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IAED EPD practice questions

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First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

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Question 1Medical dispatch

A caller reports an adult who collapsed and is not breathing normally. Under the Medical Priority Dispatch System (MPDS), which determinant code level reflects a patient who is not breathing at all?

  1. Alpha (A)
  2. Bravo (B)
  3. Echo (E) Correct answer.
  4. Charlie (C)

Explanation

MPDS determinant levels run from Echo (highest, immediately life-threatening) down through Delta, Charlie, Bravo, and Alpha. A patient who is not breathing at all is assigned the Echo level because immediate resuscitation and the fastest possible response are required. Lower levels describe patients with progressively less urgent presentations.

Question 2Medical dispatch

During a medical call, the EMD's first priority after establishing the address and callback number is to determine which of the following?

  1. The caller's relationship to the patient
  2. The patient's chief complaint and level of consciousness Correct answer.
  3. The nearest hospital's diversion status
  4. The patient's insurance provider

Explanation

The EMD's initial interrogation focuses on the chief complaint and the patient's level of consciousness, because these determine the protocol pathway and urgency. Insurance and hospital status are not dispatch priorities. The caller relationship may be noted but does not drive protocol selection.

Question 3Medical dispatch

An EMD is handling a call for a conscious adult who is choking and cannot speak or cough. Which instruction is appropriate while the response is dispatched?

  1. Tell the caller to wait for responders to arrive
  2. Instruct the caller to begin abdominal thrusts Correct answer.
  3. Advise the caller to lie the patient flat
  4. Have the patient drink water to clear the obstruction

Explanation

A patient who cannot speak or cough has a severe airway obstruction requiring immediate intervention. The EMD should instruct the caller to perform abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver) while help is en route. Giving water or waiting wastes critical time, and lying flat does not relieve the obstruction.

Question 4Medical dispatch

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the MPDS 'Case Entry' phase?

  1. To determine the appropriate hospital destination
  2. To document the responder's on-scene findings
  3. To confirm the incident location, callback number, and nature of the emergency Correct answer.
  4. To provide pre-arrival instructions for CPR

Explanation

Case Entry establishes the essential facts: where the emergency is, how to reach the caller, and what the problem is. Pre-arrival instructions come later in the protocol, and hospital destination and on-scene findings are outside the EMD's Case Entry role.

Question 5Medical dispatch

A caller states that a family member is having a seizure. Which instruction should the EMD give first while awaiting responders?

  1. Hold the patient's limbs firmly to stop the movement
  2. Place a spoon between the patient's teeth
  3. Give the patient water to drink
  4. Move objects away and protect the patient's head Correct answer.

Explanation

Seizure first aid focuses on protecting the patient from injury: clear nearby objects and cushion the head. Restraining the patient or placing objects in the mouth risks injury, and oral fluids during an active seizure create an aspiration hazard.

Question 6Medical dispatch

Which of the following is a standard component of the EMD's pre-arrival instructions for a suspected heart attack?

  1. Have the patient eat a large meal
  2. Have the patient chew aspirin if not allergic and instructed by protocol Correct answer.
  3. Have the patient walk briskly to improve circulation
  4. Have the patient lie face down

Explanation

Many EMD protocols direct the caller to have a conscious adult with suspected cardiac chest pain chew aspirin unless allergic or contraindicated. Physical exertion, prone positioning, and eating do not improve cardiac perfusion and may worsen the situation.

Question 7Medical dispatch

What does the MPDS term 'Key Question' refer to?

  1. A standardized question used in a specific protocol to select the determinant code Correct answer.
  2. A question the EMD asks only if the caller volunteers information
  3. A question asked by responders on arrival at the scene
  4. A question used only for billing purposes

Explanation

Key Questions are protocol-specific standardized questions whose answers drive determinant code selection. They are asked systematically, not only when the caller volunteers information, and they are not used for billing or by responders on scene.

Question 8Medical dispatch

Which of the following best describes the EMD's responsibility regarding the caller's emotional state during a high-stress medical call?

