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Maharashtra HSC Political Science study materials
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Maharashtra HSC Political Science practice questions

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Question 1The Indian Constitution and its Features

The Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution on which date?

  1. 15 August 1947
  2. 26 January 1950
  3. 26 November 1949 Correct answer.
  4. 9 December 1946

Explanation

The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1949, a date now observed as Constitution Day. The document came into force on 26 January 1950, which is celebrated as Republic Day. The two dates are deliberately separated because adoption and commencement are different legal events.

Question 2The Indian Constitution and its Features

Who served as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

  1. B. R. Ambedkar Correct answer.
  2. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  3. Rajendra Prasad
  4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation

The Drafting Committee was constituted on 29 August 1947 with B. R. Ambedkar as its Chairman. It was tasked with preparing the draft text for debate in the Constituent Assembly. Rajendra Prasad presided over the Assembly itself, a distinct role.

Question 3The Indian Constitution and its Features

The Preamble to the Indian Constitution declares India to be a:

  1. Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic Correct answer.
  2. Federal Union of Independent States
  3. Sovereign Democratic Monarchy
  4. Socialist Democratic Commonwealth

Explanation

The Preamble describes India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic. The words socialist and secular were inserted by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. The Preamble also records the source of authority as the people of India.

Question 4The Indian Constitution and its Features

Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability?

  1. Article 15
  2. Article 17 Correct answer.
  3. Article 14
  4. Article 21

Explanation

Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form. It is one of the few fundamental rights that is enforceable against private individuals as well as the State. Article 35 empowers Parliament to make laws giving effect to this right.

Question 5The Indian Constitution and its Features

Under the Indian Constitution, the executive power of the Union is vested in the:

  1. President Correct answer.
  2. Council of Ministers
  3. Prime Minister
  4. Parliament

Explanation

Article 53 vests the executive power of the Union in the President, exercised directly or through subordinate officers. In practice the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers under Article 74. The vesting clause is therefore formal, while real decision-making lies with the elected government.

Question 6The Indian Constitution and its Features

The Indian Constitution is described as quasi-federal mainly because:

  1. The Constitution can be amended by the states alone
  2. The Union has a strong centre and states lack separate sovereignty Correct answer.
  3. The President is elected by the state legislatures only
  4. States may secede from the Union at will

Explanation

The Constitution distributes powers between the Union and states, yet concentrates strength at the centre through features like single citizenship and emergency provisions. States have no separate sovereignty or right of secession. This combination of federal structure with a strong centre is why scholars call it quasi-federal.

Question 7The Indian Constitution and its Features

A state government wishes to legislate on a subject listed in the Concurrent List. Which body's law will prevail if the state law conflicts with an existing Union law on the same subject?

  1. The Union law, unless the state law received presidential assent Correct answer.
  2. The state law, because the subject is concurrent
  3. Neither law, until the Supreme Court decides
  4. The law passed earlier in time

Explanation

Under Article 254, when a state law on a Concurrent List subject conflicts with a Union law, the Union law prevails. The exception is a state law reserved for and receiving the President's assent. In that case the state law prevails within that state, though Parliament may still override it later.

Question 8The Indian Constitution and its Features

A writ is sought against a private company that has dismissed an employee without following its own service rules. Which reasoning best reflects Indian constitutional law on maintainability of a writ of mandamus?

  1. A writ lies only against the Union government
  2. A writ always lies against private bodies because fundamental rights bind everyone
  3. A writ generally lies against the State, though bodies discharging public functions may be amenable Correct answer.
  4. A writ never lies unless the body is a department of government

Explanation

Article 226 and Article 32 writs are ordinarily directed at the State and its instrumentalities. Courts have extended writ jurisdiction to private bodies performing public functions or discharging statutory duties. A purely private employer's internal service dispute is normally a matter for ordinary courts or industrial adjudication.

Question 9The Indian Constitution and its Features

Which feature of the Indian Constitution allows Parliament to amend most provisions without a special state ratification process?

