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ENSH Access Contest study materials
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ENSH Access Contest practice questions

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Question 1Regulations and legal framework

Under the EU Seveso III Directive framework as applied to establishments handling dangerous substances, which document must the operator of an upper-tier establishment produce and submit to the competent authority?

  1. A product liability insurance schedule
  2. A waste shipment notification under the Basel Convention
  3. A safety report demonstrating a major-accident prevention policy and safety management system Correct answer.
  4. A fire-safety certificate issued by the local municipality

Explanation

Upper-tier establishments under the Seveso III framework must draw up a safety report showing that a major-accident prevention policy and a safety management system are in place, and submit it to the competent authority for assessment. The other documents relate to unrelated regulatory regimes.

Question 2Regulations and legal framework

In the context of the ENSH framework, what does the principle of 'operator responsibility' for major-accident hazards primarily assign?

  1. Primary duty resting with the local fire brigade
  2. Primary duty to prevent major accidents and limit their consequences resting with the operator Correct answer.
  3. Primary duty resting with the national environment ministry
  4. Primary duty resting with neighbouring residents

Explanation

Operator responsibility means the operator of the establishment bears the primary legal duty to prevent major accidents and to limit their consequences for human health and the environment. Public authorities supervise and enforce but do not displace that duty.

Question 3Regulations and legal framework

A lower-tier establishment stores a dangerous substance above the qualifying threshold but below the upper-tier threshold. Which obligation most characteristically applies to it?

  1. Full safety report with a detailed quantitative risk assessment
  2. Notification to the competent authority and preparation of a major-accident prevention policy Correct answer.
  3. Publication of a safety report in the national press
  4. Mandatory establishment of an off-site emergency plan by the operator

Explanation

Lower-tier establishments must notify the competent authority and establish a major-accident prevention policy, but they are not required to produce a full safety report. Off-site emergency plans are prepared by public authorities, not the operator.

Question 4Regulations and legal framework

What is the principal purpose of the 'major-accident prevention policy' (MAPP) required of operators?

  1. To document the operator's marketing strategy for chemical products
  2. To record the establishment's annual financial turnover
  3. To list the personal contact details of every employee
  4. To set out the operator's overall approach and principles for controlling major-accident hazards Correct answer.

Explanation

The MAPP is a written statement of the operator's overall aims and principles for controlling major-accident hazards, forming the basis for the safety management system. It is not a commercial or personnel document.

Question 5Regulations and legal framework

Under the framework, when must the competent authority make information on major-accident hazards available to the public?

  1. Never, because such information is classified
  2. Only after a major accident has occurred
  3. Only if a journalist formally requests it
  4. Routinely for establishments covered by the regime, with active provision to persons likely to be affected Correct answer.

Explanation

The regime requires public information on major-accident hazards for covered establishments, and persons likely to be affected must be actively informed without needing to request it. Secrecy or accident-triggered release is contrary to the framework.

Question 6Regulations and legal framework

In an establishment subject to the regime, what is the primary role of the safety management system (SMS) within the operator's arrangements?

  1. To certify individual employees' professional qualifications
  2. To serve as the establishment's accounting control system
  3. To replace the need for any emergency plan
  4. To structure organisation, responsibilities, practices and resources for controlling major-accident hazards Correct answer.

Explanation

The safety management system integrates organisation, responsibilities, practices, procedures and resources so that major-accident hazards are controlled. It complements, rather than replaces, emergency planning and does not certify individuals.

Question 7Regulations and legal framework

What is the purpose of the land-use planning obligations linked to major-accident hazard establishments?

  1. To determine the property tax rate for the operator
  2. To maintain appropriate distances between establishments and sensitive areas and to consider escalation scenarios Correct answer.
  3. To fix the market price of land near industrial sites
  4. To allocate parking spaces for emergency vehicles

Explanation

Land-use planning obligations aim to keep appropriate separation distances between hazardous establishments and residential or other sensitive areas, and to account for possible domino or escalation effects. They are safety instruments, not fiscal or pricing tools.

