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Kerala +2 Political Science practice questions

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Question 1Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

In political theory, the term 'state' is best distinguished from 'government' and 'nation' because the state refers to which of the following?

  1. A cultural community sharing language, history and identity
  2. The sum of voluntary associations within civil society
  3. A set of enduring institutions exercising sovereign authority over a defined territory Correct answer.
  4. The particular party or ministry that holds office at a given time

Explanation

The state is the permanent institutional order that holds sovereign power over a territory and population, enduring across changes of rulers. Government is only the temporary agency that operates the state, while a nation is a cultural community that may or may not coincide with state boundaries.

Question 2Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

Which of the following best captures the meaning of sovereignty in classical political theory?

  1. The final and absolute authority to make binding decisions within a territory Correct answer.
  2. The freedom of individuals from interference by others
  3. The right of a community to cultural self-expression
  4. The capacity of a government to win periodic elections

Explanation

Sovereignty denotes supreme, final and legally unlimited authority within a defined territorial jurisdiction, internally over subjects and externally free from superior control. It is a property of the state's legal order, not of electoral success, personal liberty or cultural identity.

Question 3Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

A student argues that 'the government has changed but the state remains the same.' Which feature of the state does this statement illustrate?

  1. The accountability of ministers to the legislature
  2. The federal division of powers between centre and units
  3. Permanence and continuity of the state as distinct from transient governments Correct answer.
  4. The separation of the judiciary from the executive

Explanation

The state persists while governments come and go, which shows its permanence and continuity as an institutional order. Federalism, judicial independence and ministerial responsibility are structural or constitutional features, not the point about endurance across changes of government.

Question 4Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

In the social contract tradition, the shift from a 'state of nature' to civil society is justified primarily by which consideration?

  1. The desire to abolish all forms of political obligation
  2. The need for an impartial authority to enforce rules and secure rights that are insecure in nature Correct answer.
  3. The natural superiority of monarchs over their subjects
  4. The belief that cooperation is impossible for rational beings

Explanation

Contract theorists argue that life without a common authority makes rights and rules insecure, so rational persons consent to establish an impartial power. The contract is a device to ground legitimate authority, not a defence of royal superiority, the abolition of obligation, or a denial of rational cooperation.

Question 5Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

Which statement best expresses the core of liberal political theory?

  1. Tradition and inherited hierarchy are the safest guides for political life
  2. The collective will of the working class must replace parliamentary institutions
  3. Individual liberty and limits on state power are central, with rights protecting persons from arbitrary interference Correct answer.
  4. The state should regulate every aspect of social and economic life

Explanation

Liberalism prioritises the individual, values liberty, and seeks constitutional limits on state power so that rights are protected. It is distinguished from revolutionary socialism, conservatism and totalitarian statism by its emphasis on individual freedom and restraint on authority.

Question 6Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

According to Isaiah Berlin's distinction, 'negative liberty' refers to which of the following?

  1. The capacity to participate directly in collective decision-making
  2. The equal distribution of material resources among citizens
  3. The absence of interference by others in the area within which a person can act Correct answer.
  4. Self-mastery in which a person obeys their rational higher self

Explanation

Negative liberty is the absence of external constraints, that is, the space in which agents are not interfered with by others. Self-mastery and participation belong to positive conceptions of liberty, while equal resources concern distributive justice rather than liberty as non-interference.

Question 7Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

A law forbidding a person from expressing their religious beliefs in public would most directly violate which liberal principle?

  1. The principle of collective ownership of the means of production
  2. Equality before the law in matters of taxation
  3. The separation of powers between legislature and judiciary
  4. Freedom of conscience and expression as a limit on state power Correct answer.

Explanation

Freedom of conscience and expression is a core liberal right that restricts how far the state may intrude into personal belief and speech. Taxation, institutional separation and economic ownership are different concerns and are not the principle engaged by a ban on religious expression.

Question 8Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

In political theory, 'equality of opportunity' is best understood as requiring which of the following?

  1. Identical incomes for all citizens regardless of work
  2. Removal of arbitrary barriers so that positions are open to all on comparable terms Correct answer.
  3. The abolition of all private property
  4. Equal numbers of men and women in every profession by law

Explanation

Equality of opportunity demands that social and legal obstacles not arbitrarily block access to positions, so that competition is fair. It does not require identical outcomes, quotas in every profession, or the abolition of property, which belong to different conceptions of equality.