  1. The power of the President to amend by ordinance
  2. The directive principles being non-justiciable
  3. The flexible procedure under Article 368 for ordinary amendments Correct answer.
  4. The residuary powers of the states

Explanation

Article 368 provides different routes for amendment. Many provisions can be amended by Parliament by a special majority alone, which gives the Constitution a flexible side. Only specified provisions, such as those affecting federal matters, additionally require ratification by half the state legislatures.

Question 10The Indian Constitution and its Features

Directive Principles of State Policy are best described as:

  1. Temporary provisions that lapsed after 1950
  2. Moral precepts with no constitutional status
  3. Justiciable rights enforceable through writs
  4. Non-justiciable guidelines fundamental in the governance of the country Correct answer.

Explanation

Articles 36 to 51 contain the Directive Principles, which Article 37 declares fundamental in the governance of the country. They are not enforceable in courts, yet the State must apply them while making laws. Courts have used them to interpret fundamental rights and to uphold welfare legislation.

Question 11The Indian Constitution and its Features

A law prescribes the death penalty for a category of offences. Which constitutional provision is most directly engaged when its validity is challenged?

  1. Article 25
  2. Article 29
  3. Article 19(1)(a)
  4. Article 21 Correct answer.

Explanation

A challenge to capital punishment is framed under Article 21, which protects life and personal liberty. The Supreme Court has held that the procedure must be fair, just and reasonable, and has required a principled sentencing hearing. Article 21 thus governs both the substantive and procedural aspects of the death penalty.

Question 12The Indian Constitution and its Features

Which of the following is a constitutional duty of the Union under the federal scheme, rather than a discretionary policy choice?

  1. Establishing a new All India Service each decade
  2. Holding local body elections every year
  3. Appointing a Finance Commission every fifth year or earlier Correct answer.
  4. Providing free education up to the doctoral level

Explanation

Article 280 requires the President to constitute a Finance Commission at the expiration of every fifth year or earlier. The Commission recommends distribution of taxes between the Union and states and grants-in-aid. This periodic constitutional obligation supports fiscal federalism.

Question 13The Indian Constitution and its Features

The concept of 'basic structure' means that Parliament cannot amend the Constitution so as to:

  1. Alter the language of the courts
  2. Increase the number of states
  3. Destroy or damage its essential features Correct answer.
  4. Change the salary of judges

Explanation

In Kesavananda Bharati the Supreme Court held that Parliament's amending power is wide but cannot destroy the basic structure. Features such as supremacy of the Constitution, secularism, separation of powers and judicial review are treated as part of that structure. Ordinary amendments that do not damage these features remain valid.

Question 14The Indian Constitution and its Features

Which statement correctly distinguishes the Indian Constitution from the British constitutional model?

  1. India follows an unwritten constitution like Britain
  2. India has a written constitution with judicial review, while Britain relies on conventions and parliamentary sovereignty Correct answer.
  3. India vests sovereignty in the monarchy
  4. India has no parliamentary system of government

Explanation

India adopted a parliamentary system on the British model but placed it within a written, supreme constitution. Unlike Britain, Indian courts can review legislation for constitutional validity. Britain, by contrast, has no single codified constitutional text and recognises parliamentary sovereignty.

Question 15The Indian Constitution and its Features

A person is detained under a preventive detention law. Which safeguard is guaranteed by Article 22?

  1. Release within twenty-four hours in every case
  2. Trial by a jury within one month
  3. Automatic bail on the filing of a petition
  4. Communication of the grounds of detention and an opportunity to make a representation Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 22 requires that a detenu be informed of the grounds of detention and given the earliest opportunity to make a representation. Preventive detention also carries advisory board review and limits on the initial period of detention. The twenty-four hour rule applies to ordinary arrest, not to preventive detention in the same way.

Question 16The Indian Constitution and its Features

The Constitution provides for single citizenship in India. Which consequence follows from this?

  1. Citizens owe allegiance only to the Union and enjoy uniform rights across states Correct answer.
  2. States may grant their own passports
  3. Each state maintains a separate citizenship registry
  4. Citizens of one state cannot own property in another

Explanation

India follows single citizenship, so every citizen owes allegiance to the Union and enjoys the same fundamental rights throughout the country. The United States, by contrast, has dual citizenship of the nation and the state. Single citizenship promotes national unity and removes state-based barriers to movement and property.