Question 8Regulations and legal framework

Which concept describes a situation where a major accident at one establishment triggers or is amplified by hazards at a nearby establishment?

  1. Threshold effect
  2. Marginal effect
  3. Domino effect Correct answer.
  4. Substitution effect

Explanation

A domino effect occurs when a major accident at one establishment increases the risk or severity of accidents at neighbouring establishments. The framework requires authorities to identify such groupings and account for them in planning and inspection.

Question 9Regulations and legal framework

An operator wishes to modify an installation in a way that could significantly affect major-accident hazards. What does the framework generally require?

  1. No action, because modifications are outside the regime
  2. Proceed first and inform the authority only in the annual report
  3. Obtain approval from the trade union only
  4. Review and, where necessary, update the safety documentation and notify the competent authority before the change Correct answer.

Explanation

Significant modifications affecting major-accident hazards require the operator to review and update the safety report and related arrangements, and to inform the competent authority before implementation. Retrospective reporting is not sufficient.

Question 10Regulations and legal framework

What is the role of the competent authority's inspection programme under this framework?

  1. To operate the establishment's process control systems
  2. To represent the operator in legal disputes
  3. To set the retail prices of chemical products
  4. To plan and carry out systematic inspections of establishments to verify compliance with obligations Correct answer.

Explanation

The competent authority must organise a planned, systematic inspection programme to verify that operators comply with their obligations. Inspections may be routine or non-routine and are distinct from operating the plant itself.

Question 11Regulations and legal framework

Which obligation applies to the operator regarding the preparation of internal emergency plans?

  1. The operator must approve the public authority's external plan
  2. The operator must draw up the off-site emergency plan for the surrounding municipality
  3. The operator must publish the external plan in the official gazette
  4. The operator must draw up an internal emergency plan for measures to be taken inside the establishment Correct answer.

Explanation

The operator is responsible for the internal emergency plan covering on-site response measures. Off-site plans covering the surrounding area are the responsibility of the competent public authority.

Question 12Regulations and legal framework

What does the 'notification' obligation require of an operator bringing a new establishment into scope?

  1. Obtaining a commercial advertising licence
  2. Filing the establishment's annual tax return
  3. Supplying the competent authority with specified information on the establishment, substances and hazards before or shortly after start-up Correct answer.
  4. Registering the establishment's trademark with the patent office

Explanation

Notification requires the operator to provide the competent authority with information on the establishment, the dangerous substances present and the hazards, within the prescribed time. It is a safety notification, not a commercial filing.

Question 13Regulations and legal framework

Which statement best captures the relationship between the safety report and the internal emergency plan?

  1. The two documents are legally identical in content and purpose
  2. The safety report demonstrates how hazards are controlled, while the internal emergency plan sets out on-site response if control fails Correct answer.
  3. The safety report is only needed after the emergency plan has been activated
  4. The internal emergency plan replaces the safety report once approved

Explanation

The safety report demonstrates that major-accident hazards are identified and controlled, whereas the internal emergency plan specifies the on-site measures to be taken if those controls fail. They are complementary but distinct documents.

Question 14Regulations and legal framework

A substance is present at an establishment in a quantity that exceeds a listed qualifying threshold. What is the immediate regulatory consequence?

  1. The operator must relocate the establishment abroad
  2. The substance must be destroyed within 24 hours
  3. The establishment falls within the scope of the corresponding tier's obligations Correct answer.
  4. The establishment is automatically exempt from all obligations

Explanation

Exceeding a qualifying threshold brings the establishment within the scope of the regime and triggers the obligations of the relevant tier. It does not create automatic exemptions or require destruction or relocation.

Question 15Regulations and legal framework

What does the framework require regarding consultation of the public on relevant external emergency plans and land-use decisions?