Question 9Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

The idea that some inequalities are justified only if they benefit the least advantaged members of society is associated with which approach?

  1. Burke's defence of inherited privilege
  2. Rawlsian justice as fairness with its difference principle Correct answer.
  3. Machiavelli's advice to princes
  4. Nozick's entitlement theory of holdings

Explanation

Rawls's difference principle permits social and economic inequalities only when they work to the greatest benefit of the least advantaged. Nozick focuses on just acquisition and transfer, while Burke and Machiavelli are not associated with a redistributive criterion of justice.

Question 10Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

Which of the following is the clearest example of a 'right' in the sense used in political theory?

  1. A duty owed by the citizen to the state
  2. A request that the government may choose to grant or refuse
  3. A justified claim that others, including the state, are obliged to respect Correct answer.
  4. A privilege granted by a ruler as a personal favour

Explanation

A right is a justified claim correlating with obligations on others, often enforceable against the state. Mere requests, personal favours and duties are conceptually different: rights impose obligations rather than depend on discretion.

Question 11Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights is best described as which kind of instrument?

  1. A judgment of the International Court of Justice
  2. A domestic statute of the Indian Parliament
  3. A non-binding declaration adopted by the UN General Assembly in 1948 setting out rights Correct answer.
  4. A treaty creating a world government with enforcement powers

Explanation

The UDHR was adopted by the UN General Assembly in 1948 as a declaration, not a binding treaty, and it articulates civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights. It does not create a world government, is not Indian legislation, and is not a court judgment.

Question 12Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

A government claims legitimacy because it was chosen through free and fair elections with universal adult suffrage. Which ground of legitimacy does this primarily invoke?

  1. Popular consent expressed through electoral authorisation Correct answer.
  2. Control over the means of coercion
  3. Divine sanction of the ruler
  4. Hereditary succession to the throne

Explanation

Electoral authorisation grounds legitimacy in the consent of the governed, a democratic source of authority. Divine right, heredity and coercion are alternative grounds that do not depend on the expressed will of the people.

Question 13Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

In democratic theory, 'accountability' of rulers requires which of the following?

  1. The exclusion of opposition parties from oversight
  2. The concentration of all powers in a single body
  3. The permanent tenure of officials once appointed
  4. Mechanisms by which citizens can hold office-holders answerable and remove them Correct answer.

Explanation

Accountability means that those who exercise power must answer for their conduct and face consequences, which requires oversight, transparency and the possibility of removal. Permanent tenure, concentration of power and exclusion of opposition all weaken rather than strengthen accountability.

Question 14Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

Which of the following best defines 'secularism' as understood in the Indian constitutional context?

  1. The prohibition of any religious practice in public life
  2. The establishment of one official state religion
  3. Hostility of the state towards all religious belief
  4. Equal respect for all religions with no state religion and freedom of religion for all Correct answer.

Explanation

Indian secularism is often described as principled distance and equal respect, with no established state religion and guaranteed freedom of conscience. It is not anti-religious, does not establish a state faith, and does not ban religious practice from public life.

Question 15Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

A multiculturalist critic argues that a strict policy of 'colour-blind' neutrality may disadvantage minorities. Which claim best expresses this critique?

  1. Formal neutrality can preserve dominant cultural norms and so fail to treat minorities equally Correct answer.
  2. The state must enforce a single national culture
  3. Cultural identity is irrelevant to justice
  4. Neutrality always produces identical outcomes for every group

Explanation

Multiculturalists argue that apparently neutral rules may embed majority norms and burden minorities, so equal treatment may require accommodation. The critique denies that neutrality always yields equal outcomes, insists culture is relevant, and opposes enforced cultural uniformity.

Question 16Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

Which of the following is the central concern of feminist political theory?

  1. Defending the hereditary privileges of traditional elites
  2. Challenging gendered structures of power and exposing the public-private divide in political life Correct answer.
  3. Restoring the authority of religious scripture in law
  4. Maximising the wealth of the nation through free markets

Explanation

Feminist political theory analyses how gender shapes power and contests the assumption that the private sphere is outside politics. Defending elites, maximising wealth and enforcing scripture belong to other ideological traditions and do not capture the gendered analysis of power.

Question 17Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

In Marxist theory, the state is primarily understood as which of the following?