Question 17The Indian Constitution and its Features

Consider a situation where the President of India disagrees with the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers. Which statement reflects the constitutional position after the 42nd and 44th Amendments?

  1. The President may refer every matter directly to the Supreme Court
  2. The President may dissolve Parliament without advice
  3. The President may reject the advice and govern independently
  4. The President must act on the advice, though a single reconsideration may be sought Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 74 as amended requires the President to act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers. The 44th Amendment allowed the President to return the advice once for reconsideration. If the Council reiterates its advice, the President is bound by it.

Question 18The Indian Constitution and its Features

In the scheme of distribution of legislative powers, a subject not enumerated in any of the three Lists falls within:

  1. The State List by default
  2. The exclusive power of the Governor
  3. The residuary power of Parliament Correct answer.
  4. The Concurrent List by default

Explanation

Article 248 read with Entry 97 of the Union List gives Parliament the residuary power over matters not enumerated in the State or Concurrent Lists. This follows the Canadian model rather than the Australian model, where residuary power lies with the states. The choice strengthens the Union's capacity to legislate on new subjects such as emerging technologies.

Question 19The Indian Constitution and its Features

The Supreme Court's power to issue writs under Article 32 is itself a fundamental right. What is the most accurate implication of this position?

  1. High Courts lose their Article 226 jurisdiction when Article 32 is invoked
  2. The Supreme Court must hear every petition regardless of maintainability
  3. The right to constitutional remedies can be suspended only as the Constitution permits, and Article 32 cannot be abridged to nullify it Correct answer.
  4. Parliament can abolish the writ jurisdiction by ordinary law

Explanation

Ambedkar described Article 32 as the heart and soul of the Constitution because it makes rights enforceable. The right can be suspended only in the manner the Constitution allows, notably during a proclamation of emergency under Article 359. The Supreme Court has held that Article 32 cannot be diluted by ordinary legislation.

Question 20The Indian Constitution and its Features

A constitutional amendment bill seeks to change the manner of election of the President. Which procedural requirement must be satisfied in addition to the special majority in each House of Parliament?

  1. A referendum conducted by the Election Commission
  2. Approval by a majority of the Supreme Court judges
  3. Ratification by the legislatures of not less than half the states Correct answer.
  4. Assent of all state governors

Explanation

Article 368(2) lists provisions whose amendment requires ratification by the legislatures of not less than half the states before the bill is presented for assent. The manner of election of the President is one such provision. This protects the federal balance by involving the units in changes to key federal arrangements.

Question 21Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

The Constitution of India describes the Fundamental Rights in which Part?

  1. Part IV
  2. Part IVA
  3. Part II
  4. Part III Correct answer.

Explanation

Fundamental Rights are grouped in Part III of the Constitution, running from Article 12 to Article 35. This Part is often called the Magna Carta of the Indian Constitution because it protects individuals against arbitrary state action.

Question 22Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

Which Article of the Constitution is described as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?

  1. Article 14
  2. Article 19
  3. Article 32 Correct answer.
  4. Article 21

Explanation

Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 the heart and soul of the Constitution because it gives every person the right to move the Supreme Court directly for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Without an effective remedy, the rights themselves would be hollow declarations.

Question 23Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

Under Article 15, which of the following is a permitted ground of special provision by the State?

  1. Preference in public employment based on place of birth
  2. Special provisions for women and children Correct answer.
  3. Reservation of private sector jobs on the basis of religion
  4. Denial of access to public shops on the basis of caste

Explanation

Article 15(3) expressly allows the State to make special provisions for women and children, which is why protective labour laws and reservation for women in local bodies are valid. Other forms of discrimination listed in Article 15(1) remain prohibited unless a specific enabling clause applies.

Question 24Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

The Right to Education was inserted as Article 21A by which Constitutional Amendment?

  1. 86th Amendment Correct answer.
  2. 42nd Amendment
  3. 44th Amendment
  4. 73rd Amendment

Explanation

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for children aged six to fourteen. It also added Fundamental Duty 51A(k) and amended Article 45 to direct early childhood care.

