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GAQM APM practice questions

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Question 1Project Management Fundamentals

In the GAQM Associate in Project Management body of knowledge, a project is best distinguished from routine operations by which characteristic?

  1. It is managed by a functional line supervisor by default
  2. It requires no defined start or finish date
  3. It is repeated identically on a fixed annual cycle
  4. It is temporary and produces a unique product, service, or result Correct answer.

Explanation

A project is defined by its temporary nature and the uniqueness of its deliverable, which together separate it from ongoing operations. Operations are repetitive and sustain the business, whereas a project closes once its objective is achieved or terminated.

Question 2Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager is appointed but has little authority over staff who remain accountable to their functional managers. Which organizational structure does this describe?

  1. Composite organization
  2. Strong matrix organization
  3. Weak matrix organization Correct answer.
  4. Projectized organization

Explanation

In a weak matrix the project manager acts more as a coordinator or expeditor, with limited authority while functional managers retain primary control of resources. Authority shifts toward the project manager as the structure moves through balanced and strong matrix to projectized.

Question 3Project Management Fundamentals

Which document formally authorizes the existence of a project and gives the project manager authority to apply organizational resources to project activities?

  1. Project charter Correct answer.
  2. Project management plan
  3. Work breakdown structure
  4. Benefits management plan

Explanation

The project charter is the document issued by the sponsor that formally recognizes the project and empowers the project manager. The project management plan, by contrast, describes how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled.

Question 4Project Management Fundamentals

A stakeholder wants a new reporting feature added midway through execution. Which process group activity should the project manager perform to evaluate and act on this request?

  1. Perform integrated change control Correct answer.
  2. Close project or phase
  3. Develop project charter
  4. Acquire resources

Explanation

Perform integrated change control is the process for reviewing change requests, assessing their impact, and approving, rejecting, or deferring them. All scope changes should flow through this process so the baseline and plan remain consistent.

Question 5Project Management Fundamentals

Which process group contains the processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project?

  1. Executing
  2. Initiating Correct answer.
  3. Planning
  4. Monitoring and controlling

Explanation

The initiating process group includes the processes that define a new project or phase and obtain authorization to proceed. Planning then establishes the scope, schedule, and approach before execution begins.

Question 6Project Management Fundamentals

A project team is decomposing the total scope of work into manageable, deliverable-oriented components. Which technique are they applying?

  1. Rolling wave planning
  2. Creating a work breakdown structure Correct answer.
  3. Precedence diagramming
  4. Resource leveling

Explanation

A work breakdown structure hierarchically decomposes the total scope into deliverables and work packages. It is deliverable-oriented rather than activity-oriented, and it forms the basis for estimating and control.

Question 7Project Management Fundamentals

The lowest level of a work breakdown structure, at which cost and duration can be reliably estimated and managed, is called what?

  1. Planning package
  2. Activity attribute
  3. Work package Correct answer.
  4. Control account

Explanation

A work package is the smallest deliverable-oriented element of the work breakdown structure and is where estimates and accountability are assigned. Control accounts sit above work packages and aggregate them for management control.

Question 8Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager is determining the sequence of project activities and their logical relationships. Which project management process is being performed?

  1. Develop schedule
  2. Estimate activity durations
  3. Plan schedule management
  4. Sequence activities Correct answer.

Explanation

Sequence activities identifies and documents relationships among project activities using techniques such as precedence diagramming. Duration estimating and schedule development come after sequencing.

Question 9Project Management Fundamentals

In a precedence diagram, activity B cannot start until activity A finishes, and activity C cannot start until both A and B finish. What is the relationship between A and C?

  1. Start-to-start
  2. Start-to-finish
  3. Finish-to-start with a lead
  4. Finish-to-finish Correct answer.

Explanation

Because C cannot complete before A completes, the dependency between A and C is finish-to-finish. The finish-to-start link applies to A and B, and B and C, not to A and C.

Question 10Project Management Fundamentals

Which estimating technique uses historical data from similar past projects to estimate the duration or cost of the current project?

  1. Three-point estimating
  2. Parametric estimating
  3. Bottom-up estimating
  4. Analogous estimating Correct answer.

Explanation

Analogous estimating relies on the actual values of similar previous projects and is useful when detail is scarce. It is generally less accurate than bottom-up or parametric methods but faster and cheaper.

