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DSSSB Pharmacist study materials
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DSSSB Pharmacist practice questions

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Question 1General Awareness

The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, in its original form, primarily regulated which of the following?

  1. Approval of clinical trial protocols and ethics committees
  2. Fixation of minimum wages for pharmacy staff
  3. Registration of pharmacists for hospital employment
  4. Import, manufacture, distribution and sale of drugs and cosmetics Correct answer.

Explanation

The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 was enacted to regulate the import, manufacture, distribution and sale of drugs and cosmetics so that quality standards are maintained. Registration of pharmacists is dealt with under the Pharmacy Act, 1948, while wages and clinical trial approvals fall under other statutes and bodies.

Question 2General Awareness

Under the Pharmacy Act, 1948, which body is responsible for registering pharmacists in a State?

  1. The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission
  2. The State Pharmacy Council Correct answer.
  3. The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation
  4. The Medical Council of India

Explanation

The Pharmacy Act, 1948 provides for the constitution of a State Pharmacy Council in each State, and that Council maintains the register of pharmacists qualified to practise in the State. The Central Pharmacy Council deals with education standards at national level.

Question 3General Awareness

Which Schedule of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules lists drugs that must be sold by retail only on the prescription of a registered medical practitioner?

  1. Schedule X
  2. Schedule F
  3. Schedule C
  4. Schedule H Correct answer.

Explanation

Schedule H lists prescription drugs that may be sold only on the prescription of a registered medical practitioner and carry the caution label about safe use. Schedule X covers narcotic-type drugs needing special licences, while Schedules C and F relate to biological products and devices.

Question 4General Awareness

A pharmacist receives a prescription containing a Schedule X drug. Which practice is required?

  1. Dispense it freely as it is a routine retail drug
  2. Substitute it with a Schedule H drug without consulting the prescriber
  3. Maintain separate records and store it under a special licence Correct answer.
  4. Sell it only in the presence of the patient's relative

Explanation

Schedule X drugs require a specific licence, separate storage under lock, and maintenance of records for a prescribed period. They cannot be handled like ordinary retail drugs, and substitution would be clinically unsafe and illegal.

Question 5General Awareness

The 'red line' rule under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules relates to which requirement?

  1. Labelling of habit-forming drugs with a warning Correct answer.
  2. Storing insulin in a refrigerator
  3. Maintaining a separate register for narcotics
  4. Displaying the retail price on the strip

Explanation

Certain habit-forming drugs must bear a warning on the label, traditionally enclosed within a red line, stating that the drug should be used with caution. This is a labelling requirement, not a storage or pricing rule.

Question 6General Awareness

Which of the following is the correct expansion of the abbreviation 'IP' on an Indian drug label?

  1. International Pharmacopoeia
  2. Investigational Product
  3. Indian Pharmaceutical
  4. Indian Pharmacopoeia Correct answer.

Explanation

The abbreviation IP on a label in India stands for Indian Pharmacopoeia, indicating that the product conforms to the standards published in that official compendium. The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission publishes it.

Question 7General Awareness

The National Health Mission in India is primarily aimed at strengthening which of the following?

  1. Public health delivery systems in rural and underserved areas Correct answer.
  2. Private hospital accreditation standards
  3. Medical device manufacturing licences
  4. Export promotion of pharmaceutical products

Explanation

The National Health Mission, comprising the National Rural and Urban Health Missions, focuses on strengthening public health systems, especially in rural and underserved areas. It funds primary health infrastructure, human resources and reproductive and child health services.

Question 8General Awareness

A pharmacist reads that a drug is 'contraindicated in pregnancy'. What does this mean in practice?

  1. The drug should be avoided in pregnancy because the risk outweighs benefit Correct answer.
  2. The drug is safe only when combined with folic acid
  3. The drug can be given freely after the first trimester
  4. The drug must be given at a higher dose in pregnancy

Explanation

Contraindication means the drug should not be used in that condition because the potential harm outweighs any benefit. In pregnancy, this calls for avoiding the drug and considering safer alternatives in consultation with the prescriber.

Question 9General Awareness

'First-pass metabolism' of an orally administered drug occurs mainly in which organ?

  1. Lungs
  2. Spleen
  3. Kidney
  4. Liver Correct answer.

Explanation

After absorption from the gut, drug-rich blood passes through the portal vein to the liver before reaching systemic circulation, so the liver is the principal site of first-pass metabolism. This reduces the bioavailability of many orally given drugs.

