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APPSC Endowment Officer study materials
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APPSC Endowment Officer practice questions

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Question 1General Studies and Current Affairs

Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of a State Finance Commission by the Governor of a State?

  1. Article 280
  2. Article 243-ZD
  3. Article 356
  4. Article 243-I Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 243-I requires the Governor to constitute a Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of panchayats and municipalities and recommend principles for devolution of funds. Article 280 deals with the Union Finance Commission, and Article 243-ZD applies to Union Territories. These are distinct provisions and must not be confused.

Question 2General Studies and Current Affairs

The Reserve Bank of India was nationalised in which year?

  1. 1955
  2. 1935
  3. 1949 Correct answer.
  4. 1969

Explanation

The RBI began operations on 1 April 1935 as a private shareholders' bank and was nationalised on 1 January 1949. Nationalisation brought the central bank fully under public ownership, aligning monetary authority with the newly independent state's planning goals. The 1955 and 1969 dates relate to bank nationalisation episodes, not the RBI itself.

Question 3General Studies and Current Affairs

In the context of endowment administration, what does the term 'cy pres' denote?

  1. The mandatory audit of trust accounts by the Comptroller and Auditor General
  2. A doctrine allowing courts to apply a charitable fund as closely as possible to the donor's original intent when exact execution becomes impossible Correct answer.
  3. The power of a trustee to sell trust property without court sanction
  4. A statutory levy on the annual income of a charitable trust

Explanation

The cy pres doctrine (from French 'cy pres comme possible') permits a court to redirect charitable property to a purpose approximating the founder's intention when the original purpose becomes impracticable or illegal. It protects charitable intent from failure rather than taxing or auditing the trust. The doctrine is a judicial remedy, not an administrative power of trustees.

Question 4General Studies and Current Affairs

Which body prepares and presents the Economic Survey of India before the Union Budget?

  1. NITI Aayog
  2. The Ministry of Finance, Department of Economic Affairs Correct answer.
  3. The Reserve Bank of India
  4. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

Explanation

The Economic Survey is prepared by the Economic Division of the Department of Economic Affairs under the Ministry of Finance and tabled in Parliament ahead of the Union Budget. It reviews the past year's economic performance and offers policy perspectives. The RBI and NITI Aayog publish separate reports and do not present the Survey.

Question 5General Studies and Current Affairs

The Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following Indian States?

  1. Kerala
  2. Odisha
  3. Rajasthan Correct answer.
  4. Tamil Nadu

Explanation

The Tropic of Cancer crosses eight Indian States, including Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram. Kerala and Tamil Nadu lie entirely south of the Tropic, and Odisha is also south of it. The line passes near Bhopal and Ranchi, which lie close to it.

Question 6General Studies and Current Affairs

The Fundamental Duties were inserted into the Constitution of India by which amendment?

  1. 73rd Amendment, 1992
  2. 44th Amendment, 1978
  3. 52nd Amendment, 1985
  4. 42nd Amendment, 1976 Correct answer.

Explanation

The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 inserted Part IVA (Article 51A) listing Fundamental Duties, following the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. A tenth duty was added by the 86th Amendment in 2002. The 44th, 52nd and 73rd Amendments dealt with property rights, anti-defection and panchayats respectively.

Question 7General Studies and Current Affairs

Which of the following is a direct tax in the Indian fiscal system?

  1. Customs duty on imported machinery
  2. Goods and Services Tax on retail sale of goods
  3. Excise duty on manufacture of petroleum products
  4. Income tax Correct answer.

Explanation

A direct tax is levied on income or wealth and its burden cannot ordinarily be shifted to another person; income tax is the classic example. GST, customs duty and excise duty are indirect taxes whose incidence is passed on to the consumer. This distinction matters when analysing progressivity and revenue buoyancy.

Question 8General Studies and Current Affairs

The headquarters of the World Bank is located in which city?

  1. Geneva
  2. Manila
  3. Washington, D.C. Correct answer.
  4. New York

Explanation

The World Bank Group, comprising the IBRD, IDA, IFC, MIGA and ICSID, is headquartered in Washington, D.C. New York hosts the United Nations headquarters, Geneva hosts the WTO, and Manila hosts the Asian Development Bank. India is a founding member of both the World Bank and the IMF.

Question 9General Studies and Current Affairs

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the stages of the budgetary process in India?

