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CHSE Odisha Elective Political Science study materials
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CHSE Odisha Elective Political Science practice questions

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Question 1Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which Article of the Indian Constitution declares that the Constitution is supreme and the State shall not make any law inconsistent with fundamental rights?

  1. Article 226
  2. Article 13 Correct answer.
  3. Article 12
  4. Article 32

Explanation

Article 13 makes any law inconsistent with fundamental rights void and treats such inconsistent laws as unconstitutional. It is the textual basis for judicial review of legislation in India, whereas the other articles deal with definitions or writ jurisdictions.

Question 2Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

The Preamble to the Constitution of India was amended by which constitutional amendment, and what word did it add?

  1. 42nd Amendment, adding 'socialist' Correct answer.
  2. 1st Amendment, adding 'sovereign'
  3. 44th Amendment, adding 'secular'
  4. 52nd Amendment, adding 'democratic'

Explanation

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 inserted the words 'socialist' and 'secular' and changed 'sovereign democratic republic' to 'sovereign socialist secular democratic republic'. The 44th Amendment, by contrast, reversed several other changes made in 1976 but did not add these words to the Preamble.

Question 3Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

In the Indian federal system, residuary powers of legislation are vested in which authority?

  1. The Inter-State Council
  2. The President
  3. Parliament Correct answer.
  4. State Legislatures

Explanation

Article 248 read with Entry 97 of the Union List places residuary subjects with Parliament, unlike the US and Australian constitutions where residuary powers go to the states. This is one feature that makes Indian federalism comparatively strong at the centre.

Question 4Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which writ is issued by a court to a person holding a public office, commanding that a public duty be performed?

  1. Quo Warranto
  2. Mandamus Correct answer.
  3. Habeas Corpus
  4. Certiorari

Explanation

Mandamus literally means 'we command' and compels performance of a public duty where the duty is clear and the applicant has a legal right. Habeas corpus protects personal liberty, quo warranto questions a claim to public office, and certiorari quashes a lower tribunal's decision.

Question 5Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

The Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV of the Constitution are best described as which kind of provisions?

  1. Procedural rules for constitutional amendments
  2. Non-justiciable guidelines for state policy Correct answer.
  3. Fundamental duties of citizens
  4. Justiciable rights enforceable in courts

Explanation

Article 37 states that the Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court, yet they are fundamental in the governance of the country. They guide legislation and policy and have been used to interpret fundamental rights, but they confer no directly enforceable claim.

Question 6Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which of the following is a feature of the parliamentary form of government as adopted in India?

  1. Ministers cannot be members of the legislature
  2. The head of state is directly elected by the people
  3. The executive holds office for a fixed term independent of the legislature
  4. The executive is collectively responsible to the legislature Correct answer.

Explanation

In a parliamentary system the Council of Ministers is drawn from the legislature and remains in office only so long as it retains the confidence of the Lok Sabha, expressed through Article 75(3). This fusion of executive and legislative power distinguishes it from a presidential system.

Question 7Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

A person who is elected as a member of the Rajya Sabha must have attained which minimum age?

  1. Twenty-one years
  2. Thirty-five years
  3. Thirty years Correct answer.
  4. Twenty-five years

Explanation

Article 84 prescribes a minimum age of thirty years for membership of the Council of States and twenty-five years for the House of the People. The higher age for the upper house is intended to bring a measure of experience to that chamber.

Question 8Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

In a democracy, the principle of 'one person, one vote, one value' is most directly realised through which electoral arrangement?

  1. Reservation of seats for nominated members
  2. Indirect election of the lower house
  3. Roughly equal population per constituency Correct answer.
  4. Proportional representation by single transferable vote

Explanation

Equality of voting value requires that each constituency contain approximately the same number of voters, so that every vote carries comparable weight in electing one representative. Delimitation commissions revise boundaries periodically to maintain this rough equality.

Question 9Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

A bill passed by both Houses of Parliament is sent to the President. Which course of action is constitutionally available to the President with respect to an ordinary bill?

  1. Amend its provisions and grant assent to the amended text
  2. Refer it directly to the Supreme Court for an advisory opinion
  3. Return it once for reconsideration by the Houses Correct answer.
  4. Keep it pending indefinitely without any action

Explanation

Under Article 111 the President may assent, withhold assent, or return a non-money bill for reconsideration, but if the Houses pass it again with or without amendment the President must give assent. The veto is therefore suspensive rather than absolute for ordinary bills.

