ID Cosmetology study materials
ID Cosmetology study resources

ID Cosmetology practice questions

One question at a time. Build your ID Cosmetology understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which layer of the skin contains the hair follicles, sebaceous glands, and sweat glands?

  1. Epidermis
  2. Subcutaneous layer
  3. Stratum corneum
  4. Dermis Correct answer.

Explanation

The dermis is the connective-tissue layer beneath the epidermis and houses hair follicles, sebaceous glands, sweat glands, and blood vessels. The epidermis is avascular and lacks these appendages, while the subcutaneous layer is mostly adipose tissue.

Question 2Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

The nail plate is produced by which structure?

  1. Nail matrix Correct answer.
  2. Cuticle
  3. Hyponychium
  4. Nail bed

Explanation

The nail matrix is the actively growing tissue at the base of the nail that produces the nail plate through keratinization of matrix cells. The nail bed supports the plate but does not create it, and the cuticle is a protective seal.

Question 3Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which muscle is responsible for raising the hair in response to cold or emotion?

  1. Arrector pili Correct answer.
  2. Masseter
  3. Orbicularis oculi
  4. Platysma

Explanation

The arrector pili is a small smooth muscle attached to the hair follicle; when it contracts, the hair stands up and produces goose bumps. The other options are skeletal muscles of the face and jaw.

Question 4Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

A client has a contagious fungal infection of the scalp. What is the correct cosmetology action?

  1. Apply a medicated shampoo and complete the service
  2. Treat the area with a hot towel and continue
  3. Proceed with a scalp massage and note the condition
  4. Refuse service and refer the client to a physician Correct answer.

Explanation

Contagious conditions such as tinea of the scalp are contraindications for service, and the cosmetologist must refuse treatment and refer the client to a physician. Cosmetologists do not diagnose or treat disease, and treating or continuing risks spreading infection.

Question 5Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which of the following is a bloodborne pathogen of concern in the salon?

  1. Pediculosis
  2. Staphylococcus aureus
  3. Hepatitis B virus Correct answer.
  4. Tinea pedis

Explanation

Hepatitis B is a virus transmitted through blood and body fluids and is a recognized bloodborne pathogen. The other choices are a fungus, an infestation, and a bacterium, none of which are bloodborne.

Question 6Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

What does the term pH measure?

  1. The viscosity of a product
  2. The temperature of a solution
  3. The amount of dissolved oxygen
  4. The concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution Correct answer.

Explanation

pH is a logarithmic scale expressing hydrogen ion concentration; lower values indicate more acidic solutions and higher values more alkaline ones. It does not measure oxygen, thickness, or temperature.

Question 7Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which type of bond involves the sharing of electrons between atoms?

  1. Ionic bond
  2. Covalent bond Correct answer.
  3. Hydrogen bond
  4. Metallic bond

Explanation

A covalent bond forms when atoms share one or more pairs of electrons, as in the carbon-hydrogen bonds of organic compounds. Ionic bonds involve electron transfer, and hydrogen bonds are weak attractions between molecules.

Question 8Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which structure carries oxygenated blood away from the heart?

  1. Lymph vessel
  2. Vein
  3. Capillary
  4. Artery Correct answer.

Explanation

Arteries carry blood away from the heart; the systemic arteries carry oxygenated blood to the tissues. Veins return blood to the heart, and capillaries are the site of exchange.

Question 9Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

A disinfectant label states it is a hospital-grade tuberculocidal product. What does this indicate about its efficacy?

  1. It kills only bacteria in the vegetative state
  2. It sterilizes all spores on contact
  3. It is safe to use on human skin
  4. It is effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis and is considered a broad-spectrum disinfectant Correct answer.

Explanation

Tuberculocidal efficacy is used as a benchmark for hospital-grade disinfectants because the tubercle bacillus is relatively resistant; such products are broad-spectrum. Disinfectants do not achieve sterilization of all spores and are not for use on skin.

Question 10Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Why must implements be cleaned with soap and water before being immersed in disinfectant?