Question 11Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager wants to determine the total budget that must be authorized for the project, including contingency reserves but excluding management reserves. Which term applies?

  1. Value engineering
  2. Cost baseline Correct answer.
  3. Cost of quality
  4. Life cycle costing

Explanation

The cost baseline is the approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding management reserves, and is used to measure performance. Management reserves are added above the cost baseline to form the total project funding requirement.

Question 12Project Management Fundamentals

Earned value data show EV = 400, PV = 500, and AC = 450. What is the cost performance index, and what does it indicate?

  1. 0.89, indicating cost underrun
  2. 1.13, indicating cost underrun
  3. 0.89, indicating cost overrun Correct answer.
  4. 1.13, indicating cost overrun

Explanation

CPI equals EV divided by AC, so 400 divided by 450 gives approximately 0.89. A CPI below 1.0 means the project is receiving less value per unit of cost than planned, which signals a cost overrun.

Question 13Project Management Fundamentals

Which quality tool is a graphic display of the frequency of occurrence of a problem or defect, arranged to help prioritize the most significant causes?

  1. Flowchart
  2. Control chart
  3. Scatter diagram
  4. Pareto chart Correct answer.

Explanation

A Pareto chart orders categories of defects by frequency and is based on the principle that a small number of causes produce most problems. This supports prioritizing corrective action on the most impactful causes.

Question 14Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager is identifying the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project and analyzing their interests and influence. Which process is this?

  1. Manage stakeholder engagement
  2. Plan communications management
  3. Plan stakeholder engagement
  4. Identify stakeholders Correct answer.

Explanation

Identify stakeholders is the process of regularly identifying stakeholders, analyzing their interests and influence, and recording relevant information. Planning engagement then uses that analysis to develop strategies for involvement.

Question 15Project Management Fundamentals

Which communication method is most appropriate for sharing a large volume of complex technical information with a geographically dispersed audience?

  1. Push communication
  2. Pull communication Correct answer.
  3. Interactive communication
  4. Informal verbal communication

Explanation

Pull communication suits large volumes of information or large audiences, allowing recipients to access content at their own discretion, such as through a knowledge repository. Interactive and push methods are better for ensuring specific messages reach defined recipients.

Question 16Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager wants to reduce the probability and impact of identified threats by planning actions in advance. Which risk response strategy is being used?

  1. Mitigate Correct answer.
  2. Exploit
  3. Accept
  4. Transfer

Explanation

Mitigation lowers the probability or impact of a threat, often by reducing the likelihood of occurrence or the severity of consequences. Acceptance, by contrast, acknowledges the risk without proactive action.

Question 17Project Management Fundamentals

A risk register entry shows that a risk has occurred and the contingency reserve is being used to cover the resulting cost. Which process is being executed?

  1. Implement risk responses Correct answer.
  2. Monitor risks
  3. Plan risk responses
  4. Identify risks

Explanation

Implement risk responses is the process of executing agreed-upon response plans when the risk event occurs, including drawing on contingency reserves. Monitoring risks tracks residual and new risks rather than executing the response.

Question 18Project Management Fundamentals

Which document records the approved scope baseline, schedule baseline, and cost baseline together as the performance measurement baseline?

  1. Project management plan Correct answer.
  2. Scope management plan
  3. Cost management plan
  4. Requirements documentation

Explanation

The project management plan integrates the subsidiary plans and baselines, and the approved scope, schedule, and cost baselines together form the performance measurement baseline. Subsidiary plans describe how each knowledge area will be managed.

Question 19Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager is developing the team by improving competencies and enhancing overall team interaction. Which process group does this activity belong to?

  1. Monitoring and controlling
  2. Planning
  3. Executing Correct answer.
  4. Closing

Explanation

Develop project team is performed during the executing process group, where resources are developed and work is carried out. Planning establishes the resource plan, and monitoring and controlling measures performance.

Question 20Project Management Fundamentals

A project has a schedule variance of negative 5,000 and a cost performance index of 1.10. What is the most reasonable interpretation?