Question 10Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which committee of the Indian Parliament is often described as a 'mini-Parliament' because it examines the demands for grants of several ministries in detail?

  1. Public Accounts Committee
  2. Business Advisory Committee
  3. Committee on Public Undertakings
  4. Estimates Committee Correct answer.

Explanation

The Estimates Committee, drawn only from the Lok Sabha, scrutinises expenditure estimates and suggests economies in administration, and its broad coverage of many ministries earns it the 'mini-Parliament' label. The Public Accounts Committee, by contrast, audits expenditure already incurred.

Question 11Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

The Governor of a state, in the matter of appointing a Chief Minister after a hung assembly, exercises which kind of power?

  1. Emergency power under Article 356
  2. Judicial power delegated by the High Court
  3. Routine ministerial advice bound power
  4. Constitutional discretion Correct answer.

Explanation

Where no party commands a majority, the Governor must decide whom to invite to form the government, and this choice is recognised as an exercise of constitutional discretion rather than action on ministerial advice. The discretion is limited by conventions requiring the claimant to demonstrate majority support.

Question 12Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Under the anti-defection provisions of the Tenth Schedule, a member who voluntarily gives up membership of the party on whose ticket he was elected is liable to be disqualified. Who decides such a question of disqualification?

  1. The Election Commission of India
  2. The President on the advice of the Council of Ministers
  3. The Supreme Court in its original jurisdiction
  4. The presiding officer of the House concerned Correct answer.

Explanation

Paragraph 6 of the Tenth Schedule entrusts the decision on defection to the Speaker or Chairman of the House, whose decision is final. The Supreme Court in Kihoto Hollohan held that this decision is subject to judicial review, but the initial adjudicating authority remains the presiding officer.

Question 13Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which of the following best explains why the Indian Constitution is described as 'quasi-federal'?

  1. It has no division of legislative powers between two levels
  2. It provides for a confederation of sovereign states
  3. It permits states to secede by a simple majority resolution
  4. It combines a strong centre with autonomous states in a single written framework Correct answer.

Explanation

K.C. Wheare and other scholars called Indian federalism quasi-federal because it has the apparatus of dual government but tilts power towards the Union through single citizenship, integrated judiciary, emergency provisions and residuary powers with Parliament. It is thus federal in form but unitary in spirit during emergencies.

Question 14Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

The concept of 'negative liberty' in modern political theory refers to which of the following?

  1. Right to a minimum standard of living guaranteed by the state
  2. Capacity to participate in collective self-rule
  3. Absence of external interference in a person's actions Correct answer.
  4. Obligation to obey the general will without exception

Explanation

Isaiah Berlin distinguished negative liberty, the absence of coercion or interference, from positive liberty, the capacity to be one's own master and act on rational purposes. Negative liberty thus concerns the area within which a person is left undisturbed.

Question 15Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

According to John Rawls, which device ensures that the principles of justice chosen are fair to all?

  1. The dictatorship of the proletariat
  2. The veil of ignorance Correct answer.
  3. The greatest happiness principle
  4. The invisible hand of the market

Explanation

Rawls argues that principles chosen behind a veil of ignorance, which hides each person's social position and talents, will be impartial because no one can tailor rules to personal advantage. This is the core of his conception of justice as fairness.

Question 16Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which of the following distinguishes a pressure group from a political party?

  1. A pressure group is necessarily funded by the state
  2. A pressure group always fields candidates in every constituency
  3. A pressure group must be registered under the Representation of the People Act
  4. A pressure group seeks to influence policy without contesting elections to form government Correct answer.

Explanation

Pressure groups, such as trade unions or farmers' associations, aim to influence public policy and decision-makers while remaining outside the electoral contest for power. Political parties, by contrast, seek to win elections and form or share in government.

Question 17Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

In Marxist theory, the state in a capitalist society is primarily understood as which of the following?

  1. An instrument for maintaining class domination Correct answer.
  2. A neutral arbiter standing above all classes
  3. A voluntary association of producers
  4. A spiritual community realising the general will

Explanation

For Marx and Engels the state arose with private property and class antagonism and serves to preserve the dominance of the economically ruling class. The Communist Manifesto accordingly describes the modern state executive as a committee for managing the common affairs of the whole bourgeoisie.

Question 18Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

The doctrine of 'basic structure' was propounded by the Supreme Court in which case?

  1. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
  2. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
  3. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
  4. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala Correct answer.