  1. Presentation of Budget, finance bill, general discussion, voting on demands for grants, appropriation bill
  2. Presentation of Budget, voting on demands for grants, general discussion, appropriation bill, finance bill
  3. Presentation of Budget, appropriation bill, general discussion, voting on demands for grants, finance bill
  4. Presentation of Budget, general discussion, scrutiny by departmental standing committees, voting on demands for grants, appropriation bill, finance bill Correct answer.

Explanation

The Budget is presented first, followed by a general discussion, then detailed scrutiny by departmental standing committees during the recess, then voting on demands for grants, passage of the Appropriation Bill and finally the Finance Bill. This sequence ensures both debate and legislative authorisation of expenditure and taxation. The Finance Bill normally follows the Appropriation Bill.

Question 10General Studies and Current Affairs

A charitable endowment creates a fixed annual payment to a specified beneficiary out of trust income. Which term best describes this arrangement?

  1. Endowment principal
  2. Sinking fund
  3. Corpus
  4. Annuity Correct answer.

Explanation

An annuity is a fixed periodic payment, often charged on the income of an endowment, payable to a named beneficiary. Corpus or endowment principal refers to the capital fund itself, not the periodic payment. A sinking fund is a reserve built up to meet a future liability.

Question 11General Studies and Current Affairs

Under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, which of the following is a duty of a trustee?

  1. To invest trust money in securities authorised by the Act and to keep accounts of trust property Correct answer.
  2. To use trust property for personal benefit if the beneficiary consents informally
  3. To commingle trust funds with personal funds for administrative convenience
  4. To delegate investment decisions freely to any third party without liability

Explanation

The Indian Trusts Act, 1882 imposes duties on trustees to invest in authorised securities and to keep clear accounts of trust property. A trustee is generally barred from using trust property for personal gain and from commingling trust funds with personal funds. Delegation is permitted only in limited circumstances, and the trustee remains accountable.

Question 12General Studies and Current Affairs

Which of the following best describes the concept of 'fiscal deficit'?

  1. Revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts
  2. Total expenditure minus total receipts excluding borrowings Correct answer.
  3. Total expenditure minus total revenue receipts only
  4. Total receipts minus total expenditure

Explanation

Fiscal deficit measures the gap between total expenditure and total receipts other than borrowings, indicating the government's borrowing requirement. Revenue deficit, by contrast, is the gap between revenue expenditure and revenue receipts. The fiscal deficit thus captures the overall borrowing need rather than the revenue account imbalance alone.

Question 13General Studies and Current Affairs

The 'Doctrine of Lapse' was associated with which Governor-General of India?

  1. Lord Curzon
  2. Lord Wellesley
  3. Lord Dalhousie Correct answer.
  4. Lord Cornwallis

Explanation

Lord Dalhousie applied the Doctrine of Lapse, under which States without a natural heir were annexed, leading to the annexation of Satara, Jhansi and Nagpur. Lord Wellesley is associated with the Subsidiary Alliance, Cornwallis with the Permanent Settlement, and Curzon with the partition of Bengal. These policies are distinct instruments of colonial expansion.

Question 14General Studies and Current Affairs

Which of the following is the primary objective of the Reserve Bank of India's monetary policy?

  1. Financing the fiscal deficit of the Union Government directly
  2. Maintaining price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth Correct answer.
  3. Maximising the profits of commercial banks
  4. Controlling the exchange rate at a fixed level

Explanation

The RBI Act, as amended in 2016, mandates the RBI to conduct monetary policy primarily to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. Direct financing of the fiscal deficit was discontinued through the ad hoc treasury bills arrangement. Exchange rate management is a secondary consideration, not the statutory primary objective.

Question 15General Studies and Current Affairs

In the context of Indian administration, what does the term 'New Public Management' emphasise?

  1. Citizen-centric service delivery, performance measurement and greater managerial autonomy Correct answer.
  2. Centralisation of all decision-making in the secretariat
  3. Replacement of the budget system with informal allocations
  4. Expansion of permanent bureaucracy through additional recruitment

Explanation

New Public Management draws on private-sector practices, emphasising outcomes, performance indicators, citizen charters and delegation of operational autonomy. It seeks to shift administration from rule-bound process control to results-based accountability. It does not advocate centralisation or informal budgeting, which would undermine transparency.