Question 10General Awareness

Which route of administration completely avoids first-pass metabolism?

  1. Intravenous injection Correct answer.
  2. Enteric-coated capsule
  3. Oral tablet
  4. Oral syrup

Explanation

Intravenous administration places the drug directly into the systemic circulation, bypassing absorption and hepatic first-pass metabolism entirely. Oral formulations, whether tablets, syrups or coated capsules, still undergo portal passage.

Question 11General Awareness

A drug has a narrow therapeutic index. What is the most important implication for the pharmacist?

  1. The drug is always safe in renal impairment
  2. Generic substitution never changes its effect
  3. The drug can be dispensed without dose monitoring
  4. Small changes in dose or blood level can cause toxicity or loss of effect Correct answer.

Explanation

A narrow therapeutic index means the toxic and therapeutic ranges are close, so small changes in dose, formulation or clearance can cause toxicity or treatment failure. Such drugs need careful dosing and often therapeutic drug monitoring.

Question 12General Awareness

Which of the following is an example of a broad-spectrum antibiotic?

  1. Benzylpenicillin
  2. Tetracycline Correct answer.
  3. Isoniazid
  4. Vancomycin

Explanation

Tetracycline acts against a wide range of gram-positive and gram-negative organisms, so it is classed as broad-spectrum. Benzylpenicillin, vancomycin and isoniazid have narrower, more specific activity.

Question 13General Awareness

A patient on warfarin is prescribed a drug that inhibits CYP2C9. What is the most likely clinical consequence?

  1. Increased anticoagulant effect and bleeding risk Correct answer.
  2. No change in anticoagulant effect
  3. Immediate renal failure
  4. Reduced anticoagulant effect and clot risk

Explanation

Warfarin is metabolised mainly by CYP2C9, so inhibiting that enzyme raises warfarin levels and increases the risk of bleeding. The pharmacist should flag the interaction and recommend INR monitoring and dose adjustment.

Question 14General Awareness

Which of the following best describes 'pharmacovigilance'?

  1. Testing drugs for potency in the factory
  2. Registering pharmacists for practice
  3. Monitoring and reporting of adverse drug reactions and safety issues Correct answer.
  4. Fixing retail prices of medicines

Explanation

Pharmacovigilance is the science of detecting, assessing, understanding and preventing adverse effects or any other drug-related problems. In India, the Pharmacovigilance Programme of India coordinates adverse drug reaction reporting.

Question 15General Awareness

A pharmacist notices an unexpected adverse drug reaction. What is the appropriate action under the Pharmacovigilance Programme of India?

  1. Wait for the manufacturer to report it
  2. Report it using the prescribed ADR reporting form to the nearest centre Correct answer.
  3. Ignore it because it is not listed in the package insert
  4. Stop all drug sales in the pharmacy

Explanation

Suspected adverse drug reactions, even if not listed in the package insert, should be reported using the prescribed form to a pharmacovigilance centre. Such reporting helps detect new safety signals and protect patients.

Question 16General Awareness

Which of the following is a correct statement about the storage of vaccines in a cold chain?

  1. Vaccines can be stored in direct sunlight
  2. Most vaccines should be stored between 2 and 8 degrees Celsius Correct answer.
  3. All vaccines must be frozen for stability
  4. Vaccines should be kept above 25 degrees Celsius

Explanation

Most routine vaccines must be kept at 2 to 8 degrees Celsius to preserve potency. Freezing damages some vaccines, and heat or sunlight can inactivate them, so cold-chain discipline is essential.

Question 17General Awareness

The Indian Medical Council's code of conduct is relevant to a pharmacist mainly because it governs which of the following?

  1. The manufacture of cosmetics
  2. The professional conduct of registered medical practitioners who prescribe Correct answer.
  3. The pricing of devices
  4. The registration of nurses

Explanation

The Indian Medical Council's regulations define the professional conduct of registered medical practitioners, including prescription practices. A pharmacist interacts with prescribers under these norms, which shape prescription validity and ethical practice.

Question 18General Awareness

Which Indian organisation publishes the National List of Essential Medicines?

  1. The Indian Council of Agricultural Research
  2. The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation
  3. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Correct answer.
  4. The Reserve Bank of India

Explanation

The National List of Essential Medicines is published under the aegis of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, based on recommendations of an expert committee. It guides procurement and rational drug use in public health facilities.