  1. The public concerned must be given the opportunity to comment early in the process Correct answer.
  2. Consultation is limited to registered chemical companies
  3. Consultation occurs only after the plan has been finally adopted
  4. Consultation is prohibited for security reasons

Explanation

The public concerned must be consulted early, while options are still open, on external emergency plans and relevant land-use decisions. Consultation after final adoption or restricted to industry would defeat its purpose.

Question 16Regulations and legal framework

Which is a characteristic obligation concerning information to be supplied to the public for upper-tier establishments?

  1. Providing the operator's confidential supplier price list
  2. Providing the full text of every employee's employment contract
  3. Providing a clear explanation of the hazards, safety measures and how to respond in an accident Correct answer.
  4. Providing the personal medical records of the workforce

Explanation

Public information for upper-tier establishments must explain the nature of the hazards, the safety measures in place and the behaviour required in the event of an accident. Commercial and personal data are not part of this duty.

Question 17Regulations and legal framework

In the event of a major accident, what is the operator's immediate reporting duty?

  1. Report only if the accident causes a fatality
  2. Inform the competent authority as soon as practicable, giving details of the circumstances and substances involved Correct answer.
  3. Wait until the annual inspection to disclose the event
  4. Report only to the insurance company

Explanation

The operator must inform the competent authority as soon as practicable after a major accident, providing information on the circumstances, the substances involved and the potential consequences. Reporting is not deferred to inspections or conditioned on fatalities.

Question 18Regulations and legal framework

What follow-up does the framework require after a major accident has occurred?

  1. The operator must transfer ownership to the state
  2. The operator must delete all records of the incident
  3. The operator must immediately resume full operations without review
  4. The operator must take remedial measures and provide information on lessons learned, with authority assessment Correct answer.

Explanation

After a major accident the operator must take remedial measures and provide information on the causes and lessons learned, and the competent authority assesses the response. Immediate resumption without review, record deletion or forced ownership transfer is not required.

Question 19Regulations and legal framework

How does the framework treat the substitution of dangerous substances?

  1. Substitution is only relevant to financial accounting
  2. Operators should consider replacing hazardous substances with less hazardous alternatives where feasible Correct answer.
  3. Substitution is prohibited because thresholds would change
  4. Substitution removes all obligations automatically

Explanation

The framework encourages operators to consider substituting dangerous substances with less hazardous alternatives or reducing quantities where technically and economically feasible. Substitution may lower the tier but does not automatically erase all obligations.

Question 20Regulations and legal framework

What type of information must the competent authority share with other relevant authorities for the purposes of emergency planning?

  1. Information on the establishments, the substances present and the general major-accident scenarios Correct answer.
  2. The operators' bank account details
  3. The home addresses of all employees
  4. The operators' trade secrets in full without restriction

Explanation

Authorities must share information needed for emergency planning, such as the location of establishments, the substances present and general scenarios. Confidentiality rules still protect genuine trade secrets, and personal or financial data are irrelevant.

Question 21Regulations and legal framework

Which statement correctly describes the relationship between the safety report and the authority's assessment?

  1. The safety report is assessed only after an accident occurs
  2. The authority drafts the safety report on behalf of the operator
  3. The authority assesses the safety report and may require the operator to provide further information or amend arrangements Correct answer.
  4. The operator self-approves the safety report without any authority involvement

Explanation

The competent authority assesses the safety report and can require additional information or improvements. The operator drafts the report, and assessment happens before accidents occur as part of supervision.

Question 22Regulations and legal framework

What is the significance of the 'qualifying quantity' concept in the regime?

  1. It sets the maximum fine for regulatory breaches
  2. It fixes the number of employees required on site
  3. It defines the minimum insurance coverage
  4. It determines whether an establishment falls into the lower or upper tier and which obligations apply Correct answer.

Explanation

Qualifying quantities are substance-specific thresholds that determine whether an establishment is in scope and whether lower-tier or upper-tier obligations apply. They do not set fines, staffing or insurance levels.