Question 25Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

A state government passes a law requiring all shops to display the religious affiliation of their owners. Which Fundamental Right is most directly violated?

  1. Article 30, rights of minorities to run institutions
  2. Article 25, freedom of conscience
  3. Article 15, prohibition of discrimination on the ground of religion Correct answer.
  4. Article 19(1)(g), freedom of trade

Explanation

Compelling persons to publicly declare their religion in commercial dealings treats citizens unequally on the ground of religion, which Article 15(1) forbids. The law also offends the privacy of belief, but the strongest direct violation is unequal treatment based on religion.

Question 26Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

Which writ is issued by a court to a public authority that has failed to perform a duty imposed by law?

  1. Quo Warranto
  2. Mandamus Correct answer.
  3. Certiorari
  4. Habeas Corpus

Explanation

Mandamus literally means 'we command' and compels a public authority to perform a public duty it has neglected or refused to perform. It cannot be used against a private individual or to enforce a purely contractual obligation.

Question 27Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

Which of the following Fundamental Duties was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment?

  1. To provide opportunities for education to one's child between six and fourteen years Correct answer.
  2. To protect and improve the natural environment
  3. To safeguard public property and abjure violence
  4. To respect the National Flag and the Constitution

Explanation

Article 51A(k) was inserted by the 86th Amendment in 2002 and makes it the duty of a parent or guardian to provide education to children aged six to fourteen. This duty was added to complement the new Fundamental Right to education.

Question 28Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution on the recommendation of which committee?

  1. Ashok Mehta Committee
  2. Swaran Singh Committee Correct answer.
  3. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
  4. Sarkaria Commission

Explanation

The Swaran Singh Committee, set up in 1976, recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties, which were then incorporated by the 42nd Amendment. The idea drew on the duty-bound citizenship emphasised in many socialist constitutions.

Question 29Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

Which Article states that the Directive Principles shall not be enforceable by any court?

  1. Article 38
  2. Article 37 Correct answer.
  3. Article 39
  4. Article 36

Explanation

Article 37 declares that the Directive Principles are not enforceable in any court, yet they are fundamental in the governance of the country. It obliges the State to apply them while making laws, so they guide policy without creating directly enforceable claims.

Question 30Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

Which Directive Principle was given primacy over Fundamental Rights by the 42nd Amendment through Article 39(b) and 39(c)?

  1. Separation of the judiciary from the executive
  2. Organisation of village panchayats
  3. Uniform civil code
  4. Distribution of material resources to subserve the common good Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 31C, introduced by the 25th Amendment and strengthened by the 42nd Amendment, gave protection to laws implementing the principles in Articles 39(b) and 39(c). These deal with distribution of material resources and prevention of concentration of wealth.

Question 31Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

In the Kesavananda Bharati judgment, the Supreme Court held that Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles must be read as:

  1. Purely advisory provisions with no legal effect
  2. Subordinate to each other in a fixed hierarchy
  3. Complementary parts of a single constitutional scheme Correct answer.
  4. Mutually exclusive parts with no overlap

Explanation

The Court in Kesavananda Bharati (1973) held that Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles form a harmonious whole and must be balanced rather than treated as rivals. This approach permitted the State to pursue welfare goals while preserving the basic structure of rights.

Question 32Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

Article 21A guarantees free and compulsory education to children of which age group?

  1. Three to fourteen years
  2. Six to fourteen years Correct answer.
  3. Six to sixteen years
  4. Five to twelve years

Explanation

Article 21A fixes the age group at six to fourteen years, matching the corresponding Fundamental Duty in Article 51A(k). The RTE Act, 2009 was enacted to give effect to this right through school admission and infrastructure norms.

Question 33Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

Which case expanded Article 21 to include the right to a clean and healthy environment?

  1. A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
  2. Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar Correct answer.
  3. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
  4. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

Explanation

In Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar (1991) the Supreme Court held that the right to life under Article 21 includes the right to enjoy pollution-free water and air. Environmental protection was thus read into the right to life and linked with Article 48A.