  1. Transfer the call immediately to a supervisor
  2. End the call and wait for the caller to call back
  3. Ignore the caller's emotions and focus only on the patient
  4. Use calm, direct language to gain cooperation and gather information Correct answer.

Explanation

Effective EMD communication uses calm, direct, and reassuring language to focus a distressed caller on the actions needed to help the patient. Ignoring emotion reduces cooperation, and transferring or ending the call abandons the patient.

Question 9Medical dispatch

An adult caller reports a patient who is conscious but has difficulty breathing and has a known history of asthma. Which MPDS protocol category is most appropriate to select?

  1. Breathing Problems Correct answer.
  2. Unknown Problem
  3. Fall
  4. Abdominal Pain

Explanation

The chief complaint of difficulty breathing aligns with the Breathing Problems protocol. Abdominal pain and falls describe different chief complaints, and Unknown Problem is reserved for cases where the nature of the emergency cannot be determined.

Question 10Medical dispatch

During a call, a caller reports that an adult patient is not breathing and CPR is in progress. Which determinant level is most appropriate?

  1. Charlie
  2. Bravo
  3. Alpha
  4. Echo Correct answer.

Explanation

A patient not breathing and receiving CPR is a cardiac arrest presentation, which is assigned the highest determinant level, Echo. Alpha, Bravo, and Charlie describe progressively less immediately life-threatening presentations and would under-triage this patient.

Question 11Medical dispatch

An EMD is providing pre-arrival CPR instructions to a caller. Which statement best reflects the correct sequence?

  1. Instruct the caller to place the patient in a sitting position
  2. Instruct the caller to check responsiveness and breathing, then begin chest compressions Correct answer.
  3. Instruct the caller to wait for responders before touching the patient
  4. Instruct the caller to give rescue breaths only

Explanation

Pre-arrival CPR instructions begin with confirming unresponsiveness and abnormal or absent breathing, then direct the caller to start chest compressions. Waiting for responders or giving breaths only delays effective circulation, and sitting the patient up does not address arrest.

Question 12Medical dispatch

Which of the following best describes the role of 'Dispatch Life Support' (DLS) in the EMD process?

  1. Medical care provided by paramedics on scene
  2. The process of selecting the nearest hospital
  3. The billing and documentation of the call
  4. Instructions provided by the EMD to the caller before responders arrive Correct answer.

Explanation

Dispatch Life Support refers to the pre-arrival care the EMD provides to the caller before responders arrive, including CPR and first-aid instructions. It is distinct from on-scene paramedic care, hospital selection, and billing.

Question 13Medical dispatch

A caller reports that a patient has been poisoned by ingesting a household chemical and is conscious. Which action should the EMD prioritize?

  1. Wait for symptoms to develop before acting
  2. Contact poison control and follow protocol instructions Correct answer.
  3. Give the patient milk to neutralize the chemical
  4. Induce vomiting immediately

Explanation

For a conscious poisoning patient, the EMD should follow the poisoning protocol, which typically includes contacting poison control and avoiding actions that could worsen injury. Inducing vomiting or giving milk can cause additional harm, and waiting allows the condition to deteriorate.

Question 14Medical dispatch

Which of the following statements best reflects the EMD's handling of a caller who is in immediate danger at the scene?

  1. Hang up and call back later
  2. Instruct the caller to remain in place regardless of the danger
  3. Instruct the caller to confront the danger
  4. Instruct the caller to move to safety if possible while continuing to gather information Correct answer.

Explanation

Caller safety is a priority; if the caller can safely move away from danger, the EMD should direct this while continuing to gather information and dispatch help. Remaining in place, hanging up, or confronting the danger increases risk.

Question 15Medical dispatch

Which of the following best describes the MPDS 'Chief Complaint' selection step?

  1. Assigning the transport priority
  2. Choosing the protocol that reflects the caller's primary problem Correct answer.
  3. Selecting the closest hospital
  4. Determining the patient's medical history

Explanation

Chief Complaint selection is the step where the EMD chooses the protocol matching the caller's primary problem, which then guides further questioning. Medical history, hospital selection, and transport priority are separate considerations.