Question 16General Studies and Current Affairs

Which of the following statements about the Goods and Services Tax Council is correct?

  1. It is a committee constituted by the Reserve Bank of India
  2. It is an advisory body under NITI Aayog
  3. It is a statutory body created by an Act of Parliament
  4. It is a constitutional body under Article 279A chaired by the Union Finance Minister Correct answer.

Explanation

The GST Council was created by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 through Article 279A. It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and includes State Finance Ministers, making it a constitutional federal body. Its recommendations guide both the Union and State legislatures in framing GST laws.

Question 17General Studies and Current Affairs

Which of the following is an example of a 'specific purpose' grant recommended by a Finance Commission?

  1. A share of central taxes devolved to States
  2. A general untied transfer to a State based on population
  3. A grant to a State for upgrading its primary health infrastructure Correct answer.
  4. A loan advanced by the Union to a State under Article 293

Explanation

Specific purpose grants, also called sector-specific or conditional grants, are earmarked for defined sectors such as health, education or water supply. General untied transfers and tax devolution are unconditional, while Article 293 loans are borrowings that require repayment. The distinction matters when evaluating the fiscal autonomy of States.

Question 18General Studies and Current Affairs

Which of the following is the correct order of the layers of the atmosphere from the Earth's surface upward?

  1. Troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere Correct answer.
  2. Troposphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere
  3. Mesosphere, troposphere, stratosphere, thermosphere
  4. Stratosphere, troposphere, thermosphere, mesosphere

Explanation

The atmosphere is layered by temperature gradient: troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere, and exosphere. Weather phenomena occur mainly in the troposphere, while the ozone layer lies in the stratosphere. The order is fixed by the temperature profile, which reverses at each boundary layer.

Question 19General Studies and Current Affairs

The 'Mahalwari' land revenue system was primarily introduced in which region of India?

  1. Bengal and Bihar
  2. North-Western Provinces and parts of Punjab Correct answer.
  3. Madras Presidency
  4. Bombay Presidency

Explanation

The Mahalwari system, associated with Holt Mackenzie and later revised by R.M. Bird, was implemented in the North-Western Provinces and parts of Punjab. It settled revenue with the village or estate (mahal) collectively rather than with individual cultivators. Bengal and Bihar were under the Permanent Settlement, while the Ryotwari system dominated Madras and Bombay.

Question 20General Studies and Current Affairs

A State Finance Commission is required to make recommendations on which of the following?

  1. The principles governing the distribution of taxes between the State and local bodies and the grants-in-aid to be given to them Correct answer.
  2. The distribution of Union taxes among States
  3. The salaries of State civil servants
  4. The borrowing limits of the State Government

Explanation

Article 243-I and Article 243-Y require the State Finance Commission to recommend principles for distributing taxes, duties, tolls and fees between the State and local bodies, and the grants-in-aid to be given to them. Distribution of Union taxes is the mandate of the Union Finance Commission under Article 280. Borrowing limits and salaries are outside its remit.

Question 21General Studies and Current Affairs

Which of the following is the correct definition of 'revenue expenditure' in government budgeting?

  1. Expenditure on repayment of the principal of public debt
  2. Expenditure that does not create a physical asset and is recurring in nature Correct answer.
  3. Expenditure that creates assets of a capital nature
  4. Expenditure financed entirely from external borrowings

Explanation

Revenue expenditure is recurring expenditure that does not create a physical asset, such as salaries, pensions and interest payments. Capital expenditure, by contrast, creates assets or reduces liabilities. Repayment of the principal of public debt is classified as capital expenditure, not revenue expenditure.

Question 22General Studies and Current Affairs

The 'Golden Rule' in public finance refers to which principle?

  1. Government should always run a balanced budget
  2. Government borrowing should be used only to finance capital expenditure, not current consumption Correct answer.
  3. Public debt should never exceed 50 per cent of GDP
  4. Taxes should be proportional to income

Explanation

The golden rule of public finance holds that borrowing should finance investment, not current spending, so that future generations bear the cost of assets that also benefit them. It does not require an annually balanced budget, which would force pro-cyclical fiscal policy. The rule is about the composition of the deficit, not its absolute size.

Question 23General Studies and Current Affairs

A trust holds an endowment whose income must be applied to a purpose that has since become impossible. Which legal principle allows a court to apply the fund to a similar purpose?

