposure assessment in order to:

  1. Decide which staff will collect the samples
  2. Select the analytical laboratory method to be used
  3. Set the legal limit for the contaminant
  4. Estimate the likelihood and severity of harm Correct answer.

Explanation

Risk characterization is the final step of risk assessment, combining the prior analyses to describe the likelihood and severity of harm, along with the associated uncertainties.

Question 49Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment

The first step in developing a HACCP plan is to:

  1. Conduct a hazard analysis of the process Correct answer.
  2. Verify that the plan is working as written
  3. Set critical limits at each control point
  4. Record corrective actions that were taken

Explanation

The first of the seven HACCP principles is a hazard analysis that identifies significant biological, chemical, and physical hazards and the steps where they can be controlled. Critical limits, verification, and corrective action records come later in the sequence.

Question 50Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment

A job hazard analysis is best described as a method that:

  1. Identifies hazards step by step in a task Correct answer.
  2. Ranks facilities by their claims history
  3. Quantifies the dose received by each worker
  4. Measures contaminant concentrations in air

Explanation

A job hazard analysis breaks a task into steps and identifies hazards at each step, so controls can be built into how the work is performed. It is qualitative and does not measure dose or exposure.