Question 16Medical dispatch

An EMD receives a call about an unconscious adult with agonal breathing. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation?

  1. The patient likely requires immediate CPR Correct answer.
  2. The patient is sleeping and should be left alone
  3. The patient is hyperventilating and needs a paper bag
  4. The patient is breathing normally and can wait

Explanation

Agonal breathing is an abnormal, ineffective breathing pattern often seen in cardiac arrest. The EMD should treat this as a likely arrest and initiate CPR instructions immediately. It is not normal breathing, sleep, or hyperventilation.

Question 17Medical dispatch

Which of the following best describes the EMD's role when a caller reports a patient with severe bleeding?

  1. Instruct the caller to apply direct pressure to the wound Correct answer.
  2. Instruct the caller to apply a tourniquet only after responders arrive
  3. Instruct the caller to elevate the patient's legs
  4. Instruct the caller to wash the wound with soap

Explanation

For severe bleeding, the EMD should instruct the caller to apply direct pressure to the wound to control hemorrhage while responders are dispatched. Tourniquet use may be instructed in specific protocols, but waiting until responders arrive delays control, and washing or leg elevation does not stop bleeding.

Question 18Medical dispatch

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the MPDS 'Determinant Suffix' (e.g., the letter following the number in a determinant code)?

  1. It specifies the hospital destination
  2. It indicates the response level and urgency Correct answer.
  3. It records the patient's age
  4. It identifies the caller's language

Explanation

The letter suffix in a determinant code indicates the response level and urgency, ranging from Echo to Alpha. It does not encode language, age, or hospital destination, which are separate data points.

Question 19Medical dispatch

An EMD is handling a call for a patient with altered mental status and a known history of diabetes. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial consideration?

  1. The patient should be left alone to sleep
  2. The patient is likely intoxicated and can wait
  3. The patient should be given insulin immediately
  4. The patient may be experiencing hypoglycemia and protocol should guide instructions Correct answer.

Explanation

Altered mental status in a diabetic patient raises concern for hypoglycemia, and the EMD should follow the appropriate protocol, which may include instructions for oral glucose if the patient can swallow. Assuming intoxication, administering insulin, or leaving the patient alone could be dangerous.

Question 20Medical dispatch

Which of the following best describes the EMD's responsibility when a caller reports a patient who is in cardiac arrest but the caller is unwilling to perform CPR?

  1. Instruct the caller to perform CPR only if they are a healthcare professional
  2. End the call immediately
  3. Continue to encourage and coach the caller while responders are dispatched Correct answer.
  4. Refuse to dispatch responders

Explanation

The EMD should continue to encourage and coach the caller to perform CPR while responders are dispatched, as bystander CPR significantly improves survival. Ending the call, refusing dispatch, or limiting CPR to healthcare professionals would be inappropriate.

Question 21Medical dispatch

Which of the following best describes the EMD's role in the 'Post-Dispatch Instructions' phase?

  1. Assigning the transport priority
  2. Providing safety instructions and reassurance while responders are en route Correct answer.
  3. Documenting the responder's findings
  4. Determining the hospital destination

Explanation

Post-Dispatch Instructions are given after the call is dispatched to keep the caller and patient safe and informed while responders are en route. Hospital destination, responder documentation, and transport priority are outside the EMD's post-dispatch role.

Question 22Medical dispatch

An EMD is handling a call for a patient with suspected stroke. Which of the following is the most appropriate EMD instruction while awaiting responders?

  1. Give the patient aspirin immediately
  2. Note the time symptoms began and keep the patient calm and still Correct answer.
  3. Give the patient food and drink
  4. Have the patient walk to assess coordination

Explanation

For suspected stroke, recording the time of symptom onset is critical for treatment decisions such as thrombolysis, and the patient should be kept calm and still. Aspirin is not routinely given in the prehospital stroke setting without assessment, walking may worsen the condition, and oral intake risks aspiration.

Question 23Medical dispatch

Which of the following best describes the EMD's consideration when a caller reports a patient with chest pain who has taken nitroglycerin without relief?

