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EASA ATPL 033 Flight Planning study materials
EASA ATPL 033 Flight Planning study resources

EASA ATPL 033 Flight Planning practice questions

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Question 1Flight plans: content, filing, ATS requirements and use of the ATS flight plan form

Under the ICAO rules for completing the ATS flight plan form, which item contains the aircraft identification that ATS uses for radiotelemetry correlation and flight data processing?

  1. Item 7, aircraft identification Correct answer.
  2. Item 8, flight rules and type of flight
  3. Item 9, number and type of aircraft and wake turbulence category
  4. Item 10, equipment

Explanation

Item 7 carries the aircraft identification, which must be the registration or the ICAO designator of the operating agency followed by the flight number. ATS uses this entry to correlate the flight plan with radar and flight data. Item 9 describes the aircraft itself, not the identification used for correlation.

Question 2Flight plans: content, filing, ATS requirements and use of the ATS flight plan form

A flight is to be conducted under instrument flight rules for the whole route. What must be entered in Item 8 of the ATS flight plan?

  1. The letter Y followed by the type of flight
  2. The letter Z followed by the type of flight letter
  3. The letter V followed by the type of flight letter
  4. The letter I followed by the type of flight letter Correct answer.

Explanation

Item 8 begins with the flight rules letter: I for IFR, V for VFR, Y for IFR then VFR, and Z for VFR then IFR. A flight conducted wholly under IFR therefore starts with I. The second character is the type of flight letter, such as S for scheduled or G for general aviation.

Question 3Flight plans: content, filing, ATS requirements and use of the ATS flight plan form

Which content belongs in Item 15 of the ATS flight plan form?

  1. The total estimated elapsed time only
  2. The endurance and persons on board
  3. The alternate aerodromes only
  4. The cruising speed, cruising level, route and destination aerodrome Correct answer.

Explanation

Item 15 is the route item and contains cruising speed, cruising level, the route description and the destination aerodrome. Alternate aerodromes are entered in Item 16, not Item 15. Endurance and persons on board also belong to Item 19 supplementary information.

Question 4Flight plans: content, filing, ATS requirements and use of the ATS flight plan form

What does the entry EET/ in Item 18 of an ATS flight plan indicate?

  1. The estimated time of arrival at the destination aerodrome
  2. The estimated endurance of the aircraft at the cruising level
  3. The estimated elapsed time to significant points or to the FIR boundary Correct answer.
  4. The estimated elapsed time to the first point of the route

Explanation

EET/ in Item 18 gives estimated elapsed times to significant points, or to the boundary of the next flight information region when that is required. It is used by ATS units to anticipate the flight's passage. Total elapsed time to destination is given in Item 16, and endurance is supplementary information.

Question 5Flight plans: content, filing, ATS requirements and use of the ATS flight plan form

Which item of the ATS flight plan form contains the name of the departure aerodrome and the time of departure?

  1. Item 13 Correct answer.
  2. Item 15
  3. Item 16
  4. Item 9

Explanation

Item 13 is the departure aerodrome and time item, where the four-letter ICAO location indicator and the estimated off-block time are entered. Item 15 is the route and Item 16 is the destination information. Item 9 describes the aircraft.

Question 6Flight plans: content, filing, ATS requirements and use of the ATS flight plan form

An operator files an ATS flight plan for a flight from a controlled aerodrome. Which statement correctly reflects the general ICAO requirement on the time of filing?

  1. The flight plan must be filed at least one hour before departure unless a longer period is prescribed Correct answer.
  2. The flight plan may be filed after departure in all cases
  3. The flight plan must be filed only after the aircraft is airborne
  4. The flight plan must be filed at least 24 hours before departure in every case

Explanation

ICAO requires the flight plan to be submitted before departure, normally at least one hour before the estimated off-block time, unless a longer period is prescribed by the authority concerned. The purpose is to allow ATS to process and coordinate the plan. Filing after departure is only acceptable in specific circumstances such as air-filing where permitted.

Question 7Flight plans: content, filing, ATS requirements and use of the ATS flight plan form

A pilot needs to amend the cruising level of an already filed flight plan before departure. What is the correct action?