  1. A neutral arbiter standing above all classes equally
  2. A voluntary association of consumers
  3. An instrument of class rule that serves dominant economic interests Correct answer.
  4. A purely cultural institution with no economic role

Explanation

Marxism treats the state as an organ of class domination arising from the conflict between classes, serving the interests of the economically dominant class. It rejects the neutral arbiter view and does not reduce the state to a consumer association or a purely cultural body.

Question 18Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

Which of the following best states the principle of 'one person, one vote, one value'?

  1. Only property owners should be entitled to vote
  2. Each candidate should be guaranteed a seat regardless of votes
  3. Voting should be compulsory in all elections
  4. Electoral constituencies should be drawn so that votes carry roughly equal weight Correct answer.

Explanation

The principle demands that population and constituency size be adjusted so that each vote has comparable weight, protecting political equality. Property qualifications, guaranteed seats and compulsory voting are separate questions about franchise and procedure.

Question 19Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

The concept of 'civil society' refers to which sphere of social life?

  1. The profit-seeking activities of private firms
  2. The armed forces and police of the state
  3. The formal apparatus of ministries and departments
  4. Voluntary associations and public activity organised independently of the state and market Correct answer.

Explanation

Civil society is the sphere of voluntary associations, movements and public deliberation that is distinct from both the state apparatus and the market. The armed forces and ministries belong to the state, while firms belong to the market economy.

Question 20Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

A theorist insists that political obligation arises only from an actual promise or agreement made by each individual. Which criticism is most commonly raised against this view?

  1. It overestimates the role of tradition in politics
  2. Most people never actually consent, so the theory cannot explain the obligations of the majority Correct answer.
  3. Consent is always legally enforceable and therefore unnecessary
  4. It makes the state too powerful over individuals

Explanation

Actual-consent theories struggle with the empirical fact that most citizens never explicitly agree, leaving their obligations unexplained. The objection is not that consent is enforceable, nor that tradition is overvalued, nor that the theory strengthens the state excessively.

Question 21Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

Which of the following best describes the 'welfare state'?

  1. A state that restricts its role to defence and internal order alone
  2. A state that owns all means of production and abolishes markets
  3. A state governed exclusively by religious authorities
  4. A state that intervenes to provide social security, health and education and to reduce market inequalities Correct answer.

Explanation

The welfare state intervenes within a market economy to guarantee basic social provision and cushion inequality. It is distinguished from full state socialism, from the minimal night-watchman state, and from theocracy by its mix of market economy and social provision.

Question 22Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

In the debate on development, the 'capability approach' associated with Amartya Sen focuses on which measure of wellbeing?

  1. The number of political parties in a system
  2. The real freedoms people have to choose lives they have reason to value Correct answer.
  3. The level of military expenditure
  4. The size of a country's gross domestic product alone

Explanation

Sen's capability approach evaluates wellbeing by the real freedoms and opportunities people have to pursue lives they value, going beyond income aggregates. GDP alone, military spending and party counts do not capture the expansion of substantive freedoms.

Question 23Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

A constitution that concentrates all power in a single elected legislature with no separate executive or judicial review is best described as which of the following?

  1. A system of judicial supremacy over the legislature
  2. A federal system with divided sovereignty
  3. A presidential system with separation of powers
  4. A pure parliamentary sovereignty model without institutional checks Correct answer.

Explanation

Unlimited legislative authority without separate executive or judicial review expresses parliamentary sovereignty, as in the classical Westminster model. A presidential system separates powers, federalism divides sovereignty, and judicial supremacy gives courts final authority over legislation.

Question 24Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

Which of the following is the best example of 'positive discrimination' in the sense used in Indian public policy?

  1. Reserving seats in legislatures and educational institutions for historically disadvantaged groups Correct answer.
  2. Denying the vote to citizens below a certain income
  3. Awarding public office by hereditary succession
  4. Banning all forms of affirmative action

Explanation

Positive discrimination means deliberate preferential treatment, such as reservations, to remedy historical disadvantage and promote substantive equality. Denying votes, banning affirmative action and hereditary office are the opposite of such preferential measures.

Question 25Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

The idea that power in a democracy is dispersed among many competing groups and no single elite dominates is associated with which perspective?

  1. Pluralism Correct answer.
  2. Marxism
  3. Anarchism
  4. Elite theory

Explanation

Pluralism holds that power is fragmented among competing interest groups, with no permanent ruling elite. Elite theory and Marxism insist on concentrated ruling power, while anarchism rejects the state altogether rather than describing dispersed group power.