  1. The patient should drive themselves to the hospital
  2. The patient may be experiencing a cardiac emergency and should be treated with high priority Correct answer.
  3. The patient is stable because nitroglycerin was taken
  4. The patient should take additional nitroglycerin without limit

Explanation

Chest pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin raises concern for an acute cardiac emergency and warrants high-priority dispatch and pre-arrival instructions. Assuming stability, unlimited nitroglycerin, or self-transport could be dangerous.

Question 24Medical dispatch

An EMD receives a call in which the caller is hysterical and cannot provide a coherent address. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach?

  1. Ask the caller to call back when calm
  2. Use a calm, firm tone and ask one question at a time to obtain the address Correct answer.
  3. Speak loudly over the caller to demand the address
  4. Hang up and wait for the caller to call back

Explanation

A calm, firm tone with single, focused questions helps a hysterical caller provide critical information such as the address. Speaking over the caller, hanging up, or asking them to call back delays care and may abandon the patient.

Question 25Medical dispatch

Which of the following best describes the EMD's role in supporting a caller performing CPR on a pediatric patient?

  1. Instruct the caller to perform adult CPR ratios
  2. Instruct the caller to stop CPR until responders arrive
  3. Instruct the caller to perform compressions only regardless of protocol
  4. Provide compression and breath ratios consistent with the pediatric protocol and coach the caller Correct answer.

Explanation

Pediatric CPR protocols specify compression-to-breath ratios and techniques appropriate for children, and the EMD should coach the caller accordingly. Adult ratios, stopping CPR, or ignoring protocol guidance could reduce effectiveness.

Question 26Medical dispatch

In the Medical Priority Dispatch System, what does the Determinant Code's first element (a number such as 6, 9, or 31) primarily communicate to responding units?

  1. The number of patients reported at the scene
  2. The urgency level of the response, from the most time-critical to the least Correct answer.
  3. The estimated travel time to the incident address
  4. The specific protocol number used to process the call

Explanation

The numeric determinant reflects response urgency, with lower numbers signaling higher acuity and a more urgent response configuration. Protocol numbers describe the complaint category, not the urgency of the response. Response mode and urgency are what field units need first.

Question 27Medical dispatch

An EMD is processing a call and reaches the point of selecting a Chief Complaint Protocol. What is the most reliable basis for that selection?

  1. The primary symptom or problem the caller describes Correct answer.
  2. The caller's stated medical diagnosis
  3. The patient's age and gender alone
  4. The dispatcher's guess about likely resource needs

Explanation

Protocol selection is driven by the presenting complaint or symptom described by the caller, because callers rarely provide accurate diagnoses. Age and gender refine later questioning but do not determine the protocol. Diagnosis-driven selection risks misclassification and delayed care.

Question 28Medical dispatch

During a call, the EMD determines that the patient is in cardiac arrest and begins telephone CPR. Which instruction set best matches accepted dispatch CPR guidance for an adult?

  1. Apply pressure to the abdomen in cycles with chest compressions
  2. Place the patient in a recovery position and monitor until help arrives
  3. Push hard and fast in the center of the chest at a rate of about 100 to 120 per minute Correct answer.
  4. Give two rescue breaths first, then begin chest compressions

Explanation

Compression-only telephone CPR is the standard for untrained bystanders, emphasizing hard, fast compressions in the center of the chest at roughly 100 to 120 per minute. Rescue breathing is not required from untrained callers and can delay compressions. Recovery positioning is inappropriate for an arrest patient.

Question 29Medical dispatch

What is the primary purpose of the Case Entry phase in the MPDS call-taking sequence?

  1. To complete the pre-arrival instruction script
  2. To assign the final determinant code
  3. To deliver post-dispatch instructions to the caller
  4. To obtain the address, callback number, and a brief description of the problem Correct answer.

Explanation

Case Entry establishes location, callback number, and the nature of the problem so the call can be routed to the correct protocol. It precedes key questioning, determinant selection, and instruction delivery. Getting location first protects against early disconnection.