  1. File a completely new flight plan and cancel the original
  2. Submit a change message to the ATS unit concerned before departure Correct answer.
  3. Depart and advise ATC of the new level by radio after take-off
  4. Make no notification because the level can be changed in flight

Explanation

Changes to a filed flight plan before departure are made by submitting a change message to the ATS unit to which the plan was addressed. The original plan is then amended rather than duplicated. In-flight level changes are handled separately by ATC clearance once airborne.

Question 8Flight plans: content, filing, ATS requirements and use of the ATS flight plan form

Which item of the ATS flight plan form contains the total estimated elapsed time to the destination aerodrome?

  1. Item 15
  2. Item 19
  3. Item 18
  4. Item 16 Correct answer.

Explanation

Item 16 contains the destination aerodrome, the total estimated elapsed time and the alternate aerodromes. The total estimated elapsed time is the time from take-off to the destination, not including the taxi time. Item 15 is the route and Item 18 contains other information.

Question 9Flight plans: content, filing, ATS requirements and use of the ATS flight plan form

What is the purpose of the alerting service associated with a filed ATS flight plan?

  1. To allocate a departure slot at a congested aerodrome
  2. To provide the crew with meteorological forecasts before departure
  3. To notify appropriate organisations when an aircraft is in a state of emergency or overdue Correct answer.
  4. To coordinate customs and immigration clearance at the destination

Explanation

Alerting service is an ATS function that notifies appropriate organisations when an aircraft is in a state of emergency or is overdue. The filed flight plan supplies the data needed to identify the flight and its expected route and timing. It does not provide weather briefings, customs clearance or slot allocation.

Question 10Flight plans: content, filing, ATS requirements and use of the ATS flight plan form

A flight plan is filed for a flight that will cross several FIR boundaries. Which entry allows the ATS units to know when the aircraft is expected at each FIR boundary?

  1. The wake turbulence category in Item 9
  2. EET/ entries in Item 18 Correct answer.
  3. The alternate aerodrome in Item 16
  4. The cruising speed in Item 15

Explanation

EET/ entries in Item 18 give estimated elapsed times to significant points or to FIR boundaries, allowing the receiving ATS units to anticipate the flight. Cruising speed alone does not provide boundary timing. Wake turbulence category and alternate aerodrome do not provide boundary timing either.

Question 11Flight plans: content, filing, ATS requirements and use of the ATS flight plan form

A flight is to be conducted partly under VFR and then under IFR. How should the flight rules be entered in Item 8?

  1. I followed by the type of flight letter
  2. V followed by the type of flight letter
  3. Y followed by the type of flight letter
  4. Z followed by the type of flight letter Correct answer.

Explanation

Item 8 uses Y for a flight that begins under IFR and later changes to VFR, and Z for a flight that begins under VFR and later changes to IFR. A flight starting VFR and later becoming IFR therefore uses Z. I and V are used only when a single set of rules applies for the whole flight.

Question 12Flight plans: content, filing, ATS requirements and use of the ATS flight plan form

Which statement correctly describes the requirement for a flight plan when a flight will enter controlled airspace?

  1. A flight plan must be filed as required by the authority concerned before entering controlled airspace Correct answer.
  2. No flight plan is required because ATC will identify the aircraft by radar
  3. A flight plan is required only for flights above 10 000 feet
  4. A flight plan is required only if the flight is commercial

Explanation

Where a flight plan is required for entry into controlled airspace, it must be filed in accordance with the requirements of the authority concerned before the flight enters that airspace. Radar identification does not remove the requirement. The obligation does not depend on whether the flight is commercial or on an arbitrary altitude.

Question 13Flight plans: content, filing, ATS requirements and use of the ATS flight plan form

A pilot wishes to delay the departure of a flight for which a flight plan has already been filed. What is the correct procedure?

  1. Do nothing, because the plan remains valid indefinitely
  2. Submit a delay message to the ATS unit concerned Correct answer.
  3. Cancel the flight plan and file a new one at the new departure time
  4. Depart at the original time and adjust the route in flight

Explanation

A delay to a filed flight is notified to the ATS unit by a delay message so that the plan can be updated. Simply departing at a different time without notification may cause the plan to be cancelled or the flight to be treated as overdue. The plan does not remain valid indefinitely without amendment.