  1. Organic debris inactivates or dilutes the disinfectant Correct answer.
  2. Cleaning removes all microorganisms
  3. Soap activates the disinfectant
  4. Water increases the disinfectant's pH

Explanation

Blood, oils, and other organic matter can neutralize or dilute disinfectant and prevent contact with surfaces. Cleaning must precede disinfection so the chemical can reach the microorganisms. Soap does not activate disinfectant, and cleaning alone does not remove all organisms.

Question 11Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

A client reports an allergy to paraphenylenediamine (PPD). Which service should be avoided?

  1. Permanent oxidative hair color Correct answer.
  2. Hydrogen peroxide developer alone
  3. Shampoo and blow-dry
  4. Semi-permanent color deposit

Explanation

PPD is a primary dye intermediate in permanent oxidative hair color, so a known allergy contraindicates that service. Semi-permanent color and styling services do not necessarily contain PPD, though a patch test and consultation are still appropriate.

Question 12Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which statement correctly describes the difference between a primary and a secondary skin lesion?

  1. Secondary lesions appear only on the scalp
  2. Primary lesions are always infectious
  3. Primary lesions are caused by scratching
  4. Primary lesions develop first, while secondary lesions result from changes to primary lesions Correct answer.

Explanation

Primary lesions are the initial structural changes in the skin, such as macules or papules. Secondary lesions such as crusts, scales, or scars evolve from primary lesions or from scratching and other trauma.

Question 13Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which of the following best describes the role of a patch test before applying a chemical hair relaxer?

  1. It measures the hair's porosity
  2. It sets the processing time
  3. It screens for an allergic reaction to the product Correct answer.
  4. It determines the client's desired curl pattern

Explanation

A patch test applies a small amount of product to the skin to detect an allergic sensitivity before a full application. It does not determine curl pattern, porosity, or processing time.

Question 14Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the hair growth cycle?

  1. Anagen, catagen, telogen Correct answer.
  2. Catagen, anagen, telogen
  3. Telogen, anagen, catagen
  4. Anagen, telogen, catagen

Explanation

The hair growth cycle begins with anagen, the active growth phase, followed by catagen, a transitional regression, and telogen, the resting phase before shedding. The other sequences misorder these phases.

Question 15Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

A client's hair feels rough and tangles easily after coloring, and the cuticle appears lifted. Which condition is most likely?

  1. Low porosity
  2. Oily scalp
  3. High porosity Correct answer.
  4. Normal porosity

Explanation

High porosity describes hair with a raised, damaged cuticle that absorbs and loses moisture rapidly, causing roughness and tangling. Low porosity resists moisture, and normal porosity is balanced.

Question 16Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which of these is an example of a physical change rather than a chemical change?

  1. Melting wax in a warmer Correct answer.
  2. Oxidizing a hair dye
  3. Neutralizing a relaxer with shampoo
  4. Bleaching hair with hydrogen peroxide

Explanation

Melting wax changes state without forming a new substance, so it is a physical change. Bleaching, neutralizing, and dye oxidation alter chemical bonds or create new compounds.

Question 17Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Why is it important to know the pH of a shampoo relative to the hair's natural pH?

  1. pH has no effect on the hair shaft
  2. Hair is naturally alkaline, and low-pH products damage it
  3. High pH tightens the cuticle
  4. Hair is naturally acidic, and high-pH products can raise the cuticle Correct answer.

Explanation

Hair and scalp have an acidic pH around 4.5 to 5.5, and alkaline products can swell the shaft and lift the cuticle, causing roughness. Balanced acidic shampoos help maintain cuticle smoothness.

Question 18Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which of the following is a bacterial infection commonly seen in the salon that can be spread by contaminated implements?

  1. Pediculosis capitis
  2. Herpes simplex
  3. Tinea capitis
  4. Impetigo Correct answer.

Explanation

Impetigo is a contagious bacterial skin infection that can be spread by contact and contaminated implements. Tinea is fungal, pediculosis is a lice infestation, and herpes simplex is viral.

Question 19Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

A barber nicks a client and blood contacts the clipper blade. What is the appropriate first step?