Question 30Medical dispatch

An EMD is giving pre-arrival instructions for a patient with severe bleeding from an arm wound. Which instruction is most appropriate to give the caller?

  1. Apply firm direct pressure to the wound with a clean cloth Correct answer.
  2. Elevate the arm above the heart and wait for EMS without applying pressure
  3. Wash the wound repeatedly with water until bleeding slows
  4. Apply a loose dressing and check the wound every few minutes

Explanation

Firm, continuous direct pressure on the bleeding site is the foundational bleeding-control instruction for lay callers. Elevation alone is insufficient and does not replace pressure. Frequent dressing checks disrupt clot formation.

Question 31Medical dispatch

What does the abbreviation AED stand for in the context of dispatch-assisted care?

  1. Airway Evaluation Device
  2. Acute Event Determination
  3. Automated External Defibrillator Correct answer.
  4. Advanced Emergency Dispatch

Explanation

An AED is an automated external defibrillator, a device that analyzes cardiac rhythm and delivers a shock when indicated. EMDs direct callers to retrieve and apply an AED during cardiac arrest calls when one is available. The other expansions are not standard terms.

Question 32Medical dispatch

An EMD is speaking with a caller who is panicked and shouting. Which approach is most consistent with accepted EMD communication technique?

  1. Speak louder than the caller to establish authority
  2. Ask the caller to call back when they have calmed down
  3. Use a calm, firm, repetitive tone and give one instruction at a time Correct answer.
  4. Transfer the call immediately to a supervisor

Explanation

A calm, controlled, repetitive delivery with short single instructions helps a panicked caller focus and comply. Raising your voice escalates the caller's arousal. Terminating or transferring the call delays care.

Question 33Medical dispatch

Which of the following best describes the purpose of Post-Dispatch Instructions in the EMD call process?

  1. To provide safety and scene-preparation guidance while units are en route Correct answer.
  2. To gather the patient's medical history for the responding crew
  3. To verify the caller's insurance information
  4. To determine the final determinant code

Explanation

Post-dispatch instructions are given after units are dispatched and focus on scene safety, unlocking doors, securing pets, and preparing the patient for arrival. They do not replace key questioning or determinant assignment. Billing information is not part of the EMD process.

Question 34Medical dispatch

An EMD is handling a call where a caller reports an adult who is choking and cannot speak or cough. Which instruction should the EMD provide first?

  1. Wait several minutes to see if the obstruction clears
  2. Have the patient lie down and rest
  3. Perform abdominal thrusts, or chest compressions if the patient becomes unresponsive Correct answer.
  4. Give the patient water to help clear the obstruction

Explanation

A patient who cannot speak or cough has a severe airway obstruction requiring immediate abdominal thrusts, transitioning to chest compressions if unresponsiveness occurs. Giving water risks worsening the obstruction. Waiting allows hypoxia to progress.

Question 35Medical dispatch

A caller reports an unresponsive adult who is breathing normally but cannot be woken. Which pre-arrival instruction is most appropriate?

  1. Have the caller slap the patient's face repeatedly
  2. Give the patient sips of water
  3. Place the patient in a recovery position on the side Correct answer.
  4. Begin chest compressions immediately

Explanation

An unresponsive patient who is breathing normally should be placed on their side in a recovery position to protect the airway while awaiting EMS. Compressions are inappropriate when normal breathing is present. Oral fluids risk aspiration.

Question 36Medical dispatch

An EMD receives a call about a patient with signs of a stroke. Which pre-arrival instruction is most appropriate?

  1. Give the patient aspirin to thin the blood
  2. Note the time symptoms began and keep the patient calm and still Correct answer.
  3. Have the patient eat a meal to raise blood sugar
  4. Have the patient walk around to assess coordination

Explanation

Recording the time of symptom onset is critical for determining eligibility for time-sensitive stroke treatment. Keeping the patient calm and still reduces risk. Aspirin is not given by EMDs for suspected stroke because the type of stroke is unknown.

Question 37Medical dispatch

A caller reports that a child has swallowed an unknown amount of a household cleaner and is drooling. Which instruction is most appropriate?