Question 26Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

In political theory, the idea of a 'social contract' is used primarily to explain which of the following?

  1. The grounds of political obligation and legitimate authority Correct answer.
  2. The historical origin of every written constitution
  3. The divine right of kings to rule
  4. The economic causes of revolution

Explanation

Social contract theorists such as Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau use the idea of an agreement to explain why individuals are bound to obey the state and what makes political authority legitimate. The contract is a theoretical device, not a claim about an actual historical event or a justification for divine right.

Question 27Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

A citizen argues that she should be free to practise her religion without state interference, but also accepts that the state may limit religious practices that harm public order and morality. This position is best described as which of the following?

  1. A defence of theocracy as the best form of government
  2. A claim that liberty is absolute and cannot be limited
  3. An acceptance of reasonable limits on liberty for the sake of other goods Correct answer.
  4. A rejection of the very idea of rights

Explanation

The citizen affirms religious liberty while recognising that it may be regulated to protect public order and morality, which is the standard liberal position that rights and liberties can be subject to reasonable limits. This is not an absolute-liberty claim, nor a rejection of rights, nor an argument for theocratic rule.

Question 28Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

Which of the following best captures the difference between 'formal' and 'substantive' equality?

  1. Formal equality concerns only economic resources, while substantive equality concerns only legal rules
  2. Formal equality is a Marxist idea, while substantive equality is a liberal idea
  3. Formal equality requires proportional representation, while substantive equality requires identical treatment
  4. Formal equality treats everyone identically in law, while substantive equality asks whether people have the means to benefit equally in practice Correct answer.

Explanation

Formal equality is the principle of treating like cases alike, typically through identical legal rules, whereas substantive equality looks at actual outcomes and the conditions needed for people to enjoy equal standing. The distinction is about treatment versus effective enjoyment, not about which ideology owns each term.

Question 29Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

A theorist argues that a state is legitimate only if its citizens can publicly contest its decisions and hold rulers answerable through institutions such as a free press, opposition parties and courts. This argument most directly emphasises which democratic principle?

  1. The efficiency of expert administration
  2. Accountability and public contestation Correct answer.
  3. The hereditary succession of rulers
  4. Majority rule as the sole criterion of legitimacy

Explanation

The theorist stresses the ability to contest decisions and to hold rulers answerable, which is the core of accountability and public contestation in democratic theory. Majority rule alone is not sufficient, and neither expert administration nor hereditary succession captures the demand for answerability.

Question 30Political Theory: Concepts and Debates

In debates about distributive justice, the 'difference principle' holds that social and economic inequalities are justified only if they are to the greatest benefit of the least advantaged members of society. Which of the following best explains why this principle is often described as a form of prioritarian rather than strictly egalitarian reasoning?

  1. It holds that inequalities are always unjust and must be abolished
  2. It gives priority to the interests of the most productive members of society
  3. It requires an equal distribution of income regardless of its effects on the worst off
  4. It permits inequalities when they improve the position of the worst off, even if they increase the gap between rich and poor Correct answer.

Explanation

The difference principle allows inequalities if they benefit the least advantaged, so it is prioritarian in giving special weight to the worst off rather than demanding equal shares at all costs. It does not require equality regardless of consequences, nor does it privilege the most productive.

Question 31Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

Which feature of the Indian Constitution reflects the influence of the Government of India Act, 1935?

  1. The federal scheme with a division of powers between the Union and the States Correct answer.
  2. The Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. The concept of Fundamental Rights enforceable in courts
  4. The provision for a single citizenship for the whole country

Explanation

The Constitution's federal structure, including the distribution of legislative powers and the office of the Governor, drew substantially on the Government of India Act, 1935. Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles were inspired by other sources such as the US and Irish constitutions. Single citizenship is a feature that departs from strict federalism.

Question 32Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

The Constituent Assembly of India was constituted on the basis of which plan?

  1. The Wavell Plan, 1945
  2. The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 Correct answer.
  3. The Mountbatten Plan, 1947
  4. The Cripps Mission Plan, 1942

Explanation

The Constituent Assembly was set up under the scheme proposed by the Cabinet Mission of 1946, with members indirectly elected by provincial assemblies. The Cripps Mission had proposed a constituent assembly earlier but its scheme was not implemented. The Mountbatten Plan dealt with partition and the transfer of power, not the creation of the Assembly.