Explanation

In Kesavananda Bharati (1973) the Supreme Court held that Parliament's amending power under Article 368 is wide but cannot destroy the basic structure of the Constitution. Later cases applied and refined the doctrine, but this was the decision that established it.

Question 19Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which of the following is an example of a 'concurrent' subject under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

  1. Police
  2. Foreign affairs
  3. Education Correct answer.
  4. Defence

Explanation

Education was moved from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, so both Parliament and state legislatures may legislate on it, with Union law prevailing in case of conflict under Article 254. Defence, police and foreign affairs are differently allocated.

Question 20Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

A state legislature passes a law on a concurrent subject that conflicts with an existing central law. Which principle normally determines the outcome?

  1. Both laws operate simultaneously without conflict
  2. The central law prevails unless the state law has received presidential assent Correct answer.
  3. The Supreme Court decides which law is more progressive
  4. The state law always prevails because it is later in time

Explanation

Article 254 provides that where a state law on a concurrent subject is repugnant to a central law, the central law prevails and the state law is void to the extent of repugnancy. A state law may prevail if it has been reserved for and received the President's assent.

Question 21Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which statement correctly captures the distinction between the 'political executive' and the 'permanent executive' in the Indian system?

  1. The political executive is elected and accountable to the legislature, while the permanent executive is recruited by merit and politically neutral Correct answer.
  2. The political executive is recruited through the Union Public Service Commission, while the permanent executive is elected
  3. Both are elected but the permanent executive serves longer terms
  4. The permanent executive is accountable to the legislature, while the political executive is not

Explanation

Ministers constitute the political executive, drawn from the legislature and answerable to it, whereas civil servants form the permanent executive, selected by competitive examination and expected to serve whichever government is in power. The two together constitute the executive branch, with distinct roles and forms of accountability.

Question 22Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

In the context of the Indian Constitution, which of the following statements about the emergency provisions is accurate?

  1. Financial emergency under Article 360 has never been proclaimed and requires approval within two months
  2. A proclamation of national emergency must be approved by both Houses within one month and may continue for six months at a time Correct answer.
  3. President's rule under Article 356 cannot be extended beyond six months in any circumstances
  4. A proclamation of national emergency takes effect only after approval by a simple majority of the Lok Sabha

Explanation

After the 44th Amendment, a national emergency proclamation must be approved by both Houses by a special majority within one month and remains in force for six months at a time, subject to further approval. This was a deliberate tightening of the original, more permissive procedure.

Question 23Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which thinker is associated with the argument that sovereignty resides in the general will, which is always directed towards the common good?

  1. Jean-Jacques Rousseau Correct answer.
  2. John Locke
  3. Thomas Hobbes
  4. Jeremy Bentham

Explanation

In The Social Contract Rousseau held that sovereignty is the exercise of the general will, which cannot be alienated or represented and always aims at the common good. This idea underpins his account of popular sovereignty and direct citizen legislation.

Question 24Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

A comparative study of the British and Indian parliamentary systems shows that the Indian Prime Minister's position is weaker in which respect?

  1. The Indian Prime Minister cannot appoint ministers without a parliamentary vote
  2. The Prime Minister in India is not the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha
  3. The Prime Minister cannot dissolve the Lok Sabha on personal initiative alone and must work within a written constitution and federal constraints Correct answer.
  4. The Indian Prime Minister is chosen directly by the electorate rather than by the House

Explanation

Unlike the British Prime Minister, who can advise dissolution with few formal constraints, the Indian Prime Minister operates under a written constitution, a federal division of powers and a President whose powers are defined in detail. Coalition politics and judicial review further limit personal dominance.

Question 25Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which of the following best explains the significance of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act for Indian federalism?

  1. It abolished the office of the District Collector in favour of elected councils
  2. It gave constitutional status to rural local bodies and mandated a three-tier structure with regular elections and a State Finance Commission Correct answer.
  3. It transferred all subjects in the State List to Panchayati Raj institutions
  4. It created a separate All India Services cadre for local government

Explanation

The 73rd Amendment inserted Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule, requiring gram, intermediate and district level panchayats, five-year terms, reservations and State Finance Commissions. It deepened democratic decentralisation without removing subjects from the State List.

Question 26Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which part of the Indian Constitution contains the Directive Principles of State Policy?

  1. Part IV Correct answer.
  2. Part IVA
  3. Part III
  4. Part V

Explanation

The Directive Principles of State Policy are laid down in Part IV, Articles 36 to 51. They guide the state in framing policy but are not enforceable in courts. Part III, by contrast, contains the enforceable Fundamental Rights.