  1. Wipe the blade on a towel and continue the haircut
  2. Rinse the blade in water and store it
  3. Spray disinfectant directly on the blade while it is running
  4. Stop, wear gloves, and clean the blade of blood before disinfection Correct answer.

Explanation

Blood-contaminated implements must be handled with gloves, cleaned of organic debris, and then disinfected with an appropriate hospital-grade product. Spraying disinfectant onto a running blade or simply wiping it does not achieve proper decontamination.

Question 20Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which function is performed by the sebaceous glands?

  1. Secreting sebum that lubricates skin and hair Correct answer.
  2. Sensing pressure and touch
  3. Producing melanin for pigmentation
  4. Producing sweat for cooling

Explanation

Sebaceous glands secrete sebum, an oily substance that lubricates the skin and hair and helps retain moisture. Sweat comes from sudoriferous glands, melanin from melanocytes, and touch from nerve receptors.

Question 21Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which statement about the lymphatic system is accurate in the context of infection control?

  1. It carries oxygen to tissues
  2. It carries blood away from the heart
  3. It filters lymph and helps remove pathogens and waste Correct answer.
  4. It produces digestive enzymes

Explanation

The lymphatic system drains tissue fluid, filters it through lymph nodes, and supports immune defense by trapping and destroying pathogens. It does not oxygenate tissues or produce digestive enzymes.

Question 22Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

A client with a known sensitivity to ammonia-based products requests a color service. Which approach best reflects sound chemistry and safety judgment?

  1. Increase processing time to shorten the appointment
  2. Apply the standard ammonia color without discussion
  3. Choose an ammonia-free color line and perform a patch test Correct answer.
  4. Use a higher volume of developer to compensate

Explanation

Ammonia-free formulations use alternative alkaline agents and can reduce exposure for a sensitive client, and a patch test confirms tolerance. Increasing developer strength or processing time raises risk without addressing the sensitivity.

Question 23Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Why does a relaxer require a thorough rinsing and neutralizing step before the hair is shampooed normally?

  1. Rinsing removes the cuticle layer
  2. Neutralizing adds moisture to the hair
  3. Neutralizing stops the chemical action and restores the hair's pH Correct answer.
  4. Shampooing before neutralizing improves curl retention

Explanation

Relaxers are strongly alkaline and continue to break disulfide bonds until neutralized. The neutralizing shampoo lowers pH and halts the reaction, preventing overprocessing and damage. It does not restore curl or remove the cuticle.

Question 24Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

A salon uses a quaternary ammonium disinfectant at a dilution of 1:100. A staff member mixes it at 1:200 to save money. What is the consequence?

  1. The solution becomes a sterilant
  2. The solution becomes more effective because it is less concentrated
  3. The lower concentration may fall below the effective kill rate Correct answer.
  4. The contact time required decreases

Explanation

Disinfectants are formulated to be effective at a specific concentration and contact time; diluting beyond the label reduces the active ingredient below the effective level. It does not become a sterilant or more effective.

Question 25Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which combination of factors best explains why a patch test alone does not guarantee a safe color service?

  1. It sterilizes the skin
  2. It tests only the developer
  3. It predicts the final color result
  4. It cannot detect all delayed allergic reactions or application errors Correct answer.

Explanation

Patch tests screen for many sensitivities but may miss delayed reactions and do not account for incorrect mixing, overprocessing, or skin contact during application. They do not sterilize the skin or predict color outcome.

Question 26Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

A client has a severe allergic reaction during a hair color service. Which body system is primarily responsible for the response?

  1. Endocrine system
  2. Digestive system
  3. Immune system Correct answer.
  4. Respiratory system

Explanation

The immune system recognizes the color product as a foreign substance and mounts an allergic response, which can range from mild irritation to anaphylaxis. The endocrine, digestive, and respiratory systems have different primary roles and are not the main mediators of allergy.

Question 27Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which layer of the skin contains the blood vessels, nerve endings, and hair follicles?