Question 19General Awareness

The concept of 'essential medicines' as defined by the World Health Organization refers to medicines that satisfy which criterion?

  1. The medicines that are available only in private hospitals
  2. The medicines that are the most expensive and imported
  3. The medicines that are used only in clinical trials
  4. The medicines that satisfy the priority health care needs of the population Correct answer.

Explanation

Essential medicines are those that satisfy the priority health care needs of the population and are selected with regard to public health relevance, evidence of efficacy and safety, and comparative cost-effectiveness. They should be available at all times in adequate amounts.

Question 20General Awareness

A prescription is missing the prescriber's registration number. What is the pharmacist's best course of action?

  1. Verify the prescription with the prescriber before dispensing Correct answer.
  2. Replace the drug with an over-the-counter alternative
  3. Dispense the drug and note the omission later
  4. Dispense a smaller quantity to be safe

Explanation

A valid prescription should contain the prescriber's details, including registration number, so an omission should be clarified with the prescriber before dispensing. Dispensing without verification risks legal and clinical problems.

Question 21General Awareness

Which of the following best describes 'rational drug use'?

  1. Using antibiotics for every fever
  2. Prescribing the newest and costliest drug available
  3. Dispensing all drugs requested by the patient
  4. Using medicines appropriate to clinical needs, in adequate doses and for an adequate duration Correct answer.

Explanation

Rational drug use means patients receive medicines appropriate to their clinical needs, in doses that meet their requirements, for an adequate period, at the lowest cost to them and the community. It balances efficacy, safety and cost.

Question 22General Awareness

Antimicrobial resistance is most strongly promoted by which practice?

  1. Washing hands before dispensing
  2. Completing the full prescribed course of an antibiotic
  3. Storing antibiotics as per label instructions
  4. Using antibiotics for viral infections like the common cold Correct answer.

Explanation

Using antibiotics for viral infections, where they have no effect, exposes bacteria to the drugs unnecessarily and selects resistant strains. Completing prescribed courses and hygiene practices help limit resistance.

Question 23General Awareness

Which of the following is an example of a Schedule H1 drug requirement introduced to curb misuse?

  1. Maintenance of a separate register with prescriber and patient details Correct answer.
  2. Free distribution in all pharmacies
  3. Sale without any prescription
  4. Storage in a refrigerator

Explanation

Schedule H1 was introduced to control the misuse of certain antibiotics and other drugs by requiring a separate register recording prescriber details, patient details and quantity, along with a warning label. This improves traceability and discourages over-the-counter sale.

Question 24General Awareness

The term 'bioavailability' refers to which of the following?

  1. The total amount of drug excreted in urine
  2. The time taken for a drug to dissolve in water
  3. The rate and extent to which the active drug reaches systemic circulation Correct answer.
  4. The number of tablets in a strip

Explanation

Bioavailability describes the rate and extent to which the active moiety enters systemic circulation, which determines the onset and intensity of drug action. It is central to comparing formulations and routes.

Question 25General Awareness

A patient asks for a generic substitute for a branded medicine. Which statement is most appropriate for the pharmacist to convey?

  1. Generics are always inferior in quality
  2. Generics contain no active ingredient
  3. A quality-assured generic contains the same active ingredient and is an accepted alternative Correct answer.
  4. Generics must be imported from abroad

Explanation

A quality-assured generic contains the same active ingredient as the branded product and is an accepted, often cheaper, alternative. The pharmacist should ensure the product is from an approved source and counsel on correct use.

Question 26General Awareness

Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, which schedule lists drugs that must be sold only on the prescription of a registered medical practitioner?

  1. Schedule H Correct answer.
  2. Schedule C
  3. Schedule F
  4. Schedule X

Explanation

Schedule H of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules lists prescription-only medicines that may be sold only on the prescription of a registered medical practitioner. Schedule X covers narcotic and psychotropic drugs needing stricter record-keeping, and Schedule C covers biological products. A pharmacist must not dispense a Schedule H drug without a valid prescription.

Question 27General Awareness

A pharmacist is asked about the full form of the abbreviation 'OTC' used in community pharmacy practice. Which expansion is correct?

  1. Optimum titre concentration
  2. Oral therapeutic compound
  3. Outpatient treatment course
  4. Over-the-counter Correct answer.

Explanation

OTC stands for over-the-counter, meaning medicines that may be sold without a prescription because they are considered safe for self-medication within labelled limits. In India these are generally drugs outside Schedule H, H1 and X. The pharmacist still has a duty to counsel on dose and duration.