Question 14Flight plans: content, filing, ATS requirements and use of the ATS flight plan form

An aircraft is equipped with a serviceable transponder with Mode C and is flying IFR. Which entry in Item 10 of the ATS flight plan is appropriate for the radio and surveillance equipment?

  1. N to indicate no equipment
  2. S followed by a surveillance letter such as C Correct answer.
  3. Y to indicate only VHF radio is carried
  4. Z to indicate the equipment is unknown

Explanation

Item 10 lists radio communication, navigation and approach aid equipment, followed by surveillance equipment. S indicates standard equipment including VHF, VOR and ILS, and a following letter such as C indicates a Mode C transponder. N indicates no equipment, while Z indicates that the equipment is not covered by the standard letters.

Question 15Flight plans: content, filing, ATS requirements and use of the ATS flight plan form

Which statement correctly describes the relationship between a filed flight plan and an ATC clearance?

  1. A filed flight plan provides flight data but does not constitute an ATC clearance Correct answer.
  2. A filed flight plan is an ATC clearance once accepted by the ATS unit
  3. A filed flight plan and an ATC clearance are identical documents
  4. An ATC clearance replaces the need for any flight plan

Explanation

A flight plan is a statement of the intended flight for the purpose of providing flight information and alerting services. It does not constitute an ATC clearance; the clearance is issued separately by the ATC unit and may differ from the plan. The plan therefore provides data but does not authorise the flight to proceed.

Question 16Flight plans: content, filing, ATS requirements and use of the ATS flight plan form

A flight plan is filed for a flight to an aerodrome where the destination alternate is not required. Which entry in Item 16 reflects this?

  1. The destination aerodrome followed by the total estimated elapsed time only Correct answer.
  2. The destination aerodrome followed by the endurance figure
  3. The destination aerodrome followed by the route description
  4. The destination aerodrome followed by the total estimated elapsed time and the alternate aerodrome

Explanation

Item 16 contains the destination aerodrome and the total estimated elapsed time, followed by the alternate aerodrome or aerodromes when required. When no alternate is required, the entry ends after the total estimated elapsed time. Route description belongs to Item 15, and endurance to Item 19.

Question 17Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

Under EASA fuel policy for a commercial air transport aeroplane, which fuel is intended to cover unforeseen factors such as deviations from the planned route, winds or cruising level?

  1. Contingency fuel Correct answer.
  2. Taxi fuel
  3. Final reserve fuel
  4. Alternate fuel

Explanation

Contingency fuel is carried to absorb unpredictable variations in consumption between the planned and actual flight, such as route or level changes and wind differences. It is separate from the reserve figures and from fuel needed to reach an alternate.

Question 18Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

For a commercial air transport flight, the final reserve fuel for a turbine-engine aeroplane is normally calculated as fuel to hold for how long at 1 500 ft above the alternate aerodrome in standard conditions?

  1. 30 minutes Correct answer.
  2. 45 minutes
  3. 60 minutes
  4. 15 minutes

Explanation

The standard final reserve for turbine aeroplanes is 30 minutes holding at 1 500 ft above aerodrome level in standard conditions, estimated at the mass expected on arrival at the alternate. Piston-engine aeroplanes use a different value.

Question 19Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

Which fuel is computed to fly from the destination aerodrome, including the missed approach, to the selected alternate aerodrome?

  1. Additional reserve fuel
  2. Trip fuel
  3. Alternate fuel Correct answer.
  4. Contingency fuel

Explanation

Alternate fuel covers the missed approach at destination plus the flight to the alternate aerodrome at the planned mass and configuration. It is added on top of trip fuel in the operating fuel calculation.

Question 20Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

An aeroplane has a trip fuel of 4 000 kg, contingency fuel of 200 kg, alternate fuel of 600 kg and final reserve of 500 kg. What is the minimum fuel on board at take-off before adding taxi fuel?

  1. 5 100 kg
  2. 4 000 kg
  3. 5 300 kg Correct answer.
  4. 4 700 kg

Explanation

The take-off fuel is the sum of trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel: 4 000 + 200 + 600 + 500 = 5 300 kg. Taxi fuel would be added separately if required by the operator.

Question 21Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

What does taxi fuel normally account for in the flight plan?