Question 23Regulations and legal framework

Which of the following best explains why the framework requires operators to provide information to persons likely to be affected by a major accident?

  1. So that those persons can understand the risks and know how to act in an emergency Correct answer.
  2. So that those persons can operate the establishment's control room
  3. So that those persons can set the operator's safety budget
  4. So that those persons can approve the safety report

Explanation

Informing those likely to be affected enables them to understand the hazards and to know how to respond if an accident occurs. They do not take over operational, budgetary or approval functions.

Question 24Regulations and legal framework

How should the operator handle a situation where new technical knowledge shows that an existing safety measure is no longer adequate?

  1. Wait for the next scheduled inspection before acting
  2. Review and update the safety management arrangements and safety report to reflect current best practice Correct answer.
  3. Remove the safety measure to reduce costs
  4. Continue unchanged because the original approval was granted

Explanation

Operators must keep their safety arrangements up to date, reviewing and updating them when new technical knowledge shows existing measures are inadequate. Compliance is continuous rather than frozen at the date of approval.

Question 25Regulations and legal framework

What does the framework require of the competent authority regarding coordination with authorities responsible for emergency response?

  1. It must ensure that off-site emergency plans are drawn up and coordinated with the operator's internal plans Correct answer.
  2. It must abolish off-site planning for lower-tier sites
  3. It must keep emergency plans confidential from responders
  4. It must delegate all planning to the operator

Explanation

The competent authority is responsible for off-site emergency plans and must coordinate them with the operator's internal plans and with emergency responders. Delegating everything to the operator or concealing plans from responders would undermine the system.

Question 26Regulations and legal framework

Under the Seveso-style major-accident framework, into which two tiers are establishments classified?

  1. Category A and Category B, determined by the number of employees on site
  2. Lower-tier and upper-tier, determined by the maximum quantities of dangerous substances present Correct answer.
  3. Licensed and unlicensed, determined by the local fire authority
  4. Primary and secondary, determined by distance from the nearest residential area

Explanation

The regime classifies establishments as lower-tier or upper-tier according to whether the quantities of dangerous substances present reach or exceed the thresholds in the relevant annexes. The tier then determines which obligations apply, with upper-tier establishments subject to additional duties such as the full safety report and external emergency planning.

Question 27Regulations and legal framework

An operator stores a dangerous substance below the lower-tier threshold but the same substance is also generated as an intermediate that is never removed from the process. How does the framework generally treat such intermediates?

  1. They are counted at full quantity regardless of containment
  2. They are normally disregarded if they are present only in a controlled process and cannot escape the installation Correct answer.
  3. They are counted at double their nominal quantity
  4. They automatically trigger upper-tier obligations

Explanation

Intermediates that remain within a controlled process and are not stored or removed from the installation are generally excluded from threshold calculations, because the risk they pose is bounded by the process design. The exclusion depends on the substance never leaving the process under normal conditions, so any storage step would bring it back into the calculation.

Question 28Regulations and legal framework

Which document must the competent authority produce for the population surrounding an upper-tier establishment?

  1. A land-use planning certificate issued to the municipality
  2. A safety report submitted by the operator
  3. An external emergency plan specifying off-site protective measures Correct answer.
  4. An internal emergency plan drafted by the operator

Explanation

For upper-tier establishments the authority responsible is required to draw up an external emergency plan covering measures to be taken off site in the event of a major accident. The internal plan is the operator's document and addresses on-site response, so the two plans are complementary but distinct.

Question 29Regulations and legal framework

An operator intends to change a process so that a new dangerous substance is introduced above the qualifying quantity. What does the framework require before the change is made?

  1. Nothing, provided the change is recorded in the operator's internal log
  2. Review and, where appropriate, revision of the safety report and related plans before implementation Correct answer.
  3. Immediate suspension of all operations pending a full re-licensing
  4. Notification only after the substance has been in use for a year

Explanation

Changes that could significantly affect major-accident hazards require the operator to review and, where necessary, update the safety report, emergency plans and information to the public before the modification is implemented. The point is that the assessment must precede the change, not follow it.