  1. Cy pres doctrine Correct answer.
  2. Doctrine of pleasure
  3. Doctrine of eclipse
  4. Doctrine of ultra vires

Explanation

Cy pres allows a court to approximate the settlor's charitable intention when the original purpose becomes impracticable, thereby preventing the trust from failing. Ultra vires concerns acts beyond legal authority, the doctrine of pleasure concerns tenure of civil servants, and the doctrine of eclipse concerns pre-constitutional laws inconsistent with fundamental rights. Each doctrine operates in a distinct field.

Question 24General Studies and Current Affairs

Which of the following statements about the Finance Commission's recommendations on tax devolution is correct?

  1. Its recommendations require prior approval of the Supreme Court
  2. Its recommendations are binding on the Union Government
  3. Its recommendations are advisory, and the Union Government decides the extent of acceptance Correct answer.
  4. Its recommendations apply only to Union Territories

Explanation

The Finance Commission is a constitutional advisory body under Article 280; its recommendations are not legally binding, though in practice they are generally accepted. The Union Government lays the report before Parliament along with an explanatory memorandum on the action taken. The Commission's recommendations concern the Union-State fiscal relationship, not merely Union Territories.

Question 25General Studies and Current Affairs

Which of the following best explains why indirect taxes are often considered regressive?

  1. They are imposed only on exports
  2. They are levied only on luxury goods
  3. They are levied on consumption and therefore take a larger share of the income of poorer households Correct answer.
  4. They are collected only from large corporations

Explanation

Indirect taxes on consumption fall on all buyers regardless of income, so the tax takes a larger proportion of a poorer household's income than a richer one's. This makes them regressive in incidence, even though the rate may be uniform. Direct taxes on income can be made progressive through slabs and exemptions.

Question 26General Studies and Current Affairs

Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that the State shall endeavour to secure a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India?

  1. Article 44 Correct answer.
  2. Article 51
  3. Article 48
  4. Article 40

Explanation

Article 44 sits in Part IV among the Directive Principles and directs the State to endeavour to secure a uniform civil code throughout India. It is a directive, non-justiciable in nature, and has been repeatedly discussed in Supreme Court judgments on personal law reform.

Question 27General Studies and Current Affairs

In Indian government accounting, which fund holds money received by the government on behalf of provident funds and small savings collections, over which it can spend without legislative appropriation?

  1. Consolidated Fund of India
  2. Reserve Fund of India
  3. Contingency Fund of India
  4. Public Account of India Correct answer.

Explanation

The Public Account of India, under Article 266(2), records moneys where the government acts as a banker or trustee, such as provident funds and small savings. Disbursements from it do not require parliamentary appropriation. In contrast, the Consolidated Fund requires authorisation by law and the Contingency Fund is a temporary advance facility.

Question 28General Studies and Current Affairs

A State proposes to levy a tax on the sale of electricity consumed within its territory. Which constitutional entry empowers it to do so?

  1. Entry 54 of List II
  2. Entry 92A of List I
  3. Entry 53 of List II Correct answer.
  4. Entry 52 of List II

Explanation

Entry 53 of the State List covers taxes on the consumption or sale of electricity, which is why States such as Andhra Pradesh levy electricity duty. Entry 54 of List II relates to taxes on the sale of petroleum and liquor, and Entry 92A of List I is inter-State trade in goods.

Question 29General Studies and Current Affairs

Which index is published by the National Statistical Office to measure the change in retail prices of a fixed basket of goods consumed by a typical household in India?

  1. Gross Value Added deflator
  2. Wholesale Price Index
  3. Index of Industrial Production
  4. Consumer Price Index Correct answer.

Explanation

The Consumer Price Index measures retail inflation by tracking the prices of a representative basket of goods and services at the consumer level. It is the headline inflation measure used for monetary policy targeting. The Wholesale Price Index, by contrast, captures prices at the bulk or wholesale stage.

Question 30General Studies and Current Affairs

A State legislature passes a law on a Concurrent List subject that conflicts with an existing Union law on the same subject. The Union law has received the President's assent but contains no repugnancy clause. Which law prevails?

  1. The State law, if it was reserved for and received the President's assent
  2. Neither law, until the Supreme Court decides
  3. The State law, because the subject is in the Concurrent List
  4. The Union law, under Article 254(1) Correct answer.