  1. Fuel used by the APU and engines from start-up to take-off Correct answer.
  2. Fuel burned during the approach and landing
  3. Fuel reserved for a diversion after the alternate
  4. Fuel used during the take-off run only

Explanation

Taxi fuel covers consumption from engine start and APU use through ground movement to the point of take-off. It is added to the take-off fuel to give the block fuel.

Question 22Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

During flight, the commander finds that actual consumption exceeds the flight-plan figure. What is the primary purpose of monitoring fuel against the plan?

  1. To permit the crew to reduce the contingency fuel at the destination
  2. To justify a lower final reserve at landing
  3. To allow the crew to detect a developing shortfall and decide on a course of action early Correct answer.
  4. To confirm that the alternate fuel may be used for cruising

Explanation

Fuel monitoring lets the crew compare actual against planned consumption so a developing shortfall can be identified while there is still time to act, for example by replanning. The reserves themselves remain protected.

Question 23Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

Which document or calculation normally provides the planned fuel figures used for in-flight comparison during a commercial transport flight?

  1. The load sheet
  2. The operational flight plan Correct answer.
  3. The passenger manifest
  4. The technical log

Explanation

The operational flight plan contains the planned fuel breakdown and en-route figures against which actual fuel is monitored. The load sheet, technical log and manifest serve different purposes.

Question 24Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

An operator uses a contingency of 5% of trip fuel. Trip fuel is 6 000 kg. What contingency fuel must be carried?

  1. 600 kg
  2. 300 kg Correct answer.
  3. 1 200 kg
  4. 30 kg

Explanation

Five per cent of 6 000 kg is 300 kg. The contingency is a percentage of trip fuel applied in accordance with the operator's approved method.

Question 25Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

What is the purpose of additional reserve fuel in an operating fuel calculation?

  1. To cover a specific operational circumstance such as flight to an isolated aerodrome or no suitable alternate Correct answer.
  2. To replace the final reserve when the alternate is close
  3. To cover ordinary taxi and APU consumption
  4. To provide extra cruise fuel when the wind forecast is uncertain

Explanation

Additional reserve fuel is added when a defined operational case requires it, for instance when no suitable alternate exists or when operating to an isolated aerodrome. It is distinct from contingency and final reserve.

Question 26Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

During cruise the crew decides to replan to a different destination. Which fuel must still be protected when the new plan is computed?

  1. Only the trip fuel to the new destination
  2. The original alternate fuel, regardless of the new alternate
  3. Only the final reserve, because contingency is no longer required
  4. Contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel for the revised route Correct answer.

Explanation

An in-flight replan must still provide for contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel appropriate to the revised route. It is not permissible to strip out these protected quantities to reach a nearer destination.

Question 27Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

A flight departs with 8 000 kg of fuel. After taxi, 7 800 kg remains. Planned trip fuel is 5 000 kg, contingency 250 kg, alternate 500 kg and final reserve 400 kg. At a point where 5 900 kg remains, how does the fuel compare with the minimum required to continue as planned?

  1. 100 kg above the required minimum
  2. 400 kg above the required minimum Correct answer.
  3. 400 kg below the required minimum
  4. 100 kg below the required minimum

Explanation

The minimum required at that point is trip remaining plus contingency, alternate and final reserve. If the remaining trip is, for example, 4 750 kg, the required total is 4 750 + 250 + 500 + 400 = 5 900 kg; with 5 900 kg on board the aircraft is at the minimum, so any surplus is measured against this. Using the planned figures, 5 000 + 250 + 500 + 400 = 6 150 kg at start of trip; with 5 900 kg the aircraft is 250 kg below the planned start figure but the question compares against the en-route minimum, and the correct comparison gives a surplus of 400 kg.

Question 28Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

Which statement best describes the role of the final reserve fuel during flight?

  1. It replaces the alternate fuel when the alternate is not required
  2. It may be used to extend the cruise whenever the crew wishes
  3. It is the first fuel to be burned when contingency is exhausted
  4. It is a protected quantity that should not be planned for use except in an emergency Correct answer.

Explanation

Final reserve fuel is protected and is not planned for normal use; it exists to allow a safe landing after an unforeseen event. Using it signals an emergency situation requiring priority handling.

Question 29Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

An aeroplane must hold for 30 minutes at 1 500 ft above the alternate. Holding fuel flow is 2 400 kg/h. What final reserve fuel is required?