  1. The project is ahead of schedule and under budget
  2. The project is ahead of schedule and over budget
  3. The project is behind schedule and under budget Correct answer.
  4. The project is behind schedule and over budget

Explanation

A negative schedule variance means less work has been accomplished than planned, so the project is behind schedule. A CPI above 1.0 indicates more value earned per unit of cost, meaning the project is under budget.

Question 21Project Management Fundamentals

Which procurement document is typically used to request detailed proposals from sellers when the buyer has a well-defined requirement?

  1. Invitation for bid
  2. Request for information
  3. Purchase order
  4. Request for proposal Correct answer.

Explanation

A request for proposal asks sellers to submit technical and commercial proposals and is used when requirements are complex or need elaboration. A request for information gathers market data and is not a formal solicitation for a defined need.

Question 22Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager must ensure that deliverables conform to requirements before they are presented to the customer. Which process performs this verification?

  1. Control scope
  2. Control quality Correct answer.
  3. Validate scope
  4. Manage quality

Explanation

Control quality monitors and records results of quality activities to assess performance and recommend corrective actions, verifying that deliverables meet specified requirements. Validate scope then obtains formal acceptance of completed deliverables from the customer.

Question 23Project Management Fundamentals

Which activity is performed as part of the Close Project or Phase process?

  1. Confirming that all project work is completed and obtaining final acceptance Correct answer.
  2. Performing integrated change control
  3. Developing the project charter
  4. Estimating activity durations

Explanation

Close project or phase finalizes all activities across all process groups, confirms completion of defined work, and obtains final acceptance. It also archives project documents and releases resources.

Question 24Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager is analyzing the critical path of a network diagram. Which statement correctly describes the critical path?

  1. It is the path with the lowest total cost
  2. It is the path that contains the fewest activities
  3. It is the shortest path and always has the most float
  4. It is the longest path through the network and determines the shortest project duration Correct answer.

Explanation

The critical path is the longest sequence of dependent activities and determines the shortest possible project duration. Activities on the critical path typically have zero or minimal total float, so delays there delay the project.

Question 25Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager documents assumptions and constraints in the project charter. Which best describes a constraint?

  1. A factor that limits the options available to the project team Correct answer.
  2. A documented expectation that is accepted as true without proof
  3. A formal acceptance of a deliverable
  4. An uncertain event that may affect the project

Explanation

A constraint is a limiting factor, such as a fixed budget, deadline, or regulatory requirement, that restricts the team's options. Assumptions are factors considered true without proof, and risks are uncertain events.

Question 26Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager is drafting the document that formally authorizes the project and gives the project manager authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. Which document is being created?

  1. The project management plan
  2. The benefits management plan
  3. The stakeholder register
  4. The project charter Correct answer.

Explanation

The project charter is the document issued by the sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and grants the project manager authority to commit organizational resources. The project management plan describes how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled, and is developed after authorization.

Question 27Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager is reviewing how the organization structures its projects and finds that the project manager has little authority, while the functional manager controls the budget and resources. Which organizational structure does this describe?

  1. Functional Correct answer.
  2. Balanced matrix
  3. Strong matrix
  4. Project-oriented

Explanation

In a functional organization, projects are coordinated within functional departments and the project manager typically has limited authority while the functional manager controls budget and resource allocation. Matrix structures, by contrast, formally blend functional and project authority to varying degrees.

Question 28Project Management Fundamentals

During a status meeting, a stakeholder asks the project manager to explain what a deliverable is in project management terms. Which description is most accurate?

  1. Any resource assigned to a work package in the resource calendar
  2. Any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability to perform a service that is produced to complete a process, phase, or project Correct answer.
  3. Any activity listed in the project schedule that consumes resources
  4. Any document that records a decision made by the project sponsor

Explanation

A deliverable is any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability to perform a service that must be produced to complete a process, phase, or project. Deliverables are the outputs against which project performance is measured, whereas activities are the work performed to create them.

Question 29Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager is analyzing a network diagram and finds that a path has zero total float. Which conclusion about that path is correct?