Question 34Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

A citizen is denied a government job solely because she belongs to a particular caste. Which Articles are most directly attracted?

  1. Articles 19 and 20
  2. Articles 14 and 16 Correct answer.
  3. Articles 29 and 30
  4. Articles 25 and 26

Explanation

Article 16(2) prohibits discrimination in public employment on grounds including caste, and Article 14 reinforces the general guarantee of equality. Together they make such a denial of employment unconstitutional unless saved by a valid enabling provision.

Question 35Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

The right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by which amendment?

  1. 25th Amendment
  2. 24th Amendment
  3. 42nd Amendment
  4. 44th Amendment Correct answer.

Explanation

The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 deleted Article 31 and Article 19(1)(f), removing the right to property from Part III. It was reinserted as Article 300A, a constitutional right that no person may be deprived of property except by authority of law.

Question 36Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

Which Fundamental Duty requires citizens to develop a scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform?

  1. Article 51A(f)
  2. Article 51A(j)
  3. Article 51A(g)
  4. Article 51A(h) Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 51A(h) makes it the duty of every citizen to develop a scientific temper, humanism and a spirit of inquiry and reform. It reflects the Constitution's commitment to reason and progress, and is often invoked in debates on superstition and public policy.

Question 37Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

Fundamental Duties in Part IVA are described in the Constitution as applying to which category of persons?

  1. Every public servant
  2. Every person residing in India
  3. Every citizen of India Correct answer.
  4. Every adult voter

Explanation

Article 51A begins with the words 'It shall be the duty of every citizen of India', so the duties attach to citizens rather than to all persons. Foreign nationals residing in India are therefore not bound by Part IVA, though they enjoy several Fundamental Rights.

Question 38Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

Article 39A, inserted by the 42nd Amendment, directs the State to provide:

  1. Reservation in private educational institutions
  2. A uniform civil code for all citizens
  3. Compulsory military training for youth
  4. Free legal aid to the poor Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 39A requires the State to secure equal justice and free legal aid so that opportunities for securing justice are not denied by reason of economic or other disabilities. This principle led to the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 and the Lok Adalat system.

Question 39Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

Which Article directs the State to organise village panchayats as units of self-government?

  1. Article 43
  2. Article 40 Correct answer.
  3. Article 41
  4. Article 44

Explanation

Article 40 is a Directive Principle requiring the State to take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with powers to function as units of self-government. This principle inspired the 73rd Amendment, which gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions.

Question 40Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles

A state law grants reservation in promotions to a backward class but is challenged for lacking adequate data on backwardness. Which principle best explains judicial scrutiny of such a law?

  1. Fundamental Rights are suspended whenever a Directive Principle is invoked
  2. The law must satisfy Article 16 and the equality test even while pursuing a welfare goal Correct answer.
  3. Directive Principles automatically validate any reservation law
  4. Reservation laws are immune from judicial review once passed by a legislature

Explanation

A law pursuing a Directive Principle still has to satisfy the equality guarantees in Articles 14 and 16, including the requirement of adequate data and absence of excessive reservation. Courts therefore review both the purpose and the proportionality of the measure.

Question 41Union Government: Executive, Legislature and Judiciary

Under the Constitution of India, the executive power of the Union is vested in which authority?

  1. The Prime Minister
  2. The President Correct answer.
  3. The Council of Ministers
  4. The Chief Justice of India

Explanation

Article 53 declares that the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him directly or through officers subordinate to him. The Council of Ministers and the Prime Minister assist and advise, but the constitutional vesting is in the President.

Question 42Union Government: Executive, Legislature and Judiciary

Which article of the Constitution provides that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President?

  1. Article 79
  2. Article 75
  3. Article 78
  4. Article 74 Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 74 creates the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister whose duty is to aid and advise the President. Article 75 deals with appointment and tenure of ministers, Article 78 with the Prime Minister's duty to communicate information, and Article 79 with the constitution of Parliament.

Question 43Union Government: Executive, Legislature and Judiciary

The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 made the President's obligation to act on ministerial advice mandatory. Which provision reflects this change?