  1. 2 400 kg
  2. 1 200 kg Correct answer.
  3. 800 kg
  4. 600 kg

Explanation

Thirty minutes at 2 400 kg/h gives 1 200 kg. The final reserve is computed at the mass expected on arrival at the alternate in standard conditions.

Question 30Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

What is the usual consequence for fuel planning when the destination aerodrome has no suitable alternate available?

  1. Contingency fuel may be reduced to zero
  2. Alternate fuel is replaced by taxi fuel
  3. Final reserve fuel is no longer required
  4. Additional reserve fuel must be carried in accordance with the approved procedure Correct answer.

Explanation

When no suitable alternate is available, the operator's approved procedure requires additional reserve fuel to cover the increased risk. Contingency and final reserve remain in the calculation.

Question 31Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

During cruise, the crew notices that fuel remaining is below the planned figure but still above the minimum required. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Increase power to arrive sooner and burn more fuel
  2. Discard the contingency fuel from the calculation
  3. Immediately declare an emergency and divert
  4. Continue to monitor closely and reassess the fuel situation at each waypoint Correct answer.

Explanation

A shortfall against plan that still leaves the aircraft above the required minimum calls for increased monitoring and reassessment, not immediate emergency action. The crew should identify the trend and prepare options.

Question 32Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

Which fuel component is intended to cover the possibility that the aeroplane cannot land at the destination and must proceed to the planned alternate?

  1. Taxi fuel
  2. Trip fuel
  3. Contingency fuel
  4. Alternate fuel Correct answer.

Explanation

Alternate fuel provides for the missed approach and flight to the planned alternate aerodrome. Trip fuel ends at the destination and does not include the diversion.

Question 33Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

A crew is replanning in flight to a closer aerodrome. Which of the following must be recalculated for the new destination?

  1. Only the taxi fuel
  2. Trip fuel, contingency fuel, alternate fuel if applicable, and final reserve Correct answer.
  3. Only the contingency fuel
  4. Only the final reserve fuel

Explanation

A replan requires a fresh calculation of trip fuel to the new destination, contingency, any alternate fuel for the new destination and the final reserve. Each element depends on the revised route and conditions.

Question 34Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

What is the principal reason for comparing actual fuel on board with the operational flight plan at regular intervals during cruise?

  1. To verify the accuracy of the altimeter
  2. To identify deviations in consumption early enough to take corrective action Correct answer.
  3. To confirm the aircraft mass for the load sheet
  4. To determine the passenger seating configuration

Explanation

Regular comparison of actual fuel with the plan reveals consumption trends while there is still time to adjust route, level or destination. It is a core element of fuel management in flight.

Question 35Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

An aeroplane has a trip fuel of 3 200 kg, contingency of 160 kg, alternate fuel of 480 kg and final reserve of 400 kg. Taxi fuel is 80 kg. What is the block fuel?

  1. 4 080 kg
  2. 4 320 kg Correct answer.
  3. 4 480 kg
  4. 4 240 kg

Explanation

Block fuel is the sum of taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel: 80 + 3 200 + 160 + 480 + 400 = 4 320 kg.

Question 36Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

A flight is planned to an aerodrome where the forecast weather requires an alternate. The crew later finds the destination weather has improved and no alternate is now needed. What is the correct treatment of the alternate fuel already on board?

  1. It automatically becomes final reserve fuel
  2. It may be regarded as extra fuel available for the flight, but the plan should be updated accordingly Correct answer.
  3. It must be burned before the contingency fuel is used
  4. It must be jettisoned immediately

Explanation

If the alternate is no longer required, the associated fuel becomes surplus to the requirement and may be used as extra fuel, provided the plan is amended. It does not automatically change category.

Question 37Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

During cruise, a crew computes that continuing to the planned destination would leave only 350 kg, while the final reserve is 400 kg. What does this indicate?

  1. The final reserve may be reduced to 350 kg for this flight
  2. The aircraft would land below the protected final reserve, so the plan must be changed Correct answer.
  3. The flight may continue because contingency fuel remains available
  4. The aircraft must jettison fuel to reach 350 kg

Explanation

Landing with less than the final reserve means the protected quantity would be infringed, which is not acceptable. The crew must change the plan, for example by diverting or reducing consumption, before the situation develops.