Question 28General Awareness

In the Indian healthcare system, a Primary Health Centre is best described as which of the following?

  1. A private retail pharmacy licensed under Schedule X
  2. A tertiary referral hospital with super-specialty departments
  3. A district-level blood bank and transfusion unit
  4. The first point of contact providing basic curative and preventive services in rural areas Correct answer.

Explanation

A Primary Health Centre is the frontline rural health facility, staffed for basic curative, preventive and promotive care and linked upward to Community Health Centres and district hospitals. It is the first contact point for most rural patients. Pharmacists posted there manage essential medicines and stock under the National Health Mission framework.

Question 29General Awareness

Which of the following is the correct meaning of the abbreviation 'ADR' as used in hospital pharmacy records?

  1. Adverse drug reaction Correct answer.
  2. Average daily requirement
  3. Acute dose response
  4. Adjusted dosage regimen

Explanation

ADR stands for adverse drug reaction, meaning a noxious and unintended response to a medicine at doses normally used in humans. Recognising and reporting ADRs is a core duty of hospital and community pharmacists under pharmacovigilance programmes. The other expansions are not standard pharmacy terms.

Question 30General Awareness

A pharmacist is asked which body in India grants approval for new drugs before they can be marketed. Which authority is responsible?

  1. National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority
  2. Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation Correct answer.
  3. Pharmacy Council of India
  4. Indian Council of Medical Research

Explanation

The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation, through the Drugs Controller General (India), is the national regulator that approves new drugs and clinical trials. State drug controllers handle licensing of manufacturing and sale within states. The other bodies have research, pricing or professional-registration roles rather than marketing approval.

Question 31General Awareness

A pharmacist wants to check the official legal requirements for labelling a dispensed medicine in India. Which reference is most authoritative?

  1. The National List of Essential Medicines
  2. The Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945 Correct answer.
  3. The Indian Pharmacopoeia monograph section
  4. Good Manufacturing Practices guidelines for excipients

Explanation

Labelling requirements such as batch number, manufacturing and expiry dates, and the Rx symbol are laid down in the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945 and its schedules. The Indian Pharmacopoeia sets quality standards for the drug substance and product but not the statutory labelling format. A pharmacist should consult the Rules for legal compliance.

Question 32General Awareness

A patient brings a prescription written by a dentist for an antibiotic. How should the pharmacist treat the prescriber's authority?

  1. Forward it to the drug controller for approval before dispensing
  2. Dispense it, since a registered dentist may prescribe within the scope of dental practice Correct answer.
  3. Dispense only after a physician countersigns the prescription
  4. Refuse it outright because only physicians may write any prescription

Explanation

Registered dentists are recognised prescribers for medicines relevant to dental practice, so a standard antibiotic prescription for a dental condition is valid. The pharmacist should check registration details and the legality of the drug rather than refuse. Counter-signature by a physician is not required by the Rules.

Question 33General Awareness

Which of the following best states the role of the Pharmacy Council of India?

  1. Regulating pharmacy education and maintaining the register of qualified pharmacists Correct answer.
  2. Approving new drug molecules for marketing
  3. Fixing the maximum retail price of every formulation
  4. Inspecting blood banks for transfusion safety

Explanation

The Pharmacy Council of India is a statutory body under the Pharmacy Act, 1948 that prescribes education standards and maintains the central register of pharmacists. It does not set prices, approve new drugs or inspect blood banks. State pharmacy councils maintain state registers and enforce professional conduct.

Question 34General Awareness

A pharmacist is counselling a patient on a medicine that must be taken on an empty stomach. Which instruction conveys this most precisely?

  1. Take it immediately after the main meal of the day
  2. Take it along with an antacid to reduce gastric irritation
  3. Take it at least one hour before a meal or two hours after a meal Correct answer.
  4. Take it with a glass of milk at bedtime

Explanation

Empty-stomach dosing is conventionally defined as about one hour before food or two hours after food, so that food does not alter absorption. Taking the dose with food, milk or antacids can change dissolution and bioavailability. The pharmacist should state the timing clearly rather than use the vague phrase 'empty stomach'.

Question 35General Awareness

In the cold chain for vaccines, which of the following practices is correct at the vaccine storage point?