Question 27Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

The Preamble to the Indian Constitution declares India to be which kind of state?

  1. A socialist secular democratic republic Correct answer.
  2. A unitary state
  3. A confederation of states
  4. A theocratic monarchy

Explanation

The Preamble describes India as a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic. The words 'socialist' and 'secular' were inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. This description sets out the basic character of the Indian polity.

Question 28Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which writ is issued by a court to a public authority that has failed to perform a duty imposed on it by law?

  1. Mandamus Correct answer.
  2. Quo warranto
  3. Certiorari
  4. Habeas corpus

Explanation

Mandamus literally means 'we command' and directs a public authority to perform a legal duty it has neglected. It cannot be used against a private individual or to enforce a discretionary function. The other writs address unlawful detention, usurpation of office, and quashing of orders respectively.

Question 29Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which article of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability?

  1. Article 14
  2. Article 21
  3. Article 17 Correct answer.
  4. Article 15

Explanation

Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form, and the Protection of Civil Rights Act gives it effect. Article 14 guarantees equality before the law, while Article 15 prohibits discrimination on specified grounds. Article 21 protects life and personal liberty.

Question 30Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

In political theory, the social contract tradition is chiefly associated with which set of thinkers?

  1. Marx, Engels and Lenin
  2. Bentham, Mill and Austin
  3. Aristotle, Bodin and Montesquieu
  4. Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau Correct answer.

Explanation

Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau are the classical social contract theorists who explained political obligation as arising from an agreement among individuals. They differ on the state of nature and the terms of the contract. The other groups belong to utilitarianism, Marxism and classical constitutional thought.

Question 31Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which of the following is the best example of a 'single-member constituency, first-past-the-post' electoral system?

  1. A system in which the candidate with the highest number of valid votes wins even without a majority Correct answer.
  2. A system in which voters rank candidates and preferences are transferred until one crosses fifty per cent
  3. A system in which the entire country forms one constituency with a party list
  4. A system in which seats are allotted in proportion to votes polled

Explanation

Under first-past-the-post, the constituency returns one member and the candidate with the largest number of votes wins, regardless of whether that number is an absolute majority. This is the system used for the Lok Sabha and state assemblies in India. Proportional representation and preferential voting work differently.

Question 32Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which of the following is a key function that political parties perform in a representative democracy?

  1. Adjudicating disputes between citizens and the state
  2. Conducting elections and declaring results
  3. Interpreting the constitution and settling constitutional disputes
  4. Aggregating interests and formulating public policy programmes Correct answer.

Explanation

Parties aggregate diverse interests, frame policy programmes and present them to the electorate, and then organise government if elected. They thus link citizens to the institutions of the state. Adjudication, election administration and constitutional interpretation belong to other bodies.

Question 33Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

The principle of collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers in India is expressly stated in which article?

  1. Article 78
  2. Article 74
  3. Article 75 Correct answer.
  4. Article 79

Explanation

Article 75(3) provides that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People. This means the ministry as a body must retain the confidence of the Lok Sabha. Article 74 deals with advice to the President and Article 78 with the Prime Minister's duty to communicate information.

Question 34Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

A private member's bill in the Indian Parliament is one that is introduced by which of the following?

  1. A member who is not a minister Correct answer.
  2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  3. The Leader of the Opposition only
  4. A minister on behalf of the government

Explanation

A private member's bill is introduced by any member of either House who is not a minister, whereas a government bill is introduced by a minister. Private members' bills are comparatively few and rarely become law, but they are a recognised legislative device. The Speaker does not introduce bills.

Question 35Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

A candidate wishes to contest a Lok Sabha election. Which of the following is a constitutional requirement for such candidature?

  1. Must have resided in the constituency for at least one year
  2. Must be a registered voter in the constituency from which he contests
  3. Must have completed twenty-five years of age Correct answer.
  4. Must be a member of a recognised political party

Explanation

Article 84 requires a person to be at least twenty-five years of age to be qualified for membership of the House of the People. There is no constitutional requirement of residence in the constituency or of belonging to a party. Being an elector is required, but registration in the particular constituency is not.

Question 36Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which of the following best describes the composition of the Election Commission of India as provided in the Constitution?

  1. A body consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner and the Chief Justice of India
  2. A body consisting only of the Chief Election Commissioner with no provision for other members
  3. A body consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner and such other Election Commissioners as the President may fix Correct answer.
  4. A body whose composition and tenure are entirely at the discretion of Parliament

Explanation

Article 324 provides that the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners as the President may from time to time fix. The Constitution thus leaves the size flexible. It has functioned as a multi-member body for long periods.