Question 33Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

Who served as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

  1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  2. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  3. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Correct answer.
  4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar chaired the seven-member Drafting Committee constituted on 29 August 1947, which prepared the draft text debated by the Assembly. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Constituent Assembly, while Nehru and Patel headed important committees but not the Drafting Committee.

Question 34Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

The Preamble to the Indian Constitution declares India to be a

  1. Federal Union of Sovereign States
  2. Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic Correct answer.
  3. Sovereign Democratic Republic with a parliamentary monarchy
  4. Socialist Federal Democratic Kingdom

Explanation

As amended by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, the Preamble describes India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic. The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were inserted by that amendment. India is a republic with an elected head of state, not a monarchy, and the Preamble does not describe it as a union of sovereign states.

Question 35Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides that the Constitution may be amended by Parliament, subject to the prescribed procedure?

  1. Article 356
  2. Article 44
  3. Article 368 Correct answer.
  4. Article 32

Explanation

Article 368 in Part XX lays down the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for doing so, including special majorities and, for certain provisions, ratification by State legislatures. Article 356 concerns President's Rule, Article 32 deals with writs, and Article 44 contains the uniform civil code directive.

Question 36Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution on the recommendation of which committee?

  1. The Sarkaria Commission
  2. The Swaran Singh Committee Correct answer.
  3. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
  4. The Ashok Mehta Committee

Explanation

The Swaran Singh Committee recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties, and they were inserted as Article 51A by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. The Sarkaria Commission examined Centre-State relations, while the two Mehta committees dealt with Panchayati Raj.

Question 37Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

Which writ is issued by a court to a public authority that has failed to perform a duty imposed on it by law?

  1. Habeas Corpus
  2. Certiorari
  3. Quo Warranto
  4. Mandamus Correct answer.

Explanation

Mandamus literally means 'we command' and directs a public authority to perform a legal duty that it has refused or failed to discharge. Habeas Corpus concerns unlawful detention, Quo Warranto questions a person's authority to hold public office, and Certiorari quashes an order of a lower court or tribunal.

Question 38Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

The idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was first put forward by

  1. M. N. Roy Correct answer.
  2. B. R. Ambedkar
  3. Mahatma Gandhi
  4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation

M. N. Roy, the communist leader, proposed the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India in 1934. Gandhi and Nehru were central to the national movement but did not originate this proposal, and Ambedkar later served as Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

Question 39Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

The Indian Constitution is described as a 'living document' mainly because it

  1. combines rigidity with flexibility through a graded amending procedure Correct answer.
  2. can be amended only by a referendum of the people
  3. can be suspended during a national emergency
  4. has remained unchanged since 1950

Explanation

A living constitution adapts to changing needs, and the Indian Constitution allows this through Article 368, which permits simple, special-majority and ratification-based amendments. There is no referendum requirement for amendment, and the Constitution has been amended over a hundred times since 1950. Emergency provisions do not make it a living document.

Question 40Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

Consider a bill that seeks to alter the boundary of a State. Which of the following is constitutionally required before Parliament passes it?

  1. A referendum must be held in the affected State
  2. The Supreme Court must certify the bill as constitutionally valid
  3. A special majority of the State legislature must ratify the bill
  4. The President must refer the bill to the State legislature concerned for its views within a set period Correct answer.

Explanation

Under Article 3, a bill altering State boundaries or names requires the President's prior recommendation and reference to the affected State legislature for its views within a specified period. Those views are not binding on Parliament. Neither judicial certification nor a referendum is part of the procedure.

Question 41Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

The 'basic structure' doctrine was explicitly established by the Supreme Court in which case?

  1. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India (1951)
  2. Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)
  3. Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967)
  4. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) Correct answer.

Explanation

In Kesavananda Bharati the Supreme Court held that Parliament's amending power under Article 368 is wide but cannot destroy the basic structure of the Constitution. Golaknath had earlier held that Fundamental Rights could not be amended, a position modified by Kesavananda. Minerva Mills applied the doctrine, and Shankari Prasad upheld the First Amendment.

Question 42Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

A State government wishes to legislate on a subject listed in the Concurrent List. Which statement correctly describes the constitutional position?

  1. Only the State legislature may legislate, since the subject is not in the Union List
  2. The State may legislate only with the prior approval of the Supreme Court
  3. Only Parliament may legislate on Concurrent List subjects
  4. Both Parliament and the State legislature may legislate, but in case of conflict a central law prevails unless the State law has received the President's assent Correct answer.