  1. Stratum corneum
  2. Dermis Correct answer.
  3. Epidermis
  4. Subcutaneous layer

Explanation

The dermis is the middle layer of the skin and houses blood vessels, nerve endings, hair follicles, and glands. The epidermis is the outer layer and lacks blood vessels, while the subcutaneous layer is mostly fat and connective tissue.

Question 28Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which type of pathogen is treated effectively by an antibacterial disinfectant?

  1. Bacteria Correct answer.
  2. Parasites
  3. Fungi
  4. Viruses

Explanation

Antibacterial disinfectants are formulated to kill or inhibit bacteria. They are not necessarily effective against fungi, viruses, or parasites, which may require different classes of disinfectants.

Question 29Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which statement best describes the role of surfactants in a shampoo?

  1. They bind water to oil to form a stable emulsion.
  2. They reduce surface tension so water can surround and lift oils and debris. Correct answer.
  3. They raise the pH of the product.
  4. They neutralize the hair after an alkaline service.

Explanation

Surfactants lower the surface tension of water, allowing it to spread and surround oils and debris so they can be rinsed away. They do not primarily raise pH, bind water to oil, or neutralize hair; those actions belong to other ingredients or processes.

Question 30Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

A client has a contagious skin infection and is scheduled for a haircut. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Refuse service and refer the client to a physician. Correct answer.
  2. Apply a topical antiseptic before cutting.
  3. Proceed with the service using gloves.
  4. Disinfect the tools after the service.

Explanation

A contagious skin infection poses a risk to the client and others, so service should be refused and the client referred to a physician. Gloves, post-service disinfection, or topical antiseptics do not make it safe to proceed.

Question 31Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

A client with a known allergy to a hair dye ingredient requests a color service. What is the safest response?

  1. Decline the service and recommend consulting a physician. Correct answer.
  2. Perform a patch test 24 hours before the service.
  3. Suggest a semi-permanent color instead.
  4. Use a different brand of the same dye.

Explanation

When a client has a known allergy to an ingredient, the safest action is to decline the service and recommend medical consultation. Patch tests, brand changes, or alternative color types still carry risk of allergic reaction.

Question 32Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which action best demonstrates proper hand hygiene before a service?

  1. Wearing gloves without washing hands
  2. Washing with soap and water for at least 20 seconds Correct answer.
  3. Using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer alone
  4. Rinsing hands with water only

Explanation

Proper hand hygiene requires washing with soap and water for at least 20 seconds to remove dirt and microorganisms. Hand sanitizer alone is not sufficient when hands are visibly soiled, rinsing with water only does not clean, and gloves do not replace handwashing.

Question 33Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

A client's hair has a pH of 4.5. Which statement about the hair is most accurate?

  1. The hair is highly alkaline and prone to damage.
  2. The hair is in an alkaline state and the cuticle is raised.
  3. The hair is neutral and requires no further treatment.
  4. The hair is within its normal acidic range and the cuticle is compact. Correct answer.

Explanation

Hair naturally has a pH around 4.5 to 5.5, which is acidic. This acidity helps keep the cuticle compact and protects the hair. Values above 7 are alkaline and can raise the cuticle.

Question 34Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which statement correctly distinguishes a primary skin lesion from a secondary skin lesion?

  1. Primary lesions are larger than secondary lesions.
  2. Primary lesions are always infectious; secondary lesions are not.
  3. Primary lesions are the initial changes; secondary lesions result from changes to primary lesions. Correct answer.
  4. Primary lesions occur only on the scalp; secondary lesions occur elsewhere.

Explanation

Primary lesions are the first structural changes in the skin, such as macules or papules. Secondary lesions develop from primary lesions through progression, scratching, or infection, such as crusts or scars.

Question 35Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

A client's hair is relaxed and the stylist notices breakage near the scalp. Which factor is most likely contributing to the breakage?

  1. Weekly deep conditioning treatments
  2. Regular trims every 8 weeks
  3. Overprocessing from overlapping relaxer applications Correct answer.
  4. Use of a sulfate-free shampoo

Explanation

Overprocessing, such as overlapping relaxer onto previously relaxed hair, weakens the hair shaft and leads to breakage. Sulfate-free shampoo, conditioning, and regular trims are generally protective practices.