Question 30Regulations and legal framework

What is the principal function of the safety report submitted by an upper-tier operator?

  1. To list the names of all employees trained in first aid
  2. To provide an insurance valuation of the installation
  3. To demonstrate that major-accident hazards have been identified and that adequate prevention and mitigation measures are in place Correct answer.
  4. To serve as the external emergency plan for neighbouring municipalities

Explanation

The safety report is the operator's demonstration that major-accident hazards have been identified, that the installation is designed and operated safely, and that prevention and mitigation measures are adequate. It is assessed by the competent authority and underpins inspection and land-use decisions.

Question 31Regulations and legal framework

An establishment falls just below the lower-tier threshold but is located next to another establishment operated by the same company. How should the framework's aggregation logic generally be applied?

  1. Aggregation applies only to upper-tier establishments
  2. Where establishments are close enough that hazards could interact, the authority may treat them together for certain purposes Correct answer.
  3. Each establishment is always assessed in complete isolation, ignoring proximity
  4. Aggregation is automatic only if the two sites share a postal code

Explanation

The regime recognises that separate establishments in close proximity can create interacting hazards, so the authority may consider them together for specified purposes such as land-use planning. The general rule is that each establishment is assessed individually, but proximity can justify a combined view where the risk picture demands it.

Question 32Regulations and legal framework

Which body is normally responsible for inspecting an establishment under the major-accident regime?

  1. The establishment's trade union representative
  2. The operator's own internal audit team
  3. The insurance underwriter covering the site
  4. The competent authority designated for that purpose Correct answer.

Explanation

Inspection is a public function carried out by the competent authority designated under the regime, which must maintain a planned inspection programme. Internal audits and insurers may review safety, but they do not replace the statutory inspection function.

Question 33Regulations and legal framework

Following a major accident, what must the operator do with respect to the competent authority?

  1. Notify the authority as soon as practicable, providing the relevant information about the accident Correct answer.
  2. Notify only if the accident caused an injury requiring hospital treatment
  3. Delegate notification to the external emergency services
  4. Wait until the annual report is due before disclosing details

Explanation

The operator must inform the competent authority as soon as practicable after a major accident, supplying the information needed to understand what happened and its consequences. The duty is not conditional on injury thresholds and cannot be delegated to the emergency services.

Question 34Regulations and legal framework

What is the purpose of the requirement that operators inform persons likely to be affected by a major accident?

  1. To replace the external emergency plan with a public leaflet
  2. To satisfy marketing obligations toward local businesses
  3. To enable residents and neighbours to understand the risks and know how to act in an emergency Correct answer.
  4. To transfer legal liability for the accident to those persons

Explanation

Public information duties exist so that people who could be affected understand the nature of the hazards and the protective actions to take if an accident occurs. The information supports the effectiveness of the external emergency plan but does not replace it, and it does not shift liability.

Question 35Regulations and legal framework

The competent authority is reviewing a safety report and finds the operator's analysis of a credible accident scenario inadequate. What is the appropriate response?

  1. Request additional information or require the operator to revise and resubmit the report Correct answer.
  2. Approve the report because the operator signed it
  3. Immediately close the establishment permanently
  4. Forward the report to the insurer and take no further action

Explanation

The authority must satisfy itself that the safety report is adequate; where it is not, the authority can require further information or revision before acceptance. Permanent closure is a drastic measure reserved for serious cases and is not the routine response to an inadequate report.

Question 36Regulations and legal framework

Which statement best explains why the regime requires operators to consider substituting dangerous substances with safer alternatives?