Question 37Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

A state government wishes to introduce a new tax on agricultural income. Which of the following is the correct constitutional position?

  1. Neither Parliament nor the state legislature may levy it
  2. Only Parliament may levy it Correct answer.
  3. Both Parliament and the state legislature may levy it concurrently
  4. Only the state legislature may levy it

Explanation

Taxes on agricultural income fall in the Union List (Entry 82), so only Parliament can levy them. The state legislature may levy taxes on agricultural land under Entry 46 of the State List, but not on the income from agriculture. This distinction is a standard illustration of the division of taxing powers.

Question 38Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes the Rajya Sabha from the Lok Sabha in the context of money bills?

  1. The Rajya Sabha has co-equal powers with the Lok Sabha over money bills
  2. The Rajya Sabha may only make recommendations on a money bill within fourteen days, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject Correct answer.
  3. The Rajya Sabha may reject a money bill outright, and the bill then lapses
  4. The Rajya Sabha may amend a money bill and return it to the Lok Sabha

Explanation

Under Article 109, a money bill may be introduced only in the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha must return it within fourteen days with or without recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject. The Lok Sabha's will prevails. The Rajya Sabha has no power to amend or reject a money bill.

Question 39Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which of the following best explains the significance of judicial review in the Indian constitutional scheme?

  1. It permits the Supreme Court to advise the President on all policy matters
  2. It enables courts to examine whether legislative and executive action conforms to the Constitution Correct answer.
  3. It allows the judiciary to amend the Constitution when Parliament is slow to act
  4. It transfers legislative power to the courts in matters of fundamental rights

Explanation

Judicial review is the power of courts to test the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive action and to declare them void when they violate the Constitution. It flows from Articles 13, 32 and 226. Courts do not legislate or amend the Constitution.

Question 40Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

According to Aristotle, the perverted form of government in which a single ruler governs in his own interest is called which of the following?

  1. Polity
  2. Tyranny Correct answer.
  3. Oligarchy
  4. Aristocracy

Explanation

Aristotle classified constitutions into correct and perverted forms according to whether rulers govern for the common good. Rule by one person in the common interest is kingship, and its perverted counterpart is tyranny. Aristocracy and polity are correct forms, while oligarchy is the perverted form of rule by the few.

Question 41Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

In modern liberal theory, the idea of 'positive liberty' is best captured by which of the following formulations?

  1. The capacity of a person to act as his own master and realise his rational purposes Correct answer.
  2. The absence of legal restraints on individual action
  3. Freedom from interference by other persons
  4. The right to be left alone in a private sphere

Explanation

Positive liberty concerns self-mastery, that is, the ability to be one's own master and pursue rationally chosen ends. It is distinguished from negative liberty, which concerns the absence of external interference. The other options describe negative liberty in various formulations.

Question 42Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which of the following best captures the Marxist understanding of class in capitalist society?

  1. Class arises from the relation of groups to the means of production Correct answer.
  2. Class is determined by the level of income earned from all sources
  3. Class is a matter of subjective identification with a political party
  4. Class is determined primarily by occupation and educational attainment

Explanation

In Marxist analysis, classes are defined by their relationship to the ownership and control of the means of production, such as bourgeoisie and proletariat. Income levels, occupation and subjective identification may follow from this relation but do not define it. The exploitative extraction of surplus value is central to the analysis.

Question 43Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

A constitution is described as 'rigid' when which of the following is true?

  1. Its amendment requires a special procedure more demanding than ordinary law-making Correct answer.
  2. It can be amended by the ordinary legislative process of the country
  3. It is codified in a single written document
  4. It contains a bill of rights enforceable in courts

Explanation

Rigidity refers to the amendment procedure: a rigid constitution can be changed only by a special process, such as a special majority or ratification by states. A flexible constitution is amended by ordinary legislation. Codification and a bill of rights are separate features and do not by themselves make a constitution rigid.

Question 44Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which of the following correctly states the position of the Vice-President of India with respect to the office of President?

  1. The Vice-President acts as President for the whole remaining term of the President
  2. The Vice-President discharges the functions of the President only until a new President is elected, within a period not exceeding six months Correct answer.
  3. The Vice-President assumes the office of President permanently without any fresh election
  4. The Chief Justice of India acts as President whenever the office falls vacant

Explanation

Article 65 provides that when the office of President falls vacant, the Vice-President acts as President until a new President is elected, and the election must be held within six months. The Vice-President does not serve out the predecessor's full term. The Chief Justice acts as President only under the statutory arrangement when both offices are vacant.