  1. Have the child drink large amounts of water
  2. Give milk to dilute the chemical
  3. Induce vomiting with syrup of ipecac
  4. Do not induce vomiting and contact poison control or follow local protocol Correct answer.

Explanation

Inducing vomiting after caustic ingestion can cause additional injury to the esophagus and airway. The EMD should follow local protocol and involve poison control. Dilution with large volumes of fluid is not a routine EMD instruction.

Question 38Medical dispatch

An EMD is delivering pre-arrival instructions for a suspected heart attack. Which instruction is most appropriate?

  1. Have the patient walk up and down stairs to assess stamina
  2. Give the patient a large meal to raise energy
  3. Have the patient chew aspirin only if directed by local protocol and not allergic Correct answer.
  4. Apply ice packs to the chest

Explanation

Aspirin may be advised in suspected cardiac chest pain when local protocol allows and the patient has no allergy, but it is not universal. Exercise testing by the caller is dangerous. Ice packs and meals do not address cardiac ischemia.

Question 39Medical dispatch

During a call, the EMD is uncertain which protocol applies because the caller describes symptoms that could fit two categories. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Select the protocol that requires the fewest questions
  2. Follow local protocol for choosing the most appropriate complaint and proceed with key questioning Correct answer.
  3. Transfer the call to a supervisor before proceeding
  4. Ask the caller to choose the protocol

Explanation

When symptoms overlap, the EMD follows local guidance to select the most appropriate complaint and continues structured questioning. Asking the caller to choose is inappropriate because callers lack medical training. Minimizing questions risks missing critical information.

Question 40Medical dispatch

A caller reports that a patient has been in a seizure for several minutes and is still seizing. Which instruction is most appropriate?

  1. Clear the area of hard objects and protect the patient's head Correct answer.
  2. Hold the patient's limbs firmly to stop the movements
  3. Give the patient water to drink
  4. Place a spoon in the patient's mouth to protect the tongue

Explanation

Protecting the patient from injury by clearing hazards and cushioning the head is the priority during an active seizure. Restraining the patient risks injury to both parties. Placing objects in the mouth can cause choking or dental injury.

Question 41Medical dispatch

An EMD is handling a call for a patient with difficulty breathing and known COPD. Which pre-arrival instruction is most appropriate?

  1. Have the patient sit upright in a position of comfort Correct answer.
  2. Have the patient lie flat on their back
  3. Have the patient exercise to strengthen breathing
  4. Have the patient breathe into a paper bag

Explanation

Sitting upright in a position of comfort improves breathing mechanics for most patients with respiratory distress. Lying flat worsens breathing. Paper-bag breathing is not recommended and can worsen hypoxia.

Question 42Medical dispatch

Which of the following best reflects the EMD's responsibility regarding scene safety during a call?

  1. Tell the caller to wait in the same room regardless of danger
  2. Instruct the caller to confront any threat before EMS arrives
  3. Ignore scene safety because EMS will handle it on arrival
  4. Ask the caller whether the scene is safe and advise the caller to move to safety if possible Correct answer.

Explanation

The EMD must screen for scene hazards and advise the caller to move to safety when possible, protecting both the caller and responding crews. Confronting threats is not advised. Ignoring safety can result in additional injuries.

Question 43Medical dispatch

An EMD receives a call for an adult with a suspected spinal injury after a fall. Which pre-arrival instruction is most appropriate?

  1. Have the patient stand and walk to test the spine
  2. Roll the patient repeatedly to check for pain
  3. Tell the patient to keep still and avoid moving the head and neck Correct answer.
  4. Have the patient perform neck stretches

Explanation

Keeping the patient still with the head and neck supported minimizes movement that could worsen a spinal injury. Movement testing and stretching risk further injury. Repeated rolling is not an EMD instruction.

Question 44Medical dispatch

A caller reports that a patient with diabetes is confused and sweating. Which instruction is most appropriate if the patient can swallow safely?