  1. It is a path that can be delayed without affecting the project finish date
  2. It is the critical path and determines the shortest possible project duration Correct answer.
  3. It is the path with the highest cost of crashing
  4. It contains only activities that have no dependencies

Explanation

The critical path is the longest path through the network and has the least total float, which is normally zero or negative. Because it is the longest path, it determines the shortest possible duration for the project and any delay on it delays the project finish.

Question 30Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager is planning how to manage the project team and needs to document reporting relationships, formal communication channels, and the roles and responsibilities of team members. Which tool or output is most appropriate?

  1. The project organization chart combined with a responsibility assignment matrix Correct answer.
  2. The resource histogram
  3. The responsibility assignment matrix only
  4. The team performance assessment

Explanation

Plan Resource Management produces the project team charter and role documentation, and the project organization chart shows reporting relationships while a responsibility assignment matrix such as a RACI charts roles and responsibilities. Together they cover reporting lines, roles, and communication channels.

Question 31Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager is building a cost estimate and wants to improve accuracy by using detailed bottom-up estimates for each work package, then aggregating them with a roll-up. Which statement best describes the main trade-off of this approach?

  1. It increases accuracy and cost but requires more time and effort Correct answer.
  2. It relies solely on expert judgment from the sponsor
  3. It is faster than analogous estimating but less accurate
  4. It eliminates the need for a cost baseline

Explanation

Bottom-up estimating aggregates estimates for individual work packages or activities and generally produces the most accurate cost estimates, but it takes considerable time and effort and is more costly to prepare. It also requires the scope to be decomposed in enough detail to support estimating.

Question 32Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager is monitoring schedule performance and observes that the schedule performance index is 0.80. What does this value indicate?

  1. The project has completed 80 percent of its scope
  2. The project has spent 80 percent of its budget
  3. The project is progressing faster than planned
  4. The project is earning value at 80 percent of the rate planned Correct answer.

Explanation

The schedule performance index equals earned value divided by planned value, so a value of 0.80 means the project is earning value at only 80 percent of the rate originally planned. Any SPI below 1.0 indicates schedule slippage relative to the baseline.

Question 33Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager wants to manage engagement by tailoring communication to stakeholders' needs and expectations. Which input is most directly used to decide the format, content, and frequency of communications?

  1. The schedule baseline
  2. The quality control measurements
  3. The procurement management plan
  4. The communications management plan and stakeholder engagement assessment Correct answer.

Explanation

The communications management plan defines the approach, sender and receiver, format, and timing of communications, and the stakeholder engagement assessment shows current versus desired engagement, which guides tailoring. Together they determine how communication should be adapted for each stakeholder group.

Question 34Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager is conducting a risk workshop and wants to generate a comprehensive list of risks before any analysis is performed. Which technique is most appropriate for this purpose?

  1. Monte Carlo simulation
  2. Reserve analysis
  3. Brainstorming with a cross-functional group Correct answer.
  4. Decision tree analysis

Explanation

Brainstorming, often combined with checklists or interviews, is an idea-generation technique used in Identify Risks to produce a broad list of individual project risks before analysis. Simulation, decision trees, and reserve analysis require identified risks and are used later for analysis or response planning.

Question 35Project Management Fundamentals

A seller has been selected and the contract is being closed. The buyer's procurement administrator confirms that all deliverables were accepted and final payment was made. Which activity is being performed?

  1. Close Project or Phase
  2. Control Procurements Correct answer.
  3. Plan Procurement Management
  4. Conduct Procurements

Explanation

Control Procurements includes managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, and closing out contracts, which involves verifying deliverables were accepted and final payment made. Contract closure is part of this process, while the overall project closure is handled separately.

Question 36Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager is preparing to manage quality and wants to distinguish between the cost of conformance and the cost of nonconformance. Which pair correctly represents these two categories?

  1. Prevention and failure costs are cost of conformance; appraisal costs are cost of nonconformance
  2. Appraisal and failure costs are cost of conformance; prevention costs are cost of nonconformance
  3. Internal failure and prevention costs are cost of conformance; external failure costs are cost of nonconformance
  4. Prevention and appraisal costs are cost of conformance; internal and external failure costs are cost of nonconformance Correct answer.

Explanation

Cost of quality divides into cost of conformance, which includes prevention costs such as training and appraisal costs such as testing, and cost of nonconformance, which includes internal and external failure costs. Prevention and appraisal spending is intended to avoid failures, while failure costs arise when defects occur.