Question 45Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

The concept of 'delegated legislation' refers to which of the following?

  1. The power of the President to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session
  2. Rules and regulations framed by the executive under authority conferred by a statute Correct answer.
  3. Legislation enacted by a subordinate court to regulate its own procedure
  4. Laws made by the legislature in a federal system where powers are delegated to states

Explanation

Delegated legislation is law made by the executive or other bodies under powers granted by a parent statute, often to handle technical detail and changing circumstances. It remains subject to the limits of the enabling Act and to judicial review. Ordinances are a distinct constitutional power of the executive.

Question 46Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which of the following best explains why the Indian Constitution is described as providing for 'cooperative federalism'?

  1. The states retain residual powers and may secede from the Union
  2. The Governor acts as an agent of the state government in dealings with the Union
  3. The Union Parliament may unilaterally alter the boundaries of any state without consulting it
  4. Institutions such as the Inter-State Council and the Finance Commission facilitate consultation and resource sharing between the Union and states Correct answer.

Explanation

Cooperative federalism refers to mechanisms of consultation and joint action, such as the Inter-State Council under Article 263, the Finance Commission, and the GST Council. These bodies bring the Union and states together in policy and resource decisions. Secession and unilateral alteration of state boundaries are contrary to the constitutional scheme.

Question 47Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

A state legislature passes a resolution for the creation of a Legislative Council. Which of the following is required for such a Council to be established?

  1. A resolution of the Inter-State Council
  2. A resolution passed by the state legislature by a special majority and an Act of Parliament Correct answer.
  3. An order of the Governor alone
  4. Only the resolution of the state legislature, after which the Council is automatically constituted

Explanation

Under Article 169, Parliament may create or abolish a state Legislative Council if the state legislative assembly passes a resolution by a special majority, namely a majority of the total membership and two-thirds of those present and voting. An Act of Parliament is then required. The Governor or the Inter-State Council cannot create a Council.

Question 48Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which of the following statements about the ordinance-making power of the President is constitutionally accurate?

  1. An ordinance, once issued, remains in force indefinitely without parliamentary approval
  2. An ordinance may be issued on any subject, including a subject on which Parliament has already enacted a law
  3. An ordinance must be laid before Parliament and ceases to operate six weeks after Parliament reassembles unless approved earlier Correct answer.
  4. An ordinance may be issued even when both Houses of Parliament are in session

Explanation

Under Article 123, an ordinance must be laid before both Houses and ceases to operate at the expiry of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament, or earlier if disapproved. It may be issued only when Parliament is not in session and the President is satisfied that immediate action is necessary. It cannot override an existing Act on the same subject.

Question 49Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

In the context of the Indian party system, which of the following correctly distinguishes a 'recognised party' from a 'registered party'?

  1. A recognised party must have won a majority of seats in the Lok Sabha, while a registered party need not contest elections
  2. Both terms are identical and are used interchangeably in the Election Commission's rules
  3. A recognised party is one that satisfies the Election Commission's criteria for state or national status and enjoys reserved symbol and other privileges, while a registered party is merely entered in the register of parties Correct answer.
  4. A recognised party is one registered under the Representation of the People Act, while a registered party enjoys symbol and broadcast privileges

Explanation

Registration under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act is open to any association of citizens, but recognition as a state or national party depends on fulfilling criteria based on electoral performance laid down by the Election Commission. Only recognised parties get a reserved symbol throughout the relevant area and facilities such as broadcast time. The two statuses are therefore distinct.

Question 50Political Science (Elective) - +2 Arts

Which of the following best expresses the significance of the concept of 'dharma' in Kautilya's Arthashastra as a basis of statecraft?

  1. It denotes the moral and social order that the king is expected to uphold through danda, or coercive authority Correct answer.
  2. It denotes the principle of non-violence that the state must follow in all its dealings
  3. It denotes the king's absolute right to disregard all customary norms in the interest of the treasury
  4. It denotes a purely religious duty that the king must leave to priests

Explanation

In the Arthashastra, dharma refers to the moral and social order that the ruler is bound to protect, and danda, the rod of coercion, is the instrument through which order is maintained. Statecraft is thus conceived as combining material interest, moral order and coercive authority. It is not a doctrine of unlimited royal whim or of non-violence.