  1. Give the patient a large meal high in fat
  2. Have the patient lie flat and wait without intervention
  3. Give the patient insulin
  4. Give the patient a source of sugar to drink or eat if conscious and able to swallow Correct answer.

Explanation

For suspected hypoglycemia in a conscious patient able to swallow, providing a fast-acting sugar source is appropriate under local protocol. Insulin would worsen hypoglycemia. Waiting without intervention allows deterioration.

Question 45Medical dispatch

An EMD is handling a call for a woman in active labor with imminent delivery. Which instruction is most appropriate?

  1. Have the mother cross her legs to delay delivery
  2. Have the mother lie flat on her back with legs together
  3. Prepare a clean area and support the baby's head as it emerges Correct answer.
  4. Tell the mother to push as hard as possible immediately

Explanation

When delivery is imminent, the EMD guides the caller to prepare a clean area and support the baby's head as it emerges to prevent injury. Delaying delivery by crossing legs or holding legs together is not appropriate. Telling the mother to push immediately without preparation is not the priority.

Question 46Medical dispatch

An EMD is reviewing a completed call in which the determinant code assigned was later changed by the responding crew. What is the most appropriate interpretation of this discrepancy?

  1. Discrepancies should be reviewed for quality improvement because field findings can refine dispatch accuracy Correct answer.
  2. The EMD should ignore the change because field crews have no authority
  3. The change means the call should not have been dispatched
  4. The change indicates the EMD should be disciplined automatically

Explanation

Discrepancies between dispatch determinants and field findings are used in quality improvement to refine questioning and protocol use. Automatic discipline or ignoring field input is inappropriate. The call still required dispatch.

Question 47Medical dispatch

An EMD is speaking with a caller who is the only person available to perform CPR and is reluctant to touch the patient. Which approach is most likely to gain cooperation?

  1. End the call and wait for another caller
  2. Acknowledge the concern briefly and give simple, confident step-by-step coaching Correct answer.
  3. Threaten the caller with legal consequences for refusing
  4. Tell the caller that CPR is optional and to wait for EMS

Explanation

Brief acknowledgment of the caller's concern followed by confident, simple coaching is most effective in gaining cooperation. Threats and ending the call abandon the patient. Telling the caller to wait allows irreversible deterioration.

Question 48Medical dispatch

An EMD is handling a call in which the caller reports an adult who was found unresponsive and is making occasional gasping sounds. How should the EMD interpret these sounds?

  1. As a sign the patient is waking up
  2. As normal breathing that requires no intervention
  3. As evidence the patient has a foreign body obstruction
  4. As agonal breathing indicating the need to begin CPR Correct answer.

Explanation

Occasional gasping sounds in an unresponsive patient are agonal respirations, which are ineffective and indicate cardiac arrest requiring CPR. They are not normal breathing. Interpreting them as recovery or obstruction delays life-saving care.

Question 49Medical dispatch

An EMD is coaching a caller through CPR when the caller reports the patient vomited. What is the most appropriate next instruction?

  1. Continue compressions without addressing the vomit
  2. Turn the patient's head to the side to clear the mouth, then resume compressions Correct answer.
  3. Give the patient water to rinse the mouth
  4. Stop CPR permanently because vomiting means the patient is dead

Explanation

Turning the head to clear vomit from the mouth reduces aspiration risk, after which compressions should resume promptly. Stopping CPR permanently is inappropriate. Ignoring vomit risks airway compromise, and giving water during arrest is contraindicated.

Question 50Medical dispatch

An EMD is handling a call in which a caller reports a patient with an anaphylactic reaction after a bee sting. Which instruction is most appropriate if the patient has a prescribed epinephrine auto-injector?

  1. Apply heat to the sting site
  2. Have the patient take an antihistamine and wait
  3. Help the patient use the prescribed auto-injector per local protocol and monitor breathing Correct answer.
  4. Have the patient exercise to circulate the medication

Explanation

Assisting the patient in using a prescribed epinephrine auto-injector is the priority in anaphylaxis, followed by monitoring breathing. Antihistamines alone are insufficient for anaphylaxis. Heat and exercise do not treat the reaction.