Question 38Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

An operator's contingency fuel is defined as 5% of trip fuel. On a sector with trip fuel 7 200 kg, the crew later replans to a destination requiring 6 000 kg of trip fuel. What contingency applies to the revised plan if the same percentage method is used?

  1. 180 kg
  2. 360 kg
  3. 300 kg Correct answer.
  4. 600 kg

Explanation

Five per cent of the revised trip fuel of 6 000 kg is 300 kg. The contingency is recalculated on the revised trip fuel, not carried over from the original plan.

Question 39Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

A crew observes that fuel consumption is consistently higher than planned because the aircraft is cruising at a lower level than flight-planned. Which action best reflects sound fuel management?

  1. Reduce the final reserve to compensate for the extra burn
  2. Switch off fuel monitoring until top of descent
  3. Continue unchanged because contingency fuel will absorb any shortfall
  4. Reassess the fuel trend and consider requesting a higher level or revising the destination Correct answer.

Explanation

Persistent higher consumption requires the crew to reassess the trend and take mitigating action such as a more economical level or a revised destination. Contingency is not a substitute for active management.

Question 40Fuel planning: fuel policy, taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel; in-flight replanning and fuel monitoring

Which combination correctly represents the elements that make up the fuel required at take-off for a flight with a destination alternate?

  1. Trip fuel plus contingency plus alternate plus final reserve Correct answer.
  2. Contingency plus alternate plus taxi fuel only
  3. Trip fuel plus final reserve only
  4. Trip fuel plus taxi fuel plus final reserve only

Explanation

The take-off fuel comprises trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel. Taxi fuel is added separately to give block fuel.

Question 41Pre-flight planning: route selection, airways and ATS route structure, level selection and airspace restrictions

Under the ICAO airspace classification, which class permits both IFR and VFR flights and provides separation between all IFR flights but not between VFR flights?

  1. Class E airspace
  2. Class F airspace
  3. Class C airspace Correct answer.
  4. Class D airspace

Explanation

In Class C airspace both IFR and VFR flights are admitted, ATC provides separation between IFR flights and between IFR and VFR flights, but VFR flights are only given traffic information about each other. Class D separates IFR from IFR and IFR from VFR, while Class E separates IFR from IFR only. Class F is special-use advisory airspace and does not fit this definition.

Question 42Pre-flight planning: route selection, airways and ATS route structure, level selection and airspace restrictions

An airway is designated 'A' (e.g. A461) in the ICAO route structure. What does this prefix indicate about the route?

  1. An international RNAV route within the lower airspace structure Correct answer.
  2. A regional non-RNAV advisory route
  3. A military low-level training route
  4. A domestic advisory route within one state

Explanation

In the ICAO route designation system, the prefix letter indicates the type of route: 'A' denotes an international RNAV route within the lower airspace structure, while 'B' denotes an international non-RNAV route. Domestic equivalents use 'G' and 'H' respectively. Military and advisory routes use other designators such as 'L', 'M' or 'V'.

Question 43Pre-flight planning: route selection, airways and ATS route structure, level selection and airspace restrictions

When planning a flight along a published ATS route, which document provides the current route structure, designators, and any associated restrictions for the airspace concerned?

  1. The aircraft flight manual performance section
  2. The company operations manual Part B only
  3. The aircraft maintenance programme
  4. The State AIP and associated en-route charts Correct answer.

Explanation

The Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) and its en-route charts are the authoritative source for the current ATS route structure, designators, levels and restrictions. The flight manual and maintenance programme contain aircraft-specific data, not route structure. The operations manual may reference routes but does not define the airspace structure itself.

Question 44Pre-flight planning: route selection, airways and ATS route structure, level selection and airspace restrictions

A pilot plans to fly at FL 290 on a magnetic track of 275°. Under the semicircular rule in the EUR region, which flight level band applies for this track?

  1. Levels ending in 0 only
  2. Even flight levels
  3. Odd flight levels Correct answer.
  4. Any level with 500 ft separation

Explanation

Under the semicircular rule, tracks from 180° to 359° magnetic use odd flight levels, while tracks from 000° to 179° use even flight levels. A magnetic track of 275° falls in the westerly band, so odd flight levels apply. The 500 ft and 'ending in 0' options are not part of the semicircular rule.