Question 36Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which statement best explains why a disinfectant must be used at its recommended dilution?

  1. Using a higher concentration always improves efficacy.
  2. Dilution has no effect on disinfectant performance.
  3. Dilution affects only the color of the solution.
  4. Using a lower concentration may reduce efficacy and allow pathogens to survive. Correct answer.

Explanation

Disinfectants are formulated to be effective at a specific dilution. Using a lower concentration can reduce killing power and allow pathogens to survive, while using a higher concentration may not improve efficacy and can increase toxicity or cost.

Question 37Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which of the following is a chemical change that occurs during hair coloring?

  1. The hair swells temporarily from water.
  2. The hair is temporarily straightened by heat.
  3. The color molecule physically coats the hair shaft.
  4. The color molecule undergoes oxidation and binds within the hair cortex. Correct answer.

Explanation

Permanent hair color involves oxidation of dye precursors, which then bind within the hair cortex, forming new compounds. This is a chemical change. Physical coating, water swelling, and heat styling are physical changes.

Question 38Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

A client reports a burning sensation during a relaxer service. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

  1. Apply a neutralizing shampoo immediately.
  2. Continue the service but rinse with cool water.
  3. Stop the service and rinse the hair thoroughly with water. Correct answer.
  4. Ignore the sensation as it is normal.

Explanation

A burning sensation may indicate chemical irritation or a reaction. The safest immediate action is to stop the service and rinse the hair thoroughly with water to remove the product. Continuing or ignoring the sensation can worsen injury.

Question 39Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

Which statement best describes the relationship between the lymphatic system and infection control in the salon?

  1. The lymphatic system regulates body temperature.
  2. The lymphatic system filters pathogens and helps remove them from the body. Correct answer.
  3. The lymphatic system produces digestive enzymes.
  4. The lymphatic system transports oxygen to tissues.

Explanation

The lymphatic system includes lymph nodes and vessels that filter and remove pathogens and waste. It supports immune defense. It does not transport oxygen, produce digestive enzymes, or primarily regulate temperature.

Question 40Scientific Concepts (anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and infection control)

A client with a known allergy to ammonia-based products requests a color service. Which approach best reflects sound professional judgment?

  1. Proceed with the service while wearing gloves.
  2. Decline the service and suggest the client consult a physician. Correct answer.
  3. Perform a patch test with an ammonia-free product and proceed if negative.
  4. Use an ammonia-based product with a lower concentration.

Explanation

When a client has a known allergy to a product category, the safest action is to decline the service and recommend medical consultation. Patch tests, lower concentrations, or gloves do not eliminate the risk of a severe allergic reaction.

Question 41Hair Care and Haircutting (shaping, styling, chemical services, and coloring)

Which hair layer is the outermost, consists of overlapping scales, and protects the inner structures of the hair shaft?

  1. Cortex
  2. Medulla
  3. Follicle
  4. Cuticle Correct answer.

Explanation

The cuticle is the tough outer layer made of overlapping, scale-like cells that shields the cortex and medulla from damage. Chemical services and mechanical stress first affect the cuticle, so its condition largely determines how the hair responds to treatment.

Question 42Hair Care and Haircutting (shaping, styling, chemical services, and coloring)

A client has a round face and wants a haircut that creates the illusion of more length and a slimmer profile. Which design choice best meets that goal?

  1. Cutting a chin-length bob that widens at the jaw
  2. Cutting tight layers that hug the widest part of the face
  3. Keeping height at the crown and length below the jawline Correct answer.
  4. Adding volume at the sides and a wide, blunt fringe

Explanation

For a round face, the goal is to elongate visually by adding height at the crown and keeping length below the jaw. Volume or width at the sides and jaw exaggerates the roundness instead of balancing it.

Question 43Hair Care and Haircutting (shaping, styling, chemical services, and coloring)

Which term describes the angle at which the hair is held away from the head while cutting and determines the resulting elevation and length distribution?