  1. To reduce the inherent hazard at source, which is more robust than relying solely on control measures Correct answer.
  2. To reduce the cost of the annual safety report
  3. To ensure the establishment always remains upper-tier
  4. To comply with international trade rules on chemical exports

Explanation

Substitution addresses hazard at its source: if a less dangerous substance or process can achieve the same result, the potential consequences of a major accident are reduced regardless of how well controls perform. Control and mitigation measures remain necessary, but inherent safety is preferred because it does not depend on those measures continuing to function.

Question 37Regulations and legal framework

How does the framework generally require land-use planning decisions to account for major-accident hazards?

  1. By keeping new vulnerable development at an appropriate distance from hazardous establishments and consulting on proposed changes Correct answer.
  2. By prohibiting all construction within the region
  3. By requiring residents to sign liability waivers
  4. By permitting any development provided the operator pays a levy

Explanation

Land-use policies must ensure that sensitive uses such as housing, schools and hospitals are not placed inappropriately close to hazardous establishments, and that proposed developments are assessed and consulted upon. The aim is to maintain separation between hazards and vulnerable populations over the long term.

Question 38Regulations and legal framework

An operator discovers that a control measure relied upon in the safety report no longer meets current technical standards. What does the framework require?

  1. The operator must wait for the next scheduled inspection to raise the issue
  2. Nothing, because the safety report reflected the standards at the time of submission
  3. The operator must review and update the safety measures and the safety report to reflect current knowledge Correct answer.
  4. The operator must immediately cease operations indefinitely

Explanation

The regime is dynamic: operators must keep safety measures and the safety report current in light of new technical knowledge and developments in hazard assessment. Waiting for an inspection or relying on historical standards does not satisfy that continuing obligation.

Question 39Regulations and legal framework

In the context of the regime, what does the term 'domino effect' refer to?

  1. A situation where one employee covers several roles
  2. A situation where a major accident at one establishment triggers or is amplified by hazards at another nearby establishment Correct answer.
  3. A situation where inspections are scheduled in a chain
  4. A situation where a single permit covers multiple substances

Explanation

A domino effect occurs when an accident at one establishment escalates because of the presence of hazardous installations nearby, increasing the overall consequences. Authorities must identify such groupings and ensure that information is exchanged and emergency planning accounts for the combined risk.

Question 40Regulations and legal framework

A substance is present at an establishment at a quantity above the qualifying threshold, but only intermittently during a short annual campaign. How should the operator treat the presence for threshold purposes?

  1. Count it at half the maximum quantity to reflect the downtime
  2. Count it only if the campaign lasts more than six months
  3. Count it at the maximum quantity that can be present at any one time during the campaign Correct answer.
  4. Ignore it because the presence is temporary

Explanation

Threshold calculations are based on the maximum quantity that can be present at any one time, not on an annual average, so a short intensive campaign can still bring an establishment into scope. The duration of the campaign does not reduce the quantity that must be counted.

Question 41Radio communication procedures

On a marine VHF radiotelephone, which channel is designated as the international distress, safety and calling channel?

  1. Channel 16 Correct answer.
  2. Channel 6
  3. Channel 13
  4. Channel 70

Explanation

Channel 16 (156.800 MHz) is the internationally designated distress, safety and calling channel for maritime VHF. Distress alerts and initial calls are made there, then traffic normally moves to a working channel. Channel 70 is reserved for DSC digital alerting only.

Question 42Radio communication procedures

What does the spoken radiotelephony proword "OVER" indicate at the end of a transmission?

  1. The sender has finished speaking and expects a reply Correct answer.
  2. The transmission is a distress alert
  3. The sender has finished and expects no reply
  4. The message must be relayed to a coast station

Explanation

In radiotelephony procedure, "OVER" marks the end of a transmission and signals that the sender expects the other station to reply. It is distinct from "OUT", which ends the exchange with no reply expected. Using the wrong proword can cause the other station to wait or transmit unnecessarily.

Question 43Radio communication procedures

Which spoken word correctly precedes a distress call on radiotelephony?