  1. Store vaccines at room temperature once the cold box is opened
  2. Store vaccines in the main compartment of a pharmaceutical refrigerator and keep water bottles for temperature stability Correct answer.
  3. Store vaccines in the freezer compartment to extend shelf life
  4. Keep vaccines next to the refrigerator's cooling coils to maximise cooling

Explanation

Vaccines are kept in the main compartment of a pharmaceutical refrigerator, typically between 2 and 8 degrees Celsius, and water bottles help hold the temperature steady during door opening. Freezing damages adsorbed vaccines such as DPT, hepatitis B and tetanus toxoid. Placement against the coils risks freezing the product.

Question 36General Awareness

A community pharmacist notices that the same patient is collecting a benzodiazepine from three different pharmacies in one month. What is the most appropriate professional response?

  1. Refuse all future dispensing to the patient without explanation
  2. Report the patient to the police as a drug offender immediately
  3. Record the pattern and counsel the patient, informing the prescriber about possible duplicate or dependent use Correct answer.
  4. Ignore it because dispensing records are confidential to each pharmacy

Explanation

Repeated collection of a controlled medicine from multiple pharmacies suggests duplicate therapy or dependence and warrants a documented, non-judgemental intervention. The pharmacist should counsel the patient and alert the prescriber so that the therapy can be reviewed. Unilateral refusal or police reporting without assessment is disproportionate and may harm the patient.

Question 37General Awareness

Which of the following is the main purpose of the Jan Aushadhi scheme from a pharmacist's viewpoint?

  1. Providing free tertiary surgery in private hospitals
  2. Funding pharmacy college research projects
  3. Subsidising only imported patented medicines
  4. Supplying quality generic medicines at affordable prices through dedicated outlets Correct answer.

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana runs outlets that sell quality-assured generic medicines at low prices to improve affordability and access. It does not fund surgery, imports or research grants. A pharmacist working in such an outlet should explain generic equivalence to patients.

Question 38General Awareness

A hospital pharmacist is told that a drug is a 'high-alert medication'. What does this classification imply for pharmacy practice?

  1. The drug carries a high risk of serious harm when misused, so independent double-checks and standard protocols are needed Correct answer.
  2. The drug is exempt from pharmacovigilance reporting
  3. The drug must always be dispensed in the original manufacturer's pack
  4. The drug can be sold freely because it is widely used

Explanation

High-alert medicines such as insulin, concentrated potassium chloride and anticoagulants can cause severe harm if given in error, so systems use independent double-checks, clear labelling and restricted storage. The classification is about error prevention, not about free sale or exemption from reporting. Pharmacists play a key role in designing these safeguards.

Question 39General Awareness

A pharmacist reads that a drug follows zero-order elimination at therapeutic doses. Which consequence should be anticipated when the dose is increased?

  1. Steady state is reached more quickly than with first-order drugs
  2. Plasma concentration rises disproportionately because a constant amount is eliminated per unit time Correct answer.
  3. Half-life becomes independent of plasma concentration
  4. Plasma concentration falls because clearance increases with dose

Explanation

In zero-order kinetics the eliminating enzymes are saturated, so a fixed amount is removed per unit time rather than a fixed fraction. A small dose increase can therefore produce a large, sometimes toxic, rise in plasma concentration. Examples include phenytoin and ethanol at higher doses.

Question 40General Awareness

A pharmacist is evaluating a claim that a new formulation is 'bioequivalent' to the innovator product. Which evidence would best support this claim?

  1. A comparative pharmacokinetic study showing the 90% confidence interval of the AUC and Cmax ratio within 80 to 125% Correct answer.
  2. A manufacturer statement that both products contain the same active ingredient
  3. A dissolution test performed at a single pH point only
  4. A single case report of similar clinical response in one patient

Explanation

Bioequivalence is established by comparative pharmacokinetic studies in which the 90% confidence interval for the ratio of AUC and Cmax between test and reference products lies within the accepted 80 to 125% limits. Having the same active ingredient is necessary but not sufficient, since excipients and manufacture affect release. Single case reports and one-point dissolution data cannot establish equivalence.

Question 41General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability

A pharmacy assistant arranges medicine strips in a rack so that each row contains one more strip than the row above it. If the top row has 3 strips and there are 12 rows, how many strips are in the bottom row?

  1. 16
  2. 13
  3. 14 Correct answer.
  4. 15

Explanation

This is an arithmetic progression with first term 3 and common difference 1. The nth term is a + (n - 1)d, so the 12th term equals 3 + 11 × 1 = 14. The bottom row therefore holds 14 strips.