Explanation

Under Article 254(1), where a State law is repugnant to a Union law on a Concurrent subject, the Union law prevails and the State law is void to the extent of the repugnancy. The exception in Article 254(2) applies only where the State law was reserved for the President and received assent.

Question 31General Studies and Current Affairs

Which of the following is the correct expansion of the term 'SDG' as used in Indian development planning documents?

  1. Social Development Guarantee
  2. Sectoral Development Grid
  3. State Development Grants
  4. Sustainable Development Goals Correct answer.

Explanation

SDG stands for Sustainable Development Goals, the seventeen goals adopted by the United Nations in 2015 under the 2030 Agenda. India's NITI Aayog monitors progress through a national SDG index that ranks States and Union Territories on these goals.

Question 32General Studies and Current Affairs

An endowment trust receives an income of Rs 10 lakh a year and is required to apply at least 85 per cent of that income to its charitable objects. Which statutory requirement is this rule most closely associated with?

  1. Section 11 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 Correct answer.
  2. Section 12A of the Income Tax Act, 1961
  3. Section 139 of the Income Tax Act, 1961
  4. Section 80G of the Income Tax Act, 1961

Explanation

Section 11 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 governs the exemption of income of charitable or religious trusts and contains the requirement to apply a specified proportion of income to charitable purposes. Section 12A deals with registration as a precondition for the exemption, while Section 80G provides a deduction to the donor.

Question 33General Studies and Current Affairs

Which body prepares and presents the Economic Survey of India to Parliament?

  1. The Comptroller and Auditor General
  2. The Reserve Bank of India
  3. NITI Aayog
  4. The Ministry of Finance, through the Department of Economic Affairs Correct answer.

Explanation

The Economic Survey is prepared by the Economic Division of the Department of Economic Affairs in the Ministry of Finance and is presented in Parliament ahead of the Union Budget. It reviews the performance of the economy and offers policy perspectives. It is a document of the executive and not a statutory report.

Question 34General Studies and Current Affairs

Which of the following best describes the 'output-outcome framework' introduced in the Union Budget of India?

  1. It determines the share of each State in central taxes
  2. It links budget allocations to measurable physical outputs and outcomes for each scheme Correct answer.
  3. It fixes the total borrowing limit of the Union Government for the year
  4. It prescribes the minimum reserve requirements for scheduled commercial banks

Explanation

The output-outcome framework, introduced from the 2017-18 Budget, requires each ministry to state the outputs and outcomes expected from its allocations so that spending can be evaluated against results. It shifts the focus of budgeting from outlays to results. Borrowing limits, reserve requirements and tax devolution are handled by other instruments.

Question 35General Studies and Current Affairs

The Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following States of India?

  1. Rajasthan Correct answer.
  2. Karnataka
  3. Odisha
  4. Kerala

Explanation

The Tropic of Cancer at roughly 23.5 degrees north latitude crosses eight Indian States, including Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram. Kerala, Odisha and Karnataka lie entirely south of this line.

Question 36General Studies and Current Affairs

Which of the following is the primary role of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India in relation to State finances?

  1. To approve the annual budget of a State before presentation
  2. To recommend the share of States in central taxes
  3. To fix the fiscal deficit target for each State
  4. To audit the accounts of the State governments and report to the legislature Correct answer.

Explanation

The Comptroller and Auditor General audits the accounts of the Union and the States and submits audit reports to the respective legislatures under Articles 149 to 151. The reports are examined by the Public Accounts Committee. The office does not set fiscal targets or approve budgets.

Question 37General Studies and Current Affairs

A developing country experiences a sharp rise in the price of imported crude oil, worsening its current account balance. Which policy response would most directly address the external imbalance in the short run?

  1. Increasing subsidies on domestic fertiliser
  2. Raising domestic income tax rates
  3. Reducing the statutory liquidity ratio of banks
  4. Depreciating the exchange rate to improve export competitiveness Correct answer.

Explanation

A depreciation makes exports cheaper and imports dearer in domestic currency, which can narrow a current account deficit over time if trade elasticities are adequate. It acts directly on the external balance rather than on domestic demand alone. The other options operate mainly on fiscal or liquidity conditions.

Question 38General Studies and Current Affairs

Which of the following statements about the National Human Rights Commission of India is correct?