Question 37Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager is reviewing the project's scope baseline and notices that a requested change would add a new feature not in the original scope. What is the correct first step in handling this change?

  1. Log the change request and submit it to the change control process for review and approval Correct answer.
  2. Update the scope baseline directly without review
  3. Implement the change immediately to keep the customer satisfied
  4. Reject the change because scope is frozen once baselined

Explanation

Any change to the approved scope baseline must be processed through the Perform Integrated Change Control process, which begins by formally recording the change request and evaluating its impact before a decision is made. Only approved changes result in baseline updates.

Question 38Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager is analyzing stakeholder engagement and finds that a key stakeholder is currently resistant but needs to become supportive for the project to succeed. Which action is most appropriate?

  1. Reduce the frequency of communication with the stakeholder
  2. Remove the stakeholder from the stakeholder register
  3. Plan tailored engagement actions to address the stakeholder's concerns and move them toward the desired engagement level Correct answer.
  4. Escalate to the sponsor to override the stakeholder's concerns

Explanation

Plan Stakeholder Engagement compares the current engagement level with the desired level and identifies tailored strategies and actions to move stakeholders toward the engagement needed for project success. Removing or ignoring a resistant key stakeholder increases risk to the project.

Question 39Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager is evaluating two response strategies for a threat. Mitigation reduces the probability of occurrence, while transference shifts the impact to a third party. Which statement best distinguishes these strategies?

  1. Mitigation and transference both eliminate the risk entirely from the project
  2. Mitigation requires insurance, while transference requires a contingency reserve
  3. Mitigation acts on probability or impact within the project, while transference shifts financial consequence to another party without eliminating the risk Correct answer.
  4. Mitigation transfers ownership of the risk to a third party, while transference reduces its probability

Explanation

Mitigation reduces the probability and/or impact of a threat within the project, whereas transference shifts the financial consequence and ownership of the response to a third party such as an insurer or vendor. Transference does not eliminate the risk, and a residual risk remains with the project.

Question 40Project Management Fundamentals

A project manager is reviewing earned value data and finds that the cost performance index is 0.90 while the schedule performance index is 1.15. Which interpretation is most reasonable?

  1. The project is behind schedule and under budget
  2. The project is behind schedule and over budget
  3. The project is ahead of schedule and under budget
  4. The project is ahead of schedule and over budget Correct answer.

Explanation

A schedule performance index above 1.0 indicates the project is ahead of schedule, while a cost performance index below 1.0 indicates costs are exceeding the value earned, meaning the project is over budget. The two indices measure different dimensions and must be read together.

Question 41Project Initiation and Scope Definition

In a project charter, what is the primary role of the statement of high-level project requirements?

  1. To record the technical design decisions approved by the engineering team
  2. To describe the needs the project must satisfy so the project manager can plan scope Correct answer.
  3. To authorize the project manager to apply organizational resources to project activities
  4. To list the individual work packages that will appear in the work breakdown structure

Explanation

High-level requirements in the charter capture the needs and expectations the project must meet, giving the project manager a basis for developing the detailed scope later. They are deliberately coarse because the charter is produced before detailed planning. They are not a substitute for the WBS, which decomposes scope into work packages.

Question 42Project Initiation and Scope Definition

A sponsor asks why a business case must be approved before the project charter is issued. Which answer best reflects project management practice?

  1. The business case documents the detailed schedule baseline that the charter summarizes
  2. The business case justifies the investment and provides the rationale the charter then authorizes Correct answer.
  3. The business case replaces the charter whenever the project is internally sponsored
  4. The business case is needed only for projects delivered under a fixed-price contract

Explanation

The business case establishes why the organization should invest, typically through cost-benefit and strategic alignment analysis. The charter then formally authorizes the project that the business case justified. This sequence ensures authorization follows a documented rationale.

Question 43Project Initiation and Scope Definition

Which document formally authorizes the existence of a project and gives the project manager authority to apply organizational resources?