  1. The President may refer every piece of advice to the Supreme Court for an advisory opinion
  2. The President may return advice once for reconsideration, but must act on the advice tendered after reconsideration Correct answer.
  3. The President must seek a fresh mandate from the electorate before accepting advice
  4. The President may reject ministerial advice if it conflicts with his own judgment

Explanation

The 42nd Amendment made the advice of the Council of Ministers binding, while allowing the President to require the Council to reconsider the advice once. After reconsideration, the President is constitutionally bound to act in accordance with the advice tendered.

Question 44Union Government: Executive, Legislature and Judiciary

Which of the following qualifications is required for a person to be eligible for election as President of India?

  1. Must have completed 25 years of age and be a registered voter in the state of birth
  2. Must have completed 35 years of age and be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha Correct answer.
  3. Must have completed 30 years of age and be a member of the Rajya Sabha
  4. Must have completed 40 years of age and hold a graduate degree

Explanation

Article 58 requires a presidential candidate to be a citizen of India, to have completed 35 years of age, and to be qualified for election as a member of the House of the People. Membership of the Rajya Sabha, a graduate degree and state-specific voter registration are not constitutional qualifications.

Question 45Union Government: Executive, Legislature and Judiciary

In the election of the President of India, the value of each MLA's vote is calculated on which basis?

  1. The number of years the member has served in the Assembly multiplied by 100
  2. The total number of registered voters in the state divided by the number of members of Parliament
  3. The total population of the state divided by the number of elected members of the State Legislative Assembly multiplied by 1000 Correct answer.
  4. The total revenue of the state divided by the number of Assembly seats

Explanation

Under Article 55, the value of an MLA's vote is obtained by dividing the state's population by the number of elected members of the Assembly and multiplying the quotient by 1000. This formula aims to maintain uniformity in the scale of representation among states and the Union.

Question 46Union Government: Executive, Legislature and Judiciary

Which body conducts the election of the President and Vice-President of India?

  1. The Election Commission of India Correct answer.
  2. The Rajya Sabha Secretariat
  3. The Supreme Court of India
  4. The Union Cabinet Secretariat

Explanation

Article 324 empowers the Election Commission of India to superintend, direct and control elections, including the indirect elections to the offices of President and Vice-President. Disputes arising from these elections are later decided by the Supreme Court under Article 71.

Question 47Union Government: Executive, Legislature and Judiciary

Who administers the oath of office to the President of India?

  1. The Vice-President
  2. The Attorney General of India
  3. The Chief Justice of India Correct answer.
  4. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Explanation

Article 60 provides that the Chief Justice of India, or in his absence the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court available, administers the oath to the President. The oath affirms allegiance to the Constitution and faithful discharge of duties.

Question 48Union Government: Executive, Legislature and Judiciary

The President of India can be removed from office before the expiry of his term through which procedure?

  1. A writ of quo warranto issued by the Supreme Court
  2. A resolution of the Inter-State Council adopted by a simple majority
  3. Impeachment for violation of the Constitution by a special majority of both Houses of Parliament Correct answer.
  4. A vote of no-confidence passed by the Lok Sabha alone

Explanation

Article 61 provides that the President may be removed by impeachment for violation of the Constitution. The charge must be preferred by one House by a two-thirds majority of the total membership and investigated by the other House, which must also pass the resolution by the same special majority.

Question 49Union Government: Executive, Legislature and Judiciary

Which of the following is a power that the President of India exercises in his own discretion?

  1. Approval of the Union Budget
  2. Appointment of the Prime Minister when no party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha Correct answer.
  3. Appointment of the Chief Justice of India
  4. Declaration of war against a foreign country

Explanation

Where the general election produces a hung Lok Sabha, the President exercises situational discretion in choosing a person who can command the confidence of the House. The other listed functions are exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.

Question 50Union Government: Executive, Legislature and Judiciary

The President's power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment is conferred by which article?

  1. Article 72 Correct answer.
  2. Article 143
  3. Article 32
  4. Article 161

Explanation

Article 72 confers on the President the power to grant pardons and to suspend, remit or commute sentences, including in cases involving court martial and death sentences. Article 161 gives a similar but narrower power to Governors.