  1. It is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 Correct answer.
  2. It is a constitutional body established under Article 338
  3. It is a body created by a Presidential Ordinance that lapses every six months
  4. It is a department under the Ministry of Home Affairs

Explanation

The National Human Rights Commission was created by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, making it a statutory rather than a constitutional body. It inquires into complaints of human rights violations and recommends remedial action, but its recommendations are not binding. Its chairperson is a former Chief Justice or judge of the Supreme Court.

Question 39General Studies and Current Affairs

Which of the following best explains why a fiscal stimulus financed by borrowing may fail to raise output when the economy is near full employment?

  1. An appreciation of the currency caused by lower interest rates
  2. A reduction in the statutory liquidity ratio
  3. A fall in the money supply caused by higher government spending
  4. Crowding out of private investment through higher interest rates Correct answer.

Explanation

Near full employment, government borrowing competes with the private sector for scarce savings, pushing up interest rates and displacing private investment, an effect known as crowding out. The net addition to aggregate demand may therefore be small. This is a standard argument against debt-financed stimulus in tight capacity conditions.

Question 40General Studies and Current Affairs

Which of the following is the correct description of the 'basic structure' doctrine in Indian constitutional law?

  1. It holds that the Directive Principles prevail over Fundamental Rights
  2. It holds that State laws prevail over Union laws on Concurrent subjects
  3. It holds that the Constitution may be amended only by a Constituent Assembly
  4. It holds that Parliament cannot amend features fundamental to the Constitution Correct answer.

Explanation

The basic structure doctrine, established in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala in 1973, holds that Parliament's amending power under Article 368 cannot destroy the essential features of the Constitution such as supremacy of the Constitution, secularism, federalism and judicial review. It is a limitation on the amending power, not a rule about legislative competence.

Question 41Hindu Religious Institutions and Endowments Law (Andhra Pradesh)

Under the Andhra Pradesh Charitable and Hindu Religious Institutions and Endowments Act, 1987, which authority is the highest administrative body supervising all charitable and Hindu religious institutions and endowments in the State?

  1. The Commissioner of Endowments
  2. The Endowments Department Tribunal
  3. The Andhra Pradesh Endowments Council
  4. The Government of Andhra Pradesh Correct answer.

Explanation

The 1987 Act vests the general superintendence and control of all charitable and Hindu religious institutions and endowments in the State Government, which acts through the Endowments Department. The Commissioner exercises powers subject to the Government's directions, so ultimate administrative authority rests with the Government.

Question 42Hindu Religious Institutions and Endowments Law (Andhra Pradesh)

A person is appointed to the Board of Trustees of a temple governed by the 1987 Act. Which of the following best describes the statutory position of such a trustee?

  1. The trustee is a holder of a hereditary office protected by Article 26 of the Constitution
  2. The trustee is a temporary custodian whose term ends automatically at the next general election
  3. The trustee manages the institution's affairs as a fiduciary, subject to statutory duties and control Correct answer.
  4. The trustee holds office as a public servant entitled to salary from the Endowments Department

Explanation

Trustees under the 1987 Act are fiduciaries who must administer the institution and its properties for the purposes of the endowment, subject to the Act and departmental supervision. They are not salaried public servants, and non-hereditary trustees hold office for the statutory term prescribed by the Act.

Question 43Hindu Religious Institutions and Endowments Law (Andhra Pradesh)

Which of the following is the correct description of a 'specific endowment' under the Andhra Pradesh Endowments Act framework?

  1. Property owned by the Endowments Department itself for administrative offices
  2. Property dedicated for the performance of a particular service, charity or religious observance Correct answer.
  3. Land granted to a temple subject to resumption by the Government at will
  4. The general corpus of a temple used for its day-to-day maintenance

Explanation

A specific endowment is property or money dedicated to a particular service, charity or religious observance associated with an institution, as distinguished from the general endowment of the institution. The distinction matters because the income of a specific endowment must be applied to its designated purpose.

Question 44Hindu Religious Institutions and Endowments Law (Andhra Pradesh)

A temple in Andhra Pradesh wishes to sell an item of immovable endowment property. Which statutory route must ordinarily be followed?