  1. Distribution
  2. Projection Correct answer.
  3. Tension
  4. Perimeter

Explanation

Projection (elevation) is the angle at which hair is lifted from the head during cutting, and it controls where layers fall and how length is distributed. Cutting at 0 degrees produces a solid form, while higher projection creates graduated or layered results.

Question 44Hair Care and Haircutting (shaping, styling, chemical services, and coloring)

A stylist wants a one-length, solid-form haircut with a strong unbroken perimeter. Which cutting technique should be used?

  1. Cutting at 0 degrees with horizontal partings Correct answer.
  2. Cutting at 45 degrees with diagonal partings
  3. Cutting at 90 degrees with vertical partings
  4. Cutting with traveling guidelines at high elevation

Explanation

A solid form is created by cutting at 0 degrees of elevation with horizontal partings, which keeps all lengths at the perimeter equal. This produces the unbroken, one-length outline the client requested.

Question 45Hair Care and Haircutting (shaping, styling, chemical services, and coloring)

Which texturizing technique removes the least amount of length and bulk while softening the ends of a haircut?

  1. Point cutting Correct answer.
  2. Notching
  3. Slicing
  4. Clipper-over-comb

Explanation

Point cutting snips into the ends of a section with the shear tips, removing minimal length while softening and blending the perimeter. It is used to reduce weight at the ends without changing the overall shape significantly.

Question 46Hair Care and Haircutting (shaping, styling, chemical services, and coloring)

Which tool is best suited for blow-drying a client's hair smooth while lifting the root area for volume?

  1. A wide-tooth comb
  2. A vent brush
  3. A round brush Correct answer.
  4. A tail comb

Explanation

A round brush holds tension and lets the stylist lift the root area while directing airflow, creating smooth volume. Its barrel shape works with the dryer to bend the ends and build body.

Question 47Hair Care and Haircutting (shaping, styling, chemical services, and coloring)

When performing a thermal press on textured hair, which practice best protects the hair from heat damage?

  1. Passing the hot iron repeatedly over each section until perfectly straight
  2. Applying a thermal protectant and using moderate heat with one or two passes per section Correct answer.
  3. Starting with the highest heat setting to seal the cuticle quickly
  4. Pressing the hair while it is still dripping wet

Explanation

A thermal protectant plus moderate heat and limited passes reduces the cumulative heat exposure that damages the cuticle. Repeated passes or maximum heat settings degrade the hair's protein structure and cause breakage.

Question 48Hair Care and Haircutting (shaping, styling, chemical services, and coloring)

Which phase of hair growth is the resting period during which the hair is shed and the follicle prepares to grow a new hair?

  1. Anagen
  2. Catagen
  3. Papilla
  4. Telogen Correct answer.

Explanation

Telogen is the resting phase in which the old hair is shed and the follicle resets before a new growth cycle begins. Anagen is active growth and catagen is the transitional phase.

Question 49Hair Care and Haircutting (shaping, styling, chemical services, and coloring)

A client with a tight, curly texture wants a haircut that reduces bulk at the ends while preserving the curl pattern. Which approach is most appropriate?

  1. Using clipper-over-comb to taper the sides
  2. Cutting the hair dry in its natural curl formation with gentle point cutting Correct answer.
  3. Applying high-elevation layers throughout the interior
  4. Cutting the hair wet and straight with a blunt horizontal line

Explanation

Curly hair shrinks significantly when dry, so cutting it in its natural formation allows the stylist to judge the true shape and curl pattern. Gentle point cutting removes bulk at the ends without disrupting the curl.

Question 50Hair Care and Haircutting (shaping, styling, chemical services, and coloring)

What is the primary purpose of applying a developer (hydrogen peroxide) with a permanent hair color?

  1. To seal the cuticle after processing
  2. To add shine to the finished color
  3. To lift the natural pigment and develop the color molecule Correct answer.
  4. To condition the hair during the color service

Explanation

Developer supplies oxygen that lifts natural melanin and activates the oxidation of the color molecules so they deposit inside the cortex. Its strength controls the degree of lift and deposit.