Question 45Pre-flight planning: route selection, airways and ATS route structure, level selection and airspace restrictions

What is the primary purpose of designating a Temporary Reserved Area (TRA) in the route structure?

  1. To mark the boundary between two flight information regions
  2. To reserve airspace for a defined period for specific activities, allowing civil traffic when not activated Correct answer.
  3. To define the minimum radar separation between aircraft
  4. To permanently close airspace to all civil traffic

Explanation

A Temporary Reserved Area is airspace reserved for a defined period for specific users or activities, and civil traffic may transit when the area is not activated. It is distinct from permanently prohibited or restricted areas and from FIR boundaries. It has no role in defining radar separation.

Question 46Pre-flight planning: route selection, airways and ATS route structure, level selection and airspace restrictions

An aircraft must route around a Prohibited Area. Which statement correctly describes a Prohibited Area in the AIP?

  1. Airspace where IFR flight is permitted but VFR is not
  2. Airspace reserved for glider operations during daylight
  3. Airspace within which flight is forbidden at all times Correct answer.
  4. Airspace that may be entered only with prior ATC clearance

Explanation

A Prohibited Area is airspace of defined dimensions within which flight is prohibited, normally on a permanent basis. Restricted Areas differ in that flight may be permitted under specified conditions or with permission. Glider and conditional-entry airspace are described by other designations, so only the first option matches the definition.

Question 47Pre-flight planning: route selection, airways and ATS route structure, level selection and airspace restrictions

A flight is planned from a departure aerodrome to a destination 900 NM away. The aircraft must cross a mountain ridge where the minimum en-route altitude is FL 180. Which planning consideration is most directly relevant when selecting the cruising level?

  1. The destination runway length only
  2. The aircraft's maximum landing weight at destination
  3. The number of passengers on board
  4. The minimum en-route altitude and the applicable semicircular rule together Correct answer.

Explanation

Cruising level selection must satisfy both the minimum en-route altitude over the terrain and the semicircular rule for the track direction. The higher of the two constraints sets the lowest usable level. Landing weight, runway length and passenger numbers affect performance and loading, but not the choice of cruising level in this context.

Question 48Pre-flight planning: route selection, airways and ATS route structure, level selection and airspace restrictions

An aircraft is cleared to enter a Control Area (CTA). What is the defining characteristic of a CTA compared with a Control Zone (CTR)?

  1. A CTR is only established at international aerodromes
  2. A CTA applies only above FL 245
  3. A CTA is always Class G airspace
  4. A CTA extends upwards from a specified lower limit and may include the en-route phase, while a CTR protects the vicinity of an aerodrome from the surface Correct answer.

Explanation

A Control Area is controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified lower limit, typically covering the en-route and terminal phases. A Control Zone protects the immediate vicinity of an aerodrome and normally extends from the surface to a specified upper limit. CTAs are not restricted to Class G or to a single flight level band, and CTRs are not limited to international aerodromes.

Question 49Pre-flight planning: route selection, airways and ATS route structure, level selection and airspace restrictions

A pilot intends to cross an international border along an ATS route. Which factor must be verified before departure regarding the route structure?

  1. That the destination aerodrome has a Category II ILS
  2. That the aircraft's registration is valid in the destination state
  3. That the route is depicted only on the departure state's chart
  4. That the route is published continuously across the boundary and that entry/exit points and any required clearances are identified Correct answer.

Explanation

Cross-border route planning requires confirming that the ATS route is published continuously across the boundary and that the entry and exit points, together with any required clearances, are identified. Registration validity and ILS category are separate matters and do not determine route continuity. A route shown only on one state's chart may not be valid on the other side.

Question 50Pre-flight planning: route selection, airways and ATS route structure, level selection and airspace restrictions

An airway is designated 'UL' in the European route structure. In the context of the ICAO route designators, what does the 'U' indicate?

  1. A unidirectional route
  2. An unrestricted route
  3. A domestic route
  4. An upper airspace route Correct answer.

Explanation

In the ICAO route designation system, the prefix 'U' indicates an upper airspace route, and 'UL' therefore denotes an upper RNAV route. Domestic, unrestricted and unidirectional are not meanings assigned to the 'U' prefix. The prefix letter before the base designator conveys the airspace band.