  1. Sanction of the Commissioner obtained in the manner prescribed, after due enquiry and publication Correct answer.
  2. Approval of the local revenue divisional officer alone
  3. Auction conducted by the temple with no departmental sanction
  4. A resolution of the trustee board followed by registration of a sale deed

Explanation

Immovable endowment property cannot be alienated without the sanction of the Commissioner, granted in the prescribed manner after enquiry and publication to invite objections. This safeguard protects the endowment against loss of its corpus.

Question 45Hindu Religious Institutions and Endowments Law (Andhra Pradesh)

What is the principal statutory purpose of maintaining the register of charitable and Hindu religious institutions and endowments under the 1987 Act?

  1. To register the marriages solemnised in the temple premises
  2. To record the institution, its trustee, its properties and its endowments so that supervision is possible Correct answer.
  3. To fix the market value of temple lands for revenue collection
  4. To determine the caste composition of worshippers at each temple

Explanation

The register is the foundational record under which an institution is recognised, its trustee and properties noted, and departmental supervision exercised. Entries in the register determine whether the Act applies to the institution and support later enquiries.

Question 46Hindu Religious Institutions and Endowments Law (Andhra Pradesh)

An 'archaka' in a temple governed by the Andhra Pradesh Endowments Act is best described in law as which of the following?

  1. A person who performs religious worship and rituals in the temple in accordance with tradition Correct answer.
  2. An employee of the Endowments Department posted by the Commissioner
  3. A trustee of the temple by virtue of performing worship
  4. An honorary member of the temple's board of trustees

Explanation

The archaka is the ritual functionary who performs worship and ceremonies in accordance with the usage and tradition of the temple. The office is religious in character, and the statutory scheme regulates appointment and service conditions without turning the archaka into a departmental employee.

Question 47Hindu Religious Institutions and Endowments Law (Andhra Pradesh)

Which of the following best describes the nature of the Endowments Department under the 1987 Act?

  1. A private trust managed by the trustees of major temples
  2. An autonomous corporation registered under the Companies Act
  3. A statutory department headed by the Commissioner, exercising supervision over institutions and endowments Correct answer.
  4. A judicial body deciding title disputes over temple lands

Explanation

The Endowments Department is a statutory administrative machinery headed by the Commissioner, through whom the Government supervises charitable and Hindu religious institutions. It is not a corporation, a private trust, or a court, though it conducts enquiries and exercises regulatory powers.

Question 48Hindu Religious Institutions and Endowments Law (Andhra Pradesh)

Under the Andhra Pradesh Endowments Act, what is the fundamental duty of a trustee with respect to the income of the institution?

  1. To apply the income to the purposes of the institution and render accounts as required Correct answer.
  2. To distribute the surplus income among the hereditary office-holders
  3. To deposit all income in the personal account of the trustee for safekeeping
  4. To invest the income only in the personal business of the trustee

Explanation

Trustees must apply the income and funds of the institution to the objects of the endowment and to render accounts of receipts and expenditure as required by the Act and departmental rules. Misapplication of funds is a breach of fiduciary duty attracting statutory consequences.

Question 49Hindu Religious Institutions and Endowments Law (Andhra Pradesh)

A devotee alleges that the trustee of a temple has leased out temple land at a rent far below market rate without sanction. Before which forum would a statutory appeal against a consequential order of the Commissioner ordinarily lie?

  1. The Andhra Pradesh Endowments Tribunal Correct answer.
  2. The District Collector
  3. The High Court in its original civil jurisdiction
  4. The local municipal council

Explanation

The 1987 Act creates a dedicated Endowments Tribunal to hear appeals and references against specified orders of the Commissioner and other authorities. The Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body, and recourse to it follows the statutory appeal scheme rather than ordinary civil or municipal channels.

Question 50Hindu Religious Institutions and Endowments Law (Andhra Pradesh)

A temple trustee dies leaving no validly appointed successor, and urgent decisions are needed about the temple's lands. Which power does the statutory scheme typically enable the Commissioner to exercise?

  1. To dissolve the endowment and vest its property in the Government
  2. To merge the temple with a neighbouring temple permanently
  3. To take over the institution's management through appointment of a fit person or special officer for the interim period Correct answer.
  4. To sell the temple lands to meet expenses

Explanation

Where management has failed or no trustee is available, the Act empowers the Commissioner to make interim arrangements, including appointing a fit person or special officer to manage the institution until regular arrangements are made. The power is protective and temporary, not a power of confiscation.