  1. PAN PAN
  2. SILENCE
  3. SECURITE
  4. MAYDAY Correct answer.

Explanation

The distress signal in radiotelephony is the spoken word "MAYDAY", repeated three times at the start of a distress call. It indicates grave and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. "PAN PAN" is urgency and "SECURITE" is safety.

Question 44Radio communication procedures

What is the correct spoken form of the letters in the call sign "Golf Bravo Delta"?

  1. Golf Bravo Delta Correct answer.
  2. Golf Baker Delta
  3. Gulf Bravo Delta
  4. Golf Bravo Dog

Explanation

The ITU phonetic alphabet uses fixed words, and the correct words for G, B and D are Golf, Bravo and Delta. Substituting similar-sounding words defeats the purpose of spelling out call signs. Consistency with the standard alphabet is what makes reception reliable in noise.

Question 45Radio communication procedures

A vessel hears a distress alert and is not itself in a position to assist. What is the correct radio action?

  1. Acknowledge the distress and offer assistance Correct answer.
  2. Relay the distress to another coast station
  3. Impose radio silence on the frequency
  4. Remain silent and continue normal working

Explanation

A station hearing a distress alert should acknowledge it if it can assist, or at minimum monitor and, where appropriate, relay. Silence is only imposed by the station controlling the distress traffic. Normal working on the frequency must stop until distress traffic is concluded.

Question 46Radio communication procedures

What does the urgency signal "PAN PAN" indicate?

  1. A very urgent message concerning the safety of a vessel or person Correct answer.
  2. A safety message about navigation hazards
  3. A routine request for a radio check
  4. A grave and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance

Explanation

PAN PAN, spoken three times, announces an urgent message concerning the safety of a vessel or person but without immediate grave danger. Examples include a person overboard recovered but needing medical advice, or a vessel with engine failure not in immediate danger. It is subordinate to MAYDAY in priority.

Question 47Radio communication procedures

When transmitting a MAYDAY call, which item must be included immediately after the distress signal and the vessel's identity?

  1. The vessel's next port of call
  2. The master's certificate number
  3. The vessel's cargo manifest
  4. The vessel's position Correct answer.

Explanation

The distress call and message must give the vessel's position so that rescue assets can be directed. The standard order is distress signal, identity, position, nature of distress and assistance required. Cargo and administrative details are not part of the initial distress message.

Question 48Radio communication procedures

Which frequency band is used by the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System for terrestrial distress alerting via DSC on VHF?

  1. Channel 9
  2. Channel 12
  3. Channel 70 Correct answer.
  4. Channel 16

Explanation

GMDSS terrestrial VHF distress alerting is carried out on VHF Channel 70 using Digital Selective Calling. Channel 70 is reserved for DSC and must not carry voice traffic. Voice distress traffic then follows on Channel 16.

Question 49Radio communication procedures

A coast station transmits a MAYDAY RELAY on behalf of a vessel in distress. What is the purpose of this transmission?

  1. To pass on a distress message received from another station Correct answer.
  2. To request a routine radio check
  3. To cancel a distress alert that was sent in error
  4. To announce a navigational warning

Explanation

MAYDAY RELAY is used when a station other than the one in distress retransmits the distress message, for example when the casualty cannot transmit effectively or a coast station is relaying to rescue coordination. It carries the same priority as the original distress traffic. It does not cancel anything.

Question 50Radio communication procedures

During distress traffic, the station controlling the traffic transmits the spoken word "SILENCE" three times. What does this require of other stations?

  1. All stations must switch to Channel 70
  2. All stations must cease transmitting on the frequency Correct answer.
  3. All stations must resume normal working
  4. All stations must repeat the word to acknowledge

Explanation

The silence signal, spoken three times by the station controlling distress traffic, imposes radio silence on the frequency so that distress communications can proceed without interference. Stations remain silent until the controlling station lifts the restriction. It applies to all stations except those directly involved in the distress.