  1. The project charter Correct answer.
  2. The project management plan
  3. The benefits realization plan
  4. The scope management plan

Explanation

The project charter is the document issued by the sponsor or initiating authority that formally recognizes the project and empowers the project manager. Plans such as the project management plan and scope management plan are developed afterwards and guide execution rather than authorize the project.

Question 44Project Initiation and Scope Definition

During scope definition, a team is decomposing the total project scope into progressively smaller deliverables. What is the output of this process called?

  1. The responsibility assignment matrix
  2. The work breakdown structure Correct answer.
  3. The resource histogram
  4. The requirements traceability matrix

Explanation

The work breakdown structure is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work into deliverables and work packages. It is the primary tool for defining and organizing scope. The other artifacts support roles, resourcing, or requirements tracking rather than scope decomposition.

Question 45Project Initiation and Scope Definition

What is the lowest level of the work breakdown structure, where cost and duration can be reliably estimated and managed, called?

  1. A control account
  2. A planning package
  3. A work package Correct answer.
  4. A milestone

Explanation

A work package is the lowest level of the WBS and is the point at which work can be estimated, scheduled, monitored, and controlled. Control accounts sit above work packages, and planning packages represent scope not yet decomposed into work packages.

Question 46Project Initiation and Scope Definition

A project manager needs to know who has authority to approve changes to the project scope. Which component of the project charter or scope baseline addresses this?

  1. The list of key stakeholders and their communication preferences
  2. The change control procedure describing approval authority Correct answer.
  3. The acceptance criteria section
  4. The project's high-level budget summary

Explanation

Change control procedures specify how scope changes are requested, evaluated, and who may approve them. This is essential for preventing unauthorized scope creep. Stakeholder lists, budgets, and acceptance criteria do not define approval authority for changes.

Question 47Project Initiation and Scope Definition

Which statement best describes the relationship between product scope and project scope?

  1. Product scope describes the features of the deliverable, while project scope describes the work to create it Correct answer.
  2. Project scope is defined first and product scope is derived from the work breakdown structure
  3. Product scope applies only to manufactured goods, while project scope applies to services
  4. Product scope and project scope are the same thing described from different perspectives

Explanation

Product scope refers to the characteristics and functions of the product or service being created, while project scope is the work required to deliver it. Managing both is necessary because completing the work does not guarantee the product meets its requirements.

Question 48Project Initiation and Scope Definition

A stakeholder asks the project manager to add a reporting dashboard that was never mentioned in the approved scope statement. What should the project manager do first?

  1. Ask the team to estimate the dashboard so it can be added to the next status report
  2. Reject the request outright because the scope is already approved
  3. Build the dashboard because customer satisfaction is a project objective
  4. Log the request and route it through the integrated change control process for evaluation Correct answer.

Explanation

Any change to approved scope should be captured and evaluated through integrated change control, which assesses impact on scope, schedule, cost, and quality before a decision. This protects the baseline and gives the sponsor or change authority the information needed to approve or reject it.

Question 49Project Initiation and Scope Definition

A project manager is developing a WBS and wants to ensure the team captures all work required to deliver the project scope. Which approach best supports completeness?

  1. Decompose only the deliverables that carry the highest cost
  2. Decompose by organizational department so each manager owns a branch
  3. Decompose to the level where each work package takes no more than one day
  4. Decompose using the 100 percent rule so the sum of child elements equals the parent's scope Correct answer.

Explanation

The 100 percent rule states that the sum of the work at each level must equal 100 percent of the work at the parent level, which prevents missing or extra scope. Decomposition depth varies by project and should not be fixed to an arbitrary duration or cost threshold.

Question 50Project Initiation and Scope Definition

A project charter lists a 'high-level scope boundary' that excludes integration with a legacy billing system. During planning, a stakeholder insists the integration is essential. What is the most appropriate response?

  1. Ignore the request because exclusions in the charter are permanently binding
  2. Include the integration because stakeholders define project success
  3. Escalate the boundary conflict to the sponsor through change control to formally revise scope Correct answer.
  4. Ask the technical team to build the integration quietly to avoid schedule delays

Explanation

Scope exclusions in the charter are part of the approved boundary, so changing them requires a formal decision by the sponsor or change authority. Escalation through change control documents the impact and preserves an auditable record. Neither unilateral inclusion nor silent work respects the baseline.