Explanation

Concurrent List subjects such as criminal law and marriage permit both levels to legislate, with Article 254 giving primacy to central law on repugnancy unless the State law has been reserved for and received the President's assent. Neither level has exclusive competence, and the Supreme Court does not grant prior approval for legislation.

Question 43Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

Which of the following is a Directive Principle that directs the State to organise village panchayats?

  1. Article 39A
  2. Article 48A
  3. Article 43A
  4. Article 40 Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 40 directs the State to take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers to function as units of self-government. Article 39A concerns equal justice and free legal aid, Article 43A relates to workers' participation in management, and Article 48A deals with environmental protection.

Question 44Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

The Fundamental Right to education under Article 21A applies to children of which age group?

  1. Up to six years only
  2. Three to ten years
  3. Six to fourteen years Correct answer.
  4. Six to eighteen years

Explanation

Article 21A, inserted by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002, guarantees free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years. Earlier, Article 45 in the Directive Principles had called for free and compulsory education for children up to fourteen years. The other age ranges do not match the constitutional text.

Question 45Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

Which amendment to the Constitution is known for curtailing the right to property as a Fundamental Right?

  1. The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
  2. The 24th Amendment Act, 1971
  3. The 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
  4. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 Correct answer.

Explanation

The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights, making it a legal right under Article 300A. The 42nd Amendment is associated with the addition of Socialist and Secular to the Preamble, the 24th dealt with amending power, and the 52nd introduced the anti-defection law.

Question 46Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

The concept of 'single citizenship' in the Indian Constitution means that

  1. a person is a citizen of India alone and not separately of any State Correct answer.
  2. citizenship may be acquired only by birth
  3. citizenship is granted only by the States
  4. a person may hold citizenship of India and of a State simultaneously

Explanation

India provides for single citizenship, so every citizen owes allegiance to the Union alone and enjoys the same rights throughout the country. This differs from the United States, where state citizenship also exists. Citizenship in India can be acquired by birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory.

Question 47Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by

  1. the members of both Houses of Parliament
  2. the President in consultation with the Prime Minister
  3. the members of the Lok Sabha from among themselves Correct answer.
  4. the Electoral College comprising elected members of Parliament

Explanation

Article 93 provides that the House of the People shall choose two of its members to be Speaker and Deputy Speaker. The President does not appoint the Speaker, and the Rajya Sabha does not participate in the choice. The Electoral College is used for electing the President, not the Speaker.

Question 48Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

Which of the following best explains why the Indian Constitution is often called 'quasi-federal'?

  1. It has no division of powers between the Union and the States
  2. It has a federal structure but contains strong unitary features such as a single citizenship and unified judiciary Correct answer.
  3. It is a loose confederation of sovereign States
  4. It gives States the power to secede from the Union

Explanation

The Indian Constitution has federal features such as a written constitution and division of powers, but also unitary features including single citizenship, a unified judiciary, appointment of Governors and emergency provisions. These features tilt the balance towards the Union, prompting the description 'quasi-federal'. A confederation and a right of secession are inconsistent with the constitutional scheme.

Question 49Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

A person detained under a preventive detention law challenges the order. Which Fundamental Right is most directly relevant to testing the legality of the detention?

  1. Article 25
  2. Article 19
  3. Article 22 Correct answer.
  4. Article 30

Explanation

Article 22 provides safeguards for persons arrested or detained, including the right to be informed of grounds and to consult a legal practitioner, and lays down special rules for preventive detention. Article 19 covers freedoms such as speech and movement, Article 25 covers religion, and Article 30 covers minority educational institutions.

Question 50Indian Constitution and Constitutional Design

The National Human Rights Protection Act, 1993 established the National Human Rights Commission. Which statement about the Commission is constitutionally accurate?

  1. It is an advisory body of the Supreme Court constituted under Article 32
  2. It is a body created by a Presidential order under Article 356
  3. It is a constitutional body established directly by Article 338
  4. It is a statutory body created by an Act of Parliament and not a constitutional body Correct answer.

Explanation

The NHRC was created by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, making it a statutory body rather than a body directly established by the Constitution. Constitutional bodies include the Election Commission and the Comptroller and Auditor General. Article 356 concerns emergency provisions and Article 32 concerns writ jurisdiction.