Question 42General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability

In a hospital store, the word PHARMACIST is coded by shifting each letter one place forward in the English alphabet. What is the resulting code?

  1. QHBSNBDJTU
  2. QIBTNBUJUT
  3. QIBTNBUJTU
  4. QIBTMBUJTU Correct answer.

Explanation

Each letter is replaced by the letter immediately after it: P→Q, H→I, A→B, R→S, M→N, A→B, C→D, I→J, S→T, T→U. Applying this uniformly to PHARMACIST gives QIBTMBUJTU. Every position must shift by exactly one, with no letter left unchanged.

Question 43General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability

A pharmacist points to a woman and says, "She is the daughter of my mother's only son." How is the woman related to the pharmacist?

  1. Niece Correct answer.
  2. Cousin
  3. Daughter
  4. Sister

Explanation

The pharmacist's mother's only son is the pharmacist himself, since the son is unique. The daughter of that son is therefore the pharmacist's own daughter, not a sibling. Relationship puzzles hinge on resolving the possessive chain before assigning the final relation.

Question 44General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability

Which number completes the series 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ...?

  1. 42 Correct answer.
  2. 44
  3. 46
  4. 40

Explanation

The differences between consecutive terms are 4, 6, 8, 10, so the next difference is 12. Adding 12 to 30 gives 42. The terms also equal n(n+1) for n = 1, 2, 3, ..., which confirms 6 × 7 = 42.

Question 45General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability

A pharmacist keeps 5 different reference books on a shelf. In how many ways can these 5 books be arranged in a row?

  1. 25
  2. 720
  3. 60
  4. 120 Correct answer.

Explanation

Arranging n distinct objects in a row can be done in n! ways. Here 5! = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 120. Each ordering uses all five books exactly once, so no repetition is involved.

Question 46General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability

In a batch of medicines, every tablet is either a capsule or a syrup sachet, and no tablet is both. Which statement must be true?

  1. The union of capsules and sachets is empty
  2. The set of capsules and the set of sachets are disjoint Correct answer.
  3. The intersection of capsules and sachets contains one element
  4. The set of capsules is a subset of the set of sachets

Explanation

Mutually exclusive categories mean no item belongs to both sets, which is exactly the definition of disjoint sets. Their intersection is therefore empty. Subset, empty union, and single-element intersection all contradict the stated exclusivity.

Question 47General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability

A clock in the dispensary shows 3:00. What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand at that instant?

  1. 90 degrees Correct answer.
  2. 120 degrees
  3. 30 degrees
  4. 60 degrees

Explanation

At 3:00 the minute hand points at 12 and the hour hand points at 3. Each hour mark on the dial spans 360/12 = 30 degrees, and three marks separate them. The angle is therefore 3 × 30 = 90 degrees.

Question 48General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability

A pharmacist's stock register lists: 12 strips of paracetamol, 8 strips of amoxicillin, and 10 strips of cetirizine. If each strip contains 10 tablets, how many tablets are recorded in total?

  1. 240
  2. 360
  3. 300 Correct answer.
  4. 320

Explanation

The total number of strips is 12 + 8 + 10 = 30. Multiplying by 10 tablets per strip gives 30 × 10 = 300 tablets. The calculation requires summing the strip counts before applying the per-strip factor.

Question 49General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability

Six pharmacists are seated in a row for a training session. Ravi sits immediately to the left of Sunita. If Ravi is in the third seat from the left, which seat does Sunita occupy?

  1. Second from the left
  2. Fourth from the left Correct answer.
  3. Fifth from the left
  4. Third from the right

Explanation

Immediately to the right of the third seat is the fourth seat. Since Ravi is third from the left and Sunita sits directly to his right, Sunita is fourth from the left. In a row of six, the fourth from the left is also third from the right, but the option list distinguishes only one exact description consistent with the immediate-right relation.

Question 50General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability

In a certain code, MEDICINE is written as NFDJDJOF. Which rule produces this code?

  1. The word is written in reverse order
  2. Each letter is shifted one place forward Correct answer.
  3. Each letter is shifted one place backward
  4. Each letter is replaced by the next vowel

Explanation

Comparing letters position by position, M→N, E→F, D→E, I→J, C→D, I→J, N→O, E→F, every letter moves exactly one step forward in the alphabet. No other listed rule reproduces all eight substitutions. The pattern is uniform, so a